02. Previous Year Questions: Sectors of the Indian Economy

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: ‘X’ lives in a town. He cultivates flowers along with animal husbandry. The work of ‘X’ will fall under which sector of the economy?  (1 Mark)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

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Ans: (a)

Flower cultivation and animal husbandry use natural resources (land, biological processes) and produce natural goods (flowers, milk), so they belong to the primary (agriculture and related) sector.


Q2: The work of which of the following comes in the secondary sector of the economy?  (1 Mark)
(a) Bee-keeper
(b) Moneylender
(c) Basket weaver
(d) Fisherman

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Ans: (c) Basket weaver

A basket weaver converts raw natural materials into a manufactured good (a basket), so this activity belongs to the secondary (industrial) sector.


Q3: Explain the difference between public and private sector of Indian economy with example.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

Public sector: Owned and run by the government. The government provides big services that are needed by everyone and may be too expensive for private companies to do cheaply.
Example: Railways or the Post Office.

Private sector: Owned by private people or companies. They run businesses to earn profit by selling goods and services.
Example: TISCO or Reliance.

Main difference (one line): Public sector is owned and managed by the government to serve people, while private sector is owned by individuals/companies to make profit.


Q4: Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area. The survey has revealed that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table prepared by Rakhi is given below. Study the table carefully and answer the Question that follows:  (1 Mark)

How many people are working in the organised sector?
(a)
 380
(b) 140
(c) 320
(d) 210

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Ans: (d) 210

Organised sector includes regular, registered places of work (e.g., schools, big factories, hospitals). So add teachers (10) + factory workers (140) + hospital employees (60) = 210.


Q5: Rakhi has done an economic survey of her area. The survey has revealed that people earn their livelihood by doing different jobs. The table prepared by Rakhi is given below. Study the table carefully and answer the Q that follows: 

How many people are working in the unorganised sector?   (1 Mark)
(a) 
380
(b) 210
(c) 320
(d) 140

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Ans: (c) 320

Total people = 530. Organised sector workers = teachers (10) + factory workers (140) + hospital employees (60) = 210.
So unorganised = 530 − 210 = 320 (farmers 250 + handloom weavers 70).


Q6: The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called ______.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Per Capita Income
(b) Per Capita Production
(c) Gross National Income
(d) Gross Domestic Product

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Ans: (d) Gross Domestic Product

GDP is defined as the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year, as explained in the chapter.


Q7: Identify the sector based on the following characteristics and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
(i) The objective of this sector is to earn profit.
(ii) This sector is owned by a person or company.
(iii) Tata Iron and Steel is an example of this sector.
(a)
 Cooperative Sector
(b) Unorganised Sector
(c) Public Sector
(d) Private Sector

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Ans: (d) Private Sector

The private sector is owned by individuals or companies and aims to earn profit; TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel) is given in the chapter as an example of a private firm.


Q8: Identify the odd one out:  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Hindustan Computers Limited
(b) Bharti Airtel Limited
(c) Hindustan Unilever Limited
(d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

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Ans: (d) Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited

The odd one out is the public sector enterprise—BHEL—while the other three are privately owned companies. The classification here is based on ownership (public vs private) as explained in the chapter.


Q9: Find the odd one out:  (1 Mark)
(a) 
Hindustan Computers Limited
(b) Hindustan Unilever
(c) Bharti Airtel Limited
(d) Indian Postal Service

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Ans: (d) Indian Postal Service

Indian Postal Service is a public (government) service, while the others are private companies. The classification is by ownership (public vs private) as explained in the chapter.


Q10: Choose the correct option to fill the blank:  (1 Mark)

(a) Nature of social activities
(b) Nature of political activities
(c) Nature of production activities
(d) Nature of government activities

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Ans: (c) Nature of production activities

The primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors are classified based on the nature of production activities — whether goods are produced using natural resources, manufactured, or provided as services.


Q11: Explain the difference between organised and unorganised sector of the economy with examples.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Difference between Organised and Unorganised Sector


Q12: Evaluate the contribution of the tertiary sector in Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  1. Over the years, the tertiary sector has become the largest producing sector in India.
  2. Between 1977–78 and 2017–18, production in all three sectors increased, but it increased the most in the tertiary sector.
  3. In 2017–18, the tertiary (service) sector replaced the primary sector as the biggest contributor to GDP.
  4. The growth of this sector is due to:
    • Need for basic services like education, health, banking, transport, and communication.
    • Development of agriculture and industry, which increased demand for transport, trade, and storage.
    • Rising income levels and demand for new services like tourism, private schools, and hospitals.
    • Expansion of IT and communication-based services in recent years.

Conclusion: The tertiary sector plays a key role in India’s economic growth and now contributes the largest share to GDP.


Q13: Analyse the problem of underemployment in the agriculture sector in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • In India, many people work in the agriculture sector, but their work does not increase total production.
  • There are more workers than needed; even if some stop working, output remains the same.
  • This situation is called underemployment or disguised unemployment.
  • For example, a small farmer’s whole family works on a tiny plot though fewer people are enough.

Conclusion: Underemployment in agriculture shows that many workers are not fully used, leading to low income and productivity.


Q14: Explain the role of the primary sector in employment generation in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • The primary sector (agriculture and related activities) is the largest source of employment in India.
  • Even though its share in the total production has reduced, it still employs more than half of the workers in the country.
  • Most people depend on farming, fishing, forestry, and animal husbandry for their livelihood.
  • However, many of these workers face underemployment, as there are more people working than required.

Conclusion: The primary sector provides the maximum jobs in India but often with low productivity and disguised unemployment.


Q15: Analyse the changes taking place in the sectors of the Indian economy in the context of Gross Domestic Product.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • In 1977–78, the primary sector (mainly agriculture) was the largest contributor to India’s GDP.
  • Over the years, the secondary sector (industries) and especially the tertiary sector (services) have grown rapidly.
  • By 2017–18, the tertiary sector became the largest producing sector, replacing the primary sector.
  • Services like transport, banking, communication, education, and IT have expanded fast.

Conclusion: The share of the primary sector in GDP has fallen, while the tertiary sector has shown the highest growth, becoming the main contributor to India’s economic production.


Q16: Suppose you are the Sarpanch of your village. What suggestions will you give for creating additional employment in the village, so that the problem of unemployment of the residents of rural areas can be reduced?  (5 Marks) 

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Ans: 

As a Sarpanch, I would suggest the following steps to create more employmentin the village:

  1. Improve Irrigation Facilities:
    • Construct wells, canals, or tanks to provide water for farming.
    • This will allow farmers to grow more than one crop in a year and create extra work.
  2. Promote Small-Scale Industries:
    • Set up dal mills, food processing units, or cold storages for crops like pulses, potatoes, and onions.
    • This will provide jobs to youth and reduce dependence on farming alone.
  3. Encourage Rural Services:
    • Develop transport, repair shops, tailoring, and local trade.
    • It will give employment in the tertiary sector within the village.
  4. Provide Cheap Credit:
    • Help farmers get easy loans from banks or cooperatives to buy seeds, tools, and pumpsets.
    • This will improve productivity and income.
  5. Implement Government Schemes:
    • Effectively use the MGNREGA 2005 (Right to Work) scheme to give 100 days of guaranteed employment.
    • Take up works like road building, water harvesting, and land improvement.

Conclusion: By improving irrigation, promoting industries, services, and government employment schemes, the village can reduce unemployment and improve the standard of living of its people.


Q17: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Organised Sector: Kanta works in the organised sector. Organised sector covers those enterprises or places of work where the terms of employment are regular and therefore, people have assured work. They are registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as the Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act, Shops and Establishments Act, etc. It is called Organised Sector because it has some formal processes and procedures. Some of these people may not be employed by anyone but may work on their own, but they too have to register themselves with the government and follow the rules and regulations.
(i) Mention any one feature of the working conditions of the organised sector.  (1 Mark)
(ii) Explain any one benefit provided by the employers to the organised sector employees.  (1 Mark)
(iii) Why is it necessary for all self-employed people to register with the government?  (2 Marks)

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Ans:

(i) Feature of Working Conditions:

One feature of the organised sector is that the terms of employment are regular, and workers have assured and secure jobs.

(ii) Benefit Provided:

  • Workers in the organised sector get benefits like paid leave, provident fund, medical facilities, and pensions after retirement.

(ii) Need for Registration of Self-Employed:

  • It is necessary for self-employed people to register with the government because it ensures that they follow rules and regulations such as payment of minimum wages and safety laws.
    Registration also helps the government to monitor working conditions and provide legal protection, ensuring fairness and security for workers.


Q18: Analyse the significance of the Primary Sector in the Indian economy.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • The primary sector includes agriculture, fishing, forestry, dairy, and mining — activities that use natural resources directly.
  • It is the base of all other sectors, as raw materials for industries (like cotton for textiles, sugarcane for sugar) come from it.
  • The primary sector also provides employment to more than half of India’s workers, especially in rural areas.
  • It plays a vital role in ensuring food security and supports industries and services linked to farming and trade.

Conclusion: The primary sector is the foundation of India’s economy, as it provides raw materials, jobs, and livelihood to a large part of the population.


Q19: Examine the factors driving the growth of the Tertiary Sector in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

The tertiary sector(service sector) has grown rapidly in India due to the following factors:

  1. Basic Services:
    • The government provides essential services like education, health, banking, transport, and communication, which are part of the tertiary sector.
  2. Support to Other Sectors:
    • Growth of agriculture and industries increases the demand for transport, trade, storage, and banking services.
  3. Rising Income and Demand:
    • As people’s income levels increase, they spend more on services like tourism, private schools, and hospitals.
  4. Information and Technology Services:
    • In recent years, IT and communication-based services like call centres, software companies, and internet services have expanded quickly.

Conclusion: These factors together have made the tertiary sector the largest contributor to India’s GDP and a key part of economic growth.


Q20: Suggest any three measures to increase employment opportunities in urban areas in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  1. Promote Small-Scale Industries:
    • Encourage setting up of small factories, workshops, and business units in cities to create more jobs for skilled and unskilled workers.
  2. Develop the Service Sector:
    • Expand services like transport, banking, IT, tourism, and retail trade, which can provide a large number of employment opportunities.
  3. Support Self-Employment:
    • Provide loans and training to youth to start small businesses, shops, or repair centres through banks and government schemes.

Conclusion: By promoting industries, improving services, and supporting self-employment, cities can generate more jobs and reduce urban unemployment.


Q21: “In India, workers in the organised sector enjoy security of employment.” Examine the statement by giving appropriate arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Workers in the organised sector have regular and secure jobs because their employment is governed by government laws such as the Factories Act and Minimum Wages Act.
  • They receive fixed salariespaid leaveovertime payment, and medical benefits.
  • The employer cannot remove them without proper notice or reason, which ensures job security.
  • They are also entitled to provident fund, gratuity, and pension after retirement.

Conclusion: Hence, organised sector workers in India enjoy security and stability in employment, unlike those in the unorganised sector who face low pay and job uncertainty.


Q22: Study the given flowchart and answer the questions that follows:  (5 Marks)
Explain the steel manufacturing process on the basis of the above flowchart.

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Ans: 

The given flowchart explains the process of steel manufacturing in a step-by-step manner:

  1. Transport of Raw Material to Plant:
    • Raw materials such as iron ore, coal, and limestone are transported to the steel plant. These are the main inputs for steel production.
  2. Blast Furnace – Melting:
    • The raw materials are melted in a blast furnace at a very high temperature.
    • This process helps in separating impurities and produces a basic form of iron known as pig iron.
  3. Pig Iron Production:
    • The molten metal obtained from the blast furnace is pig iron, which is an intermediate product.
    • Pig iron still contains impurities and is not strong enough for use.
  4. Steel Making:
    • Pig iron is further purified and refined in steel-making furnaces.
    • Carbon and other elements are added or removed to obtain different grades of steel with desired properties.
  5. Shaping Metal:
    • Finally, the molten steel is cooled and shaped into sheets, rods, bars, or other forms for industrial use.
  • Conclusion:
    The steel manufacturing process involves conversion of raw materials into finished steel through stages of melting, purification, and shaping — making it a key activity of the secondary (industrial) sector.


Q23: How are final goods and services calculated? Explain through one example.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • The value of final goods and services produced in each sector during a year is used to calculate total production.
  • Only final goods are counted because their value already includes the cost of intermediate goods used in making them.
  • Counting both would mean double counting.

Example:
A farmer sells wheat to a flour mill for ₹20 per kg. The mill makes flour and sells it to a biscuit company for ₹25 per kg. The biscuit company makes biscuits and sells them to consumers for ₹80.
Here, only the final good (biscuits) worth ₹80 is counted in GDP because it already includes the value of wheat and flour.

Conclusion: Hence, GDP includes only the value of final goods and services to avoid counting the same product multiple times.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Examine the role of Public sector in the development of the country.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: The public sector plays a vital role in the country’s economy by fulfilling various  functions:
(1) 
Developing and investing in infrastructure, such as ports, roads, bridges, and telecommunications, is one of the public sector’s primary responsibilities. The foundation of the economy is this infrastructure, which makes communication, trade, and commerce possible.
(2) The provision of fundamental social services including housing, healthcare, and education falls under the responsibility of the public sector.
(3) The public sector’s establishment and enforcement of laws governing economic activity is another essential function. This entails keeping an eye on business activities, guaranteeing consumer safety, and preserving the sustainability of the environment.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Which one of the following pair is correctly matched?    (2023)
(a) 
Primary Sector – Fisherman
(b) 
Secondary Sector – Priest
(c) 
Tertiary Sector – Basket Weaver
(d) 
Quarternary Sector – Gardener

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Ans: (a)

The primary sector involves activities that extract or harvest natural resources, such as agriculture and fishing. Fishermen are part of this sector because they catch fish directly from water bodies. Therefore, option (a) is the correct match. The other pairs do not align with their respective sectors.


Q3: Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?    (CBSE 2023)
(a) 
Primary Sector – Flower Cultivator
(b) 
Secondary Sector – Milk Vendor
(c)
 Tertiary Sector – Fisherman
(d) 
Manufacturing Sector – Gardener

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Ans: (a)
The primary sector includes activities that involve the extraction and cultivation of natural resources, such as farming and flower cultivation. A flower cultivator fits into this category because they grow flowers directly from the soil. Therefore, option (a) is the correct match, while the other pairs do not accurately represent their respective sectors.


Q4: Kanta works in an office. She gets her salary regularly at the end of every month. In addition to the salary, she also gets other benefits laid down by the government. In which of the following sector Kanta is working?    (2023)
(a) 
Organised Sector
(b) 
Unorganised Sector
(c)
 Primary Sector
(d) 
Quarternary Sector

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Ans: (a)
Kanta works in the organized sector because she receives a regular salary and additional benefits provided by the government, such as health insurance or retirement plans. The organized sector consists of jobs with formal contracts and worker protections. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.


Q5: Which of the following organisation is providing data regarding employment in India?    (2023)
(a) 
National Statistical Office
(b) 
Niti Aayog
(c) 
National Informatics Centre
(d)
 Public Service Commission

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Ans: (a)
The National Statistical Office (NSO) is responsible for collecting and providing data about various aspects of the economy, including employment in India. It conducts surveys and research to help understand employment trends and statistics. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.


Q6:  Which one of the following sectors contribute highest in the GDP of India?    (CBSE 2023)
(a) 
Primary
(b) 
Secondary
(c) 
Tertiary
(d) 
Quaternary

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Ans: (c)
The tertiary sector contributes the highest to India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). This sector includes services such as retail, healthcare, education, and information technology, which have grown significantly and now represent a large part of the economy. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.


Q7: Compare the employment conditions prevailing in the organised and unorganised sector.    (2023)

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Ans: Employment conditions under :
(a) Organised sector 
(i)
 Rules and regulations (labour laws) as proposed by the government are followed.
(ii) Formal processes and procedures are followed.
(iii) Security of employment to workers, who are employed for full time is ensured.
(iv) Working hours fixed, overtime is paid for extra hours of work.
(v) Workers get benefits like provident fund, gratuity, medical benefits, paid leave, etc. 

(b) Unorganised sector 
(i) 
Outside the control of the government laws.
(ii) Small and scattered units.
(iii) Rules and regulations are not followed
(iv) Low-paid and irregular jobs
(v) High degree of insecurity.
(vi) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, etc.


Q8: Explain how Tertiary Sector’ is different from other sectors.    (2023)

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Ans: Tertiary sector is different from other sectors because:
(i) The activities of the tertiary sector help in the development of secondary and primary sectors.
(ii) Tertiary sector activities do not produce goods by themselves, but they support or aid the process of production in other sectors.
(iii) To help in the trade or production, credit would be required, hence the need to borrow from banks would arise, and communication through phones or letters are  also a necessity to complete the processes involved in production and trade.
(iv) After production, the need to store the produce in go downs or cold storage facilities will also arise.


Q9: Why is ‘Tertiary Sector ’ becoming important in India? Explain.  (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Tertiary sector is becoming important in India because: 
(1) Several services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, etc., are required with the world globalising and advancing. This imparts significance to the sector. 
(2) The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services. Greater the development, greater the progress of this sector. 
(3) Over the past decade, new services based on information and communication technology have become important and essential.


Q10: Why is there a need to protect workers in the Unorganised Sector? Explain.  (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: There is a need to protect workers in the Unorganised sector because: 
(1) Jobs in this sector are low-paid and not regular. There is no fixed provision of medical leaves, overtime, paid holidays etc. 
(2) Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave anytime without any notice. 
(3) There is immense competition in the unorganised sector despite the low growth it offers

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q11: Activities that help in the development of Primary and Secondary sectors come under which one of the following sectors?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

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Ans: (c)
Tertiary sector generates services rather than goods. They promote primary and secondary sectors by providing expertise, finance, transportation, advertisement, etc.


Q12: At the initial stages of development, which one of the following sectors was the most important of economic activity?    (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

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Ans: (a)
It has been noted from the history of many newly developed countries that at initial stages of development, primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity.


Q13: Activities in which natural products are changed into other forms come under which one of the following sectors?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) Quaternary

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Ans: (b)
Manufacturing industries are secondary activities. They change natural products into other forms.


Q14: The products received by exploiting natural resources come under which one of the following sectors?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) 
Quaternary
(b) 
Tertiary
(c) 
Secondary
(d) 
Primary

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Ans: (d)
Products obtained by exploiting natural resources, such as agriculture, fishing, and mining, fall under the primary sector. This sector involves activities that directly use natural resources to produce goods. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.


Q15: Read the source given below and attempt any 5 questions.    (Term-1,2021-22)
Take the case of Laxmi with her two-hectare plot of unirrigated land. The government can spend some money or banks can provide a loan, to construct a well for her family to irrigate the land. Laxmi will then be able to irrigate her land and take a second crop, wheat, during the rabi season. Let us suppose that one hectare of wheat can provide employment to two people for 50 days (including sowing, watering, fertiliser application and harvesting). So two more members of the family can be employed in her own field. Now suppose a new dam is constructed and canals are dug to irrigate many such farms. This could lead to a lot of employment generation within the agriculture sector itself reducing the problem of underemployment.

(i) Which one of the following economic sectors is Laxmi related to?
(a) Primary
(b) Secondary
(c) Tertiary
(d) 
Quaternary

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Ans: (a)
Laxmi works on agricultural land. It is a primary sector.

(ii) Which one of the following categories of farmers is Laxmi related to?
(a) Big
(b) Medium
(c) Marginal
(d) 
Agricultural labourer

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Ans: (b)
A farmer cultivating 2 to 4 hectare is a medium farmer.

(iii) In which one of the following sectors is underemployment seen at the maximum?
(a) Industry
(b) Agriculture
(c) Trade
(d) 
Commerce

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Ans: (b)
More people are engaged in agriculture than needed. It is underemployment.

(iv) How does construction of dams and canals create employment in large numbers in rural areas?
(a) Large number of engineers are needed
(b) Large number of technicians are also required
(c) Adjustment of large number of unskilled labourers
(d) 
Executives and administrators can easily be adjusted

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Ans: (c)
The construction of dams and canals requires a lot of unskilled laborers to help with physical tasks like digging, transporting materials, and building structures. This creates employment opportunities for many people in rural areas who may not have other job options, making option (c) the correct answer.

(v) Which one of the following is the main result of increasing irrigation facilities in the field of agriculture?
(a) Increase in production
(b) Increase in productivity
(c) Change in cropping pattern
(d) 
Promote high yielding of crops

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Ans: (c)
Increasing irrigation has changed the cropping pattern of many regions with farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops.

(vi) Which one of the following means of irrigation generally comes under the Public Sector?
(a) Well
(b) Tubewell
(c) Tank
(d) 
Canal

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Ans: (d)
Canals are constructed and maintained by the government. It comes under Public Sector.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q16: Which one of the following activities comes under ‘Primary sector’?         (2021C)
(a) 
Mining
(b) 
Transport
(c) 
Education
(d) 
Storage

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Ans: (a)
Mining is classified under the primary sector because it involves extracting natural resources directly from the earth. The primary sector includes activities that utilize natural resources, such as agriculture, fishing, and mining. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer, while the other options belong to the secondary and tertiary sectors.


Q17: How do the workers of the organized sector receive the benefits of employment security? Explain with examples.        (2021C)
OR
Why do people prefer to work in an organized sector? Explain.   (2015)

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Ans: People enjoy working in the organised sector as there is a proper and systematic way to get the work done from the employees.
Benefits of organised sector: 
(i) 
People enjoy security of employment.
(ii) Work for fixed hours.
(iii) If they work more, they get overtime allowances.
(iv) They have registered by the government and have to follow its rules and regulations which are given in various laws such as Factories Act, Shop Act etc.
Examples are Reliance Industries Limited, Tata Motors etc.

Also read: Long Answer Questions: Sectors of the Indian Economy

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q18: “Tertiary sector activities help in the development of the primary and secondary sectors”. Evaluate the statement.      (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Transport, storage, communication, banking and trade are some examples of tertiary sector. Since, these activities generate services rather than goods, they promote primary and secondary sector by:
(i) Providing expertise and finance
(ii) They are helpful for advertisement and marketing.
(iii) Provide transportation and communication facilities.


Q19: “Primary sector was the most important sector of economic activity at initial stages of development.” Evaluate the statement.       (2020)

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Ans: Primary sector was the important sector of economic activity at the initial stages of development.
(i) It is concerned with the extraction of raw materials i.e., mining, fishing, farming, etc.
(ii) It gives employment to the large population.
(iii) It enables the workers to leave the agricultural sector and move to other secondary and tertiary sectors.

Q20: Suggest any three measures through which underemployment in the agriculture sector can be minimized.      (2020)

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Ans:  Underemployment is a situation where there is under-utilisation of labour, either they are not in job where they can use their skill or they do not get full time job. these methods may help to solve the problem of underemployment
(i) One or two members of farmers family can work in the farms of big landlord and earn wages.
(ii) More irrigated facilities can be provided to grow two or three crops in a year.
(iii) By opening processing units of agriculture production, more employment opportunities can be created.


Q21: Why is the ‘tertiary sector’ becoming important in India? Explain any three reasons.    (2020, Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Tertiary sector in India has been growing rapidly for a number of reasons. In the year 2013-14, the tertiary sector has emerged as the largest sector in India replacing the primary sector. The reason for the growth of the tertiary sector are as follows –
(a) Basic services such as hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, requires a large number of people to be engaged in these tertiary sector activities. “
(b) The growth of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services such as transport, trade and storage. The demand for these services increases when the primary and secondary sectors are well developed.
(c) As the income rise certain sections of people start demanding many more services like eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals, private schools, professional training etc. We can see these changes in the big cities.


Q22: “All the services of the “service sector” are not growing equally well.” Evaluate the statement.      (2020)

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Ans: (i) Service sector in India employs many different kinds of people. At one end there are a limited number of services that employ highly skilled and educated workers, such as managers, lawyers, accountants, etc.
(ii) At the other end, there are a very large number of workers engaged in services, such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons. These people barely manage to earn a living and yet perform these services.
(iii) There is no alternative opportunity for them. Only a part of this sector is growing in importance.


Q23: Suggest any three ways to save workers of unorganized sector from exploitation.      (2020)

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Ans: Workers can be saved from unorganised sector possible in the following way:
(i) Social security to workers.
(ii) Support from Labour Ministry
(iii) Provide support for the conversion of unorganised sector to organised sector.


Q24: In the question given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion(A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:      (2020)
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat  and rice from farmers at fair price.
Reason (R): Public sector contributes to the economic development.
(a) 
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) 
Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) 
A is true, but R is false.
(d) 
A is false, but R is true.

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Ans: (b)
The Assertion (A) is true because the Government of India does buy wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price to ensure food security. The Reason (R) is also true as the public sector plays a significant role in economic development by providing services and stability. However, the reason does not explain why the government buys wheat and rice; they are related but not directly connected. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.


Q25: How is Public sector different from Private sector?     (2020)

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Ans: Public sector is controlled by the Government whereas private sector is under the control of an individual or a firm.


Q26: Suggest any three ways to improve the condition of the public sector at grass root level.     (2020)

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Ans: Reforms to improve public sector:
(i) More investment by Government at grass root level.
(ii) More banks and cooperatives.
(iii) Infrastructural development at grass root level.
(iv) Health and education profits at grass root level.


Q27: How is GDP calculated? (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: GDP in India is calculated by adding the total value of the final goods and services produced by all three sectors. Only final goods and services are counted to get the final value.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q28: Distinguish between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ sectors.     (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: When the economic activity depends mainly on exploitation of natural resource, then that activity comes under the primary sector. Agriculture and its related activities are the primary sectors of the economy, so farming is an example of primary sector activity. While the activities in which natural products are changed into other forms comes under secondary sector.


Q29: Highlight any five features of ‘Public Sector.’    (Al 2019)

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Ans: The features of the public sector can be enumerated as follows:
(i) Some projects need spending of large sums of money, which is beyond the capacity of the private sector. Collecting money from thousands of people who use these facilities is not easy. This is seen in various public conveniences.
(ii) In certain cases of national security such as the defense forces, only the public sector can be trusted. Large scale operations of governing the banks and management of money circulation can only be done by the public sector.
(iii) Even if they do provide these things the private sector is more likely to charge a high rate for their use. Examples are construction of roads, bridges, railways, harbors, metro rail, providing irrigation through dams etc.
(iv) Only the governments can undertake such heavy spending and ensure that these facilities are available for everyone. There are some activities, which the government has to support.
(v) In some cases, the government subsidizes the goods that are meant for the poor. This includes cooking gas, fertilisers, irrigation, electricity in rural sector support purchase price of farm produce, primary education and medical care etc.


Q30: Explain why the service sector is gaining more importance in the global economy.     (2019,2017)

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Ans: Tertiary sector in India has been growing rapidly for a number of reasons:
(i) In a developing country, the government has to take the responsibility for the provision of basic services for example, hospitals, educational institutions, post and telegraph services, police stations, courts, village administrative offices, municipal corporations, defence, transport, banks, insurance companies, etc.
(ii) The development of agriculture and industry leads to the development of services, such as trade, transport, storage, etc. Greater the development of the primary and secondary sectors, more would be the demand for such services.
(iii) As income levels rise, certain sections of people start demanding many more services, such as eating out, tourism, shopping, private hospitals; private schools, professional at training, etc. This change was quite sharp in cities, especially in big cities.
(iv) Over the past decade or so, certain new services, such as those based on information and communication technology have become important and essential.
(v) Government policy of privatisation has also led to growth of this sector.
(vi) A large number of workers are engaged in services, such as small shopkeepers, repair persons, transport persons, etc.
(vii) However, the entire sector has not grown. Large numbers of people engaged as construction workers, maids, peons, small shopkeepers, etc. do not find any change in their life.


Q31: How does the public sector contribute to the economic development of a nation? Explain.   (2019,2014)

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Ans: The public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation in the following ways:

  • It promotes rapid economic development through the creation and expansion of infrastructure in underdeveloped areas.
  • It creates employment opportunities through various projects.
  • It generates financial resources for economic and social development.
  • It ensures balanced regional development.
  • It encourages the development of small, medium, and cottage industries as ancillaries.
  • It ensures the easy availability of goods at moderate rates.
  • It contributes to community development by providing health and educational services.


Q32: Which of the following professions belongs to the Tertiary Sector of the economy? 
(a) Fisherman 
(b) Farmer 
(c) Woodcutter 
(d) Teacher (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (d)
(i)
 The Tertiary Sector (or Service Sector) includes professions that provide services rather than goods. This sector supports the primary and secondary sectors by offering services like education, healthcare, banking, transportation, and communication.
(ii) teacher provides an educational service, which is part of the tertiary sector.
The other options belong to the Primary Sector:
(a) Fisherman: Engaged in fishing, which is part of the primary sector as it involves direct extraction of natural resources.
(b) Farmer: Involved in agriculture, which is also part of the primary sector.
(c) Woodcutter: Involved in forestry, another primary sector activity that involves resource extraction.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Teacher.


Q33: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: 
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. 
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector.
Reason (R):
 The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (a)
Assertion (A): Not every good or service that is produced and sold needs to be counted to know the total production in each sector. This statement is true because, in calculating the total production, only the value of final goods is counted to avoid double-counting.
Reason (R): The value of final goods already includes the value of all the intermediate goods. This statement is also true. When calculating GDP, the value of intermediate goods (which are used to produce final goods) is not counted separately, as it is already included in the price of the final product.
Since (R) provides the correct explanation of (A), the correct answer is (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


Q34: How can more employment be generated in the agriculture sector? Explain any three methods. (CBSE 2019, 15)

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Ans: More employment can be generated in the agriculture sector alone in the following ways: 
(1) Increase in irrigation facilities: Without irrigation, only a single crop can be grown in most agricultural fields, which means less working opportunities, but if irrigation is provided, two or three crops can be grown on the same field. So, more people will be employed. 
(2) Provide basic facilities: Government should provide basic infrastructure in agriculture related facilities such as transportation (building of roads), irrigation, banking to ease the work of farmers. Subsidies can be provided. Dams and storages can be built. 
(3) Provide them easy loan: If people are provided easy bank loans, then they could start small businesses, which will make them self-dependent.


Q35: Workers are exploited in the unorganised sector.” Give reasons to support this statement.  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Employment conditions in the unorganised sector: 
(1) There are rules and regulations but these are not followed. 
(2) Jobs are low paid and not secured. 
(3) No provisions for over time, holidays, sick leaves etc. 
(4) People can be asked to leave without any reason. 
(5) They are largely outside the control of government.

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q36: When we produce goods by exploiting the natural resources, in which category of economic sector such activities come?    (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: When goods are produced by exploiting the natural resources, it is an activity of the primary sector.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q37: Why tertiary sector is also called the service sector?    (2017, 2014)

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Ans: Tertiary sector is the sector which provides services, such as banking, selling, transportation, etc. These services actually help in proper functioning of the primary and secondary sectors.


Q38: Mention any one feature of the organised sector.    (2017)

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Ans: A worker in the organized sector is assured of regular work, regular salary, and other benefits.


Q39: What do you understand by underemployment?    (2017)

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Ans: Underemployment refers to the condition in which people in the labor force are employed at less than full-time or regular jobs, or at jobs inadequate with respect to their training or economic needs.


Q40: What historical changes have been brought about in the primary economy?    (2017)

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Ans: The primary economy has undergone significant historical changes over the years. Some of these changes include:

  • New technologies have brought big changes to how things are done in farming, mining, and fishing. Machines and modern tools make these jobs faster and better.
  • In farming, the Green Revolution changed everything. New types of crops, better ways to water them, and using chemicals like fertilizers and pesticides meant way more food could be grown. Farming isn’t just about the same old crops anymore. New kinds of plants are being grown in different places, and things like growing flowers or fancy fruits (like horticulture and floriculture) are becoming more popular. This helps get even more food and money. 
  • Nowadays, there’s a lot of talk about taking care of the environment. So, in the primary sector, people are thinking more about how to do things in a way that doesn’t hurt the Earth. This means saving natural resources, keeping different plants and animals safe, and using methods that don’t hurt the environment. 
  • All these changes over time have made the primary sector better at what it does. It’s more productive, cares more about the environment, and can adapt to new problems and needs.


Q41: How are the three sectors of the economy different from each other? Explain.    (2017)

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Ans: The three sectors of the economy, namely the primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors, are distinct from each other based on the nature of their activities.
Here’s an explanation of their differences:

  • The primary sector deals with getting natural resources from the environment and using them. It includes stuff like farming, cutting down trees, mining, fishing, and taking care of animals. 
  • The secondary sector is all about turning those raw materials from the primary sector into finished products. This includes making things like cars, buildings, and electricity. 
  • The tertiary sector is focused on giving services instead of making stuff. So, things like transportation, banking, healthcare, and tourism fall under this sector. 
  • Each sector depends on the others to work. The primary sector gives raw materials, the secondary sector makes them into stuff we use, and the tertiary sector helps both of them by providing services. Together, they help a country’s economy grow and develop.


Q42: Compare the employment conditions of workers in the organised and unorganised sectors.   (2017,2016)

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Ans: In the organised sector:

  • Rules and regulations (labour laws) as proposed by the government are followed.
  • Formal processes and procedures are followed.
  • Security of employment to workers, who are employed for full time is ensured.
  • Working hours fixed, overtime is paid for extra hours of work.
  • Workers get benefits like provident fund, gratuity, medical benefits, paid leave, etc.

In the unorganised sector:

  • Outside the control of the government laws.
  • Small and scattered units.
  • Rules and regulations are not followed.
  • Low-paid and irregular jobs.
  • High degree of insecurity.
  • No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, etc.


Q43: Describe any five provisions of ‘National Rural Employment Guarantee’ Act 2005.     (2017)

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Ans: Provisions of National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (NREGA), 2005 are:

  • It provides 100 days assured employment every year to each rural household.
  • One-third of the proposed jobs are reserved for women.
  • If an applicant is not employed within 15 days he/she is entitled to a daily unemployment allowance.
  • The government has to establish Central Employment Guarantee Funds and state employment guarantee funds for the implementation of the scheme.
  • The scheme is to be extended to 600 districts. 
Also read: Long Answer Questions: Sectors of the Indian Economy

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q44: When was Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act implemented?    (2016)

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Ans: The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act was implemented in the year 2005.


Q45: What is disguised unemployment?    (2016)

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Ans: Disguised unemployment refers to a situation where labor that is employed in a job is not actually utilized for the production of goods and services.


Q46: State the meaning of under-employment.    (2016)

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Ans: Underemployment happens when workers are working at less than their capabilities. The underemployment of workers is not reflected in official unemployment statistics because of the way they are compiled.


Q47: In which sector is Seasonal and Disguised Unemployment most prevalent in India?    (2016)

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Ans: Seasonal and disguised unemployment are most prevalent in the agriculture sector (Primary sector).


Q48: What is another name for underemployment?    (2016)

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Ans: Overstaffing or hidden unemployment.


Q49: Suggest any one way to solve the underemployment situation in rural areas in India.    (2016)

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Ans: The government can spend money on the development of infrastructure projects, such as construction of roads, canals, etc. The government can provide easy credit to people and encourage entrepreneurship.


Q50: Mention any one factor responsible for the growth of the service sector in the Indian economy.     (2016)

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Ans: As income levels rose, a certain section of the population started demanding many services like eating out, tourism, private hospitals, etc. The rise of information and communication technology can be largely attributed to improvement in telecommunication and power sectors.


Q51: Which sector has gained prominence over the last thirty years?    (2016)

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Ans: The tertiary sector has gained prominence over the last thirty years.


Q52: TISCO and Reliance are owned by which sector?    (2016)

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Ans: TISCO and Reliance are owned by the private sector.


Q53: Describe the estimates of the Planning Commission to create jobs in tourism and education.     (2016)

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Ans: Regarding jobs in education:

  • The Planning Commission estimates that nearly 20 lakh jobs can be created in the education sector alone.
  • More teachers and infrastructure will be required to accommodate more children in schools.

Regarding jobs in tourism

  • The Planning Commission estimates that nearly 35 lakh jobs can be created in the tourism sector.
  • Regional crafts, cottage industry, and new services like IT also have the potential to generate jobs. 


Q54: Suggest any five measures to reduce unemployment.     (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: To reduce unemployment, the following measures can be taken:

  • Planned development by accelerating industrialization and stimulating demand for goods and services.
  • Creation of more employment opportunities in rural areas by processing farm produce, promoting cooperative farming, and developing allied activities and cottage industries.
  • Planning projects to eliminate seasonal unemployment and providing micro-finance and community self-help in both rural and urban areas.
  • Demonstrating and promoting adaptive technology through educational programs to encourage entrepreneurial spirit.
  • Launching self-employment schemes in services or small manufacturing, connected to core activities in rural/urban areas, to enable unemployed youth to start their own business or small-scale firms.

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q55: Why is agriculture the most labour-absorbing sector in India? How does disguised unemployment make it worse?  Explain with an example. (CBSE 2014)

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Ans: (1) Agriculture is the most labour absorbing sector because there are not many jobs created in the tertiary and the secondary sector.
(2) Farming does not require a lot of initial investment or very hard training. 
(3) Families are involved in agriculture and hence, it becomes an inherited skill. 
(4) Agricultural products have huge demand in the market and can be sold without any processing. 
(5) Disguised unemployment which involves employment of more than the required people in a job reduces the productivity of the people and their effort gets divided without earning much.

Q56: How does the public sector contribute to the economic development of a nation? Explain. (CBSE 2014)

Ans: The public sector contributes to the economic development of a nation in the following ways: 
(1) The public sector promotes rapid economic development through the construction of infrastructure. 
(2) It creates employment opportunities. 
(3) It helps to generate revenue to support the holistic development of all classes and castes. 
(4) It encourages the development of small, medium and cottage industries, which provide opportunities for the vulnerable groups. 
(5) It ensures easy availability of goods at moderate rates. 

01. Previous Year Questions: Development

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Amongst the given countries, which one has the highest rank in ‘Human Development Index’?  (1 Mark)
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar

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Ans: (b) India
Among the given countries, India has the highest Human Development Index (HDI) rank — 130, which means it performs better in terms of income, life expectancy, and education compared to Myanmar, Nepal, and Pakistan.


Q2: Which one of the following countries has the lowest rank in ‘Human Development Index’?  (1 Mark)

(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar

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Ans: (d) Pakistan
Among the given countries, Pakistan has the lowest Human Development Index (HDI) rank — 150, which indicates a lower level of development compared to India, Myanmar, and Nepal.

Q3: Read the table given below carefully and answer the question that follow : 

Which one of the following countries has high per capita income, life expectancy at birth, and high rank in Human Development Index?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: (a) A
Country A has the highest per capita income (US $12,578)highest life expectancy (76.4 years), and the best HDI rank (73) among the given countries. Therefore, it ranks highest in terms of overall human development.


Q4: Read the table given below carefully and answer the question that follow : 

The World Bank’s development report is prepared on the basis of which of the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) 
Per Capita Income
(b) Per Capita Production
(c) Gross National Income
(d) Gross Domestic Production

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Ans: (a) Per Capita Income
The World Bank classifies countries in its World Development Report on the basis of their Per Capita Income — that is, the average income of people in a country, calculated by dividing the total national income by the total population.


Q5: By which organization is the Human Development Report published?  (1 Mark)
(a) 
World Trade Organisation
(b) Amnesty International
(c) United Nations Development Programme
(d) World Health Organisation

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Ans: (C) United Nations Development Programme
The Human Development Report (HDR) is published every year by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) to compare countries based on health, education, and income levels.


Q6: Data related to an imaginary country is given below. Study these data and answer the question that follows :

The attendance percentage of this country of the age group of 14 and 15 years is __________  (1 Mark)
(a) 90 percent
(b) 80 percent
(c) 70 percent
(d) 60 percent

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Ans: (b) 80%

For the age group of 14 and 15 years,

So, the attendance percentage is 80 percent.


Q7: Choose the correct option to fill in the blank: (1 mark)
The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country in a particular year is called
(a) 
Per Capita Income
(b) Per Capita Production
(c) Gross National Income
(d) Gross Domestic Production

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Ans: (D) Gross Domestic Production
The total value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a year is known as its Gross Domestic Product (GDP) or Gross Domestic Production.


Q8: Read the following developmental goals and choose the correct option of goals related to a student studying in university:
(i) Good opportunities for research.
(ii) Opportunities to pursue higher education abroad.
(iii) Opportunities for independence.
(iv) Opportunities for good employment.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Only (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.
(b) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) are correct.
(c) Only (i), (ii) and (iv) are correct.
(d) Only (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only (i), (ii), and (iv) are correct.
A student studying in a university would aim for good research opportunitieshigher education abroad, and good employment prospects after studies. While independence is important, it is not a direct developmental goal related to university education.


Q9: Explain the role of public facilities for quality of life.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Public facilities like schools, hospitals, water supply, sanitation, and transport are essential for improving people’s quality of life.
  • These services cannot be provided individually; they are best supplied collectively by the government so that everyone, especially the poor, can access them and live a healthy, secure, and dignified life.


Q10: Define ‘Gross Domestic Product’ and explain its importance.  (3 Marks)

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Ans:  Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is the total value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year. It reflects the overall economic output of the nation.Importance:

  • GDP shows the economic growth and performance of a country.
  • It helps in comparing the development levels of different countries or states.
  • A rising GDP indicates more production, income, and employment, contributing to better living standards.


Q11: How is income an important factor in assessing the development of a country? Mention the classification done by the World Bank.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Income is an important factor because it shows people’s ability to buy goods and services that improve their standard of living. A higher income usually means better access to education, healthcare, housing, and other basic needs.
  • To compare countries, the average income or per capita income is used, which is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by its total population. It helps to understand how much, on average, a person earns in a year.
  • The World Bank uses per capita income as the main basis for classifying countries in its World Development Report.
  • As per the 2023 report, countries with per capita income of US $63,400 or above are classified as high-income (rich) countries, while those with about US $2,400 or less are low-income countries.
  • India falls in the category of lower-middle-income countries, with a per capita income of about US $10,030 per annum.


Q12: How has the overuse of underground water created a serious crisis in many parts of India? Explain with examples in the context of sustainable development.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Overuse of underground water has led to a serious crisis in many parts of India because water is being extracted faster than it is replenished by rainfall.
  • According to reports, about 300 districts have seen a decline in water levels of over 4 metres in the past 20 years, showing that groundwater reserves are shrinking rapidly.
  • This problem is most severe in agriculturally prosperous regions like Punjab and Western Uttar Pradesh, where farmers depend heavily on tube wells for irrigation.
  • If this pattern continues, nearly 60% of the country will face groundwater overuse in the next 25 years, leading to water scarcity, crop failure, and livelihood loss.
  • Such overuse violates the principle of sustainable development, as it meets present needs by exhausting resources meant for future generations.


Q13: Analyse the social and economic goals of development.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Social goals of development focus on improving the quality of life and ensuring equality and dignity for all. People seek freedom, security, respect, and equal treatment in society. For example, women desire equal opportunities and freedom as men, and communities want freedom from social discrimination.
  • These goals also include access to education, healthcare, and a clean environment, which are essential for a decent standard of living.
  • Economic goals of development relate to increasing income, employment, and production. People want regular work, better wages, and fair prices for their goods and services.
  • While income helps fulfil basic needs, non-material aspects like respect and equality are equally important for true development.
  • Hence, development combines both economic growth and social well-being, ensuring that progress benefits everyone in society.


Q14: Why is the question of sustainability of development becoming challenging in the present times? Analyse the appropriate reasons.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • The question of sustainability is becoming challenging because resources are being overused to meet the needs of a growing population and rising consumption.
  • Renewable resources like groundwater are being exploited faster than they can be replenished. For example, many districts in India have reported a sharp fall in water levels due to overuse.
  • Non-renewable resources like crude oil are limited and may last only a few decades if extraction continues at the present rate, creating future scarcity.
  • Industrialisation and urbanisation have increased pollution, deforestation, and environmental degradation, affecting the balance of nature.
  • As the Earth’s resources are finite, unsustainable development threatens the needs of future generations, making it one of the biggest challenges of the present times.


Q15: How can development for one be destructive for another? Explain.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Development can have different effects on different groups of people because their needs and goals are not the same. What benefits one group may harm another.
  • For example, a girl may want equal freedom and opportunities as her brother and expect him to share household work, but he may not agree. Her idea of development conflicts with his.
  • Similarly, industrialists may want large dams to generate more electricity for industries, but these projects can submerge the land of tribal people, forcing them to leave their homes and lose their livelihood.
  • In such cases, the same development activity that provides economic growth or facilities for some can cause displacement and suffering for others.
  • Thus, what is considered development for one person or group can be destructive for another, depending on their life situation and interests.


Q16: How is income an important factor in assessing the development of a country ? Mention the classification done by the World Bank. (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • Income is an important factor because it helps to assess how much people can buy and use goods and services needed for a better standard of living. A higher income usually means better access to education, healthcare, housing, and other facilities.
  • To compare countries, we use per capita income, which is calculated by dividing the total income of the country by its total population. It shows what an average person earns in a year.
  • The World Bank uses per capita income as the main criterion to classify countries in the World Development Report.
  • According to the 2023 report, countries with per capita income of US $63,400 or above are called high-income (rich) countries, and those with about US $2,400 or less are low-income countries.
  • India is classified as a lower-middle-income country with a per capita income of about US $10,030 per annum.


Q17: “The consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national and state boundaries.” Examine the statement in the context of sustainability of development.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • The statement means that environmental damage in one region affects people everywhere, crossing national and state boundaries. Problems like air pollution, climate change, and global warming spread beyond the area where they originate.
  • For example, industrial pollution or deforestation in one country can change rainfall patterns or increase temperature in other countries as well.
  • Such degradation makes it difficult to maintain sustainable development, which aims to meet present needs without harming future generations.
  • Since natural resources like air, water, and forests are shared globally, their overuse or pollution by one region affects all others.
  • Therefore, sustainability has become a global challenge, and all countries must cooperate to protect the environment and ensure balanced, long-term development.


Q18: “The goals of development may also be contradictory.” Examine the statement through examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Development goals can conflict, as progress in one area may harm another, requiring careful balancing.
Explanation:

  • Economic Growth vs. Environment: Building dams (e.g., Sardar Sarovar) boosts energy and irrigation but displaces communities and harms ecosystems.
  • Industrialization vs. Health: Factories increase income but cause pollution-related health issues (e.g., Delhi’s air quality).
  • Urbanization vs. Agriculture: Expanding cities (e.g., Bengaluru’s growth) reduces farmland, threatening food security.
  • Short-Term vs. Long-Term Goals: Deforestation for immediate profit undermines long-term climate stability.
  • Resolution: Policies like sustainable urban planning or renewable energy can mitigate conflicts.


Q19: Explain the significance and limitations of average income for comparing different countries with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

Significance: Average income (per capita income) helps compare countries’ development levels. It shows how much, on average, people earn and helps classify nations as rich or poor (as done by the World Bank).

Limitations:

  • It hides inequalities — for example, two countries may have the same average income, but in one, income is evenly distributed, while in another, only a few are rich.
  • It ignores other factors like health, education, and equality that are equally important for development.
  • It does not reflect quality of life, as higher income alone doesn’t ensure well-being.

Conclusion:
Average income is useful but an incomplete measure of development; other social indicators must also be considered.


Q20: Which organisation publishes the Human Development Report and what criteria does it use to compare countries? Examine.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Human Development Report (HDR) is published by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

UNDP uses the Human Development Index (HDI) to compare countries. The HDI is based on three key criteria:

  • Health – Measured by Life Expectancy at Birth, which indicates the average expected length of life of people in a country.
  • Education – Measured by indicators such as the Mean Years of Schooling of people aged 25 and above and Expected Years of Schooling for children of school-going age.
  • Income – Measured by Gross National Income (GNI) per capita (in PPP dollars), which shows the average income of citizens adjusted for price differences across countries.

UNDP combines these indicators to rank countries on a scale of human development — higher HDI values indicate better health, education, and income levels.

Thus, unlike the World Bank, which classifies countries solely on the basis of per capita income, UNDP’s approach is broader and more comprehensive, as it considers people’s well-being, health, and education along with income.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Study the table given ahead carefully and answer the question that follows.     (CBSE 2024)   (1 Mark)
Which of the following country has high Human Development Index Rank in the world?
(a) 
Country ‘A’
(b) Country ‘C’
(c) Country ‘D’
(d) Country ‘E’

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

A country with a lower numerical HDI rank (e.g., 1, 2, 3, etc.) is considered to have a higher position in global HDI rankings. The explanation states that Country ‘C’ has an HDI rank of 148, which does not make it “highly ranked.” Instead, it implies lower human development compared to countries with higher numerical ranks. Thus, the answer provided is inconsistent with the logic of the HDI ranking system.


Q2:  Which one of the following definitions is most suitable for the ‘Literacy Rate’?     (CBSE 2024)   (1 Mark)
(a)
 The literate population at the global level
(b) The proportion of literate population in the seven years and above
(c) The total number of children attending school in a region
(d) The average number of schools in a region

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Ans: (b)
The literacy rate refers to the proportion of people aged seven years and above who can read and write in a population. Option (b) is the correct answer because it describes literacy in terms of people’s ability to read and write above a certain age.


Q3: Which of the following is a key indicator used to measure a country’s development?     (CBSE 2024)   (1 Mark)
(a) 
Primary Production
(b) Secondary Production
(c) Gross Domestic Product
(d) Net Domestic Product

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Ans: (c)
Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is a key indicator used to measure a country’s development. It represents the total value of goods and services produced within a country in a specific time period, showing how economically strong or weak the country is. This makes option (c) the correct answer.


Q4: How does the United Nations Development Program’s (UNDP’s) developmental criterion differ from the World Bank? Explain.     (CBSE 2024)   (2 Marks)

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Ans: The World Bank measures development primarily through income. In contrast, the UNDP evaluates development using a broader set of criteria, which includes:

  • Improvement in health of the population
  • Higher educational attainment
  • Increased per capita income

This approach highlights the importance of overall well-being, rather than focusing solely on financial metrics.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q5: Assume there are four families in a locality. If the monthly income of each family is ₹10,000, ₹ 20,000, ₹ 30,000 and ₹ 40000 then what is the average income of the locality. Choose the correct option from the following.  (2023)    (1 Mark)
(a) 
₹ 25,000
(b) 
₹ 30,000
(c) 
₹ 20,000
(d) 
₹10,000

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Ans: (a)
To find the average income, you add the incomes of all the families and divide by the number of families. Here, the total income is ₹10,000 + ₹20,000 + ₹30,000 + ₹40,000 = ₹1,00,000, and there are 4 families. So, the average income is ₹1,00,000 ÷ 4 = ₹25,000, making option (a) the correct answer.


Q6:  “Different persons can have different developmental goals.”    (CBSE 2023)    (2 Marks)
OR
How do different people have different developmental goals? Explain with examples. (CBSE 2019, 14)    (2 Marks)

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Ans: People have different developmental goals because they come from different backgrounds. For example, a developmental goal for a farmer might be better irrigation facilities, while for an unemployed youth it may mean employment opportunities.


Q7: Which of the following countries has the highest ‘Life Expectancy’ at the birth’?   (2023)    (1 Mark)
(a) 
Nepal 
(b) 
Bangladesh
(c) 
India 
(d) 
Pakistan

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Ans: (b)
Life expectancy at birth refers to the average number of years a newborn is expected to live. Among the listed countries, Bangladesh has the highest life expectancy due to improvements in healthcare and living conditions, making option (b) the correct answer.


Q8: Which of the following countries has a better rank it the Human Development Index?   (2023)    (1 Mark)
(a)
 Afghanistan 
(b)
 Myanmar
(c)
 India 
(d) 
Nepal

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Ans: (c)
The Human Development Index (HDI) measures a country’s overall achievement in health, education, and income. India has a better HDI rank compared to Afghanistan, Myanmar, and Nepal due to its larger economy, better educational facilities, and healthcare improvements, making option (c) the correct answer.


Q9: Read the following data and answer the question that follow:

How much is the Net Absence Ratio of Haryana ? Choose the appropriate option from the following:   (CBSE 2023)    (1 Mark)
(a) 39 
(b) 27 
(c) 38
(d) 18

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Ans: (a)
The Net Attendance Ratio tells us the percentage of children attending school. To find the Net Absence Ratio, subtract the Net Attendance Ratio from 100. For Haryana, the Net Attendance Ratio is 61, so the Net Absence Ratio is 100 – 61 = 39. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.


Q10: Read the following statements about Human Development and choose the correct option:
(I) It is the composite Index prepared by United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).
(II) Parameters to measure it are Longevity, Literacy and Per Capita Income.
(III) Countries are ranked according to Developed and Low Developing countries.
(IV) World Bank also prepares report of Human Development on the basis of Quality of Life. (CBSE 2023)    (1 Mark)
(a) 
I and II 
(b) 
II and III
(c) I
 and III
(d) 
II and IV

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Ans: (a)
Human Development is measured by a composite index created by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) using parameters like longevity, literacy, and per capita income, which are correctly stated in statements I and II. Statement III is not entirely accurate as the rankings are not just divided into “Developed” and “Low Developing” countries. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.


Q11:  The question of sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the nature and process of development’. Explain it with examples.    (CBSE 2023)    (3 Marks)

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Ans: The question of sustainability of development raises many fundamentally new issues about the nature and process of development. For example:

  • Sustainable development has continued to evolve as the true agenda of protecting the world’s resources while its true agenda is to control the world’s resources.
  • Environmentally sustainable economic growth refers to economic development that meets the needs of all without leaving future generations with fewer natural resources than those we enjoy today.
  • The essence of this form of development is a stable relationship between human activities and the natural world, which does not diminish the prospects for future generations to enjoy a quality of life at least as good as our own.
  • Example: Crude oil that we extract from the earth is a non-renewable resource. Still, its explorations are being done non-judiciously.


Q12: Which one of the following is a developmental goal of the factory workers?  (CBSE 2023)    (1 Mark)
(a) Better wages 
(b) Better technology 
(c) More hours of work 
(d) More labour work 

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Ans: (a)
For factory workers, a primary developmental goal is better wages, as it directly improves their standard of living and provides economic security. Higher wages allow them to meet their needs and improve their quality of life. The other options, such as more hours of work or more labor work, do not necessarily align with workers’ goals for development, as these may lead to greater physical strain without necessarily improving their financial or living conditions. Better technology might be beneficial but is more relevant to productivity rather than directly addressing workers’ personal developmental goals.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Better wages.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q13: Suppose there are four families in your locality, the average per capita income of whom is 10,000. If the income of three families is 6,000; 8,000 and 14,000 respectively, what would be the income of the fourth family?  (2022)
(a) 5,000
(b) 10,000
(c) 12,000
(d) 15,000

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: Suppose the income of fourth family is x. According to question.

⇒ x + 28000 = 40000
⇒ x = ₹12000

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q14: What is development? Why do different people have different development goals? Explain with four examples.     (2021 C)

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Ans: Development means continuous progress or i increase in real per-capita income. In other words, there is i improvement in economic welfare of the people and their standard of living.
The four characteristics of development are:
(i) Developmental goals are different for different people.
(ii) What may be development for one may not be development for the other.
(iii) For development people look at a mix of goals.
(iv) Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of country’s development.


Q15: In what respect is the criterion used by the UNDP different from that of the World Bank? What are the limitations of the criterion used by the World Bank?   (2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The World Bank uses per capita income to measure the development. But it does not give the clear picture about the condition of the people in the country.
That is why UNDP has adopted Human Development index. The Human Development Index (HDI) is based on:
(i) Per capita income: When the total national income of the country is divided by its population, we get the per capita income.
(ii) Life expectancy: It measures the average age of a person in a country. It helps us to know the health facilities of the country.
(iii) Literacy rate: Education is also one of the most important criteria for the development of a country.
(iv) Gross enrollment ratio: It measures the education gained at three levels—at the primary, secondary and higher education level.


Q16: Suppose there are four families in your locality, the average per capita income of whom is 10,000. If the income of three families is 6,000, 8,000 and 14,000 respectively, what would be the income of the fourth family? 
(a) 5,000 
(b) 10,000 
(c) 12,000 
(d) 15,000 (CBSE Term-1 2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Given:
The average per capita income of the four families is 10,000.
The incomes of three families are 6,000, 8,000, and 14,000.
To find the income of the fourth family, we can set up the equation as follows:
Total income of all four families = Average income × Number of families
= 10,000×4=40,000
Sum of incomes of the first three families = 6,000 + 8,000 + 14,000 = 28,000
Income of the fourth family = Total income – Sum of incomes of the first three families
=40,000 − 28,000 = 12,000
Therefore, the income of the fourth family is (c) 12,000.


Q17: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. 
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Assertion (A) : Kerala has low Infant Mortality Rate.
Reason (R) : Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and education facilities. (CBSE Term-1 2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Assertion (A): Kerala has a low Infant Mortality Rate. This statement is true. Kerala consistently reports one of the lowest infant mortality rates in India.
Reason (R): Kerala has adequate provision of basic health and education facilities. This statement is also true. Kerala’s low infant mortality rate is largely due to its robust healthcare infrastructure, high literacy rate, and strong emphasis on maternal and child health services.
Since the adequate provision of health and education facilities directly contributes to the low infant mortality rate in Kerala, (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

Also read: Short Answer Questions: Development

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q18: Choose the incorrect option from column A and column B.   (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: Farmers who depending on rain for growing crops – Assured a higher support prices for their crops.


Q19: What is development? Why do different people have different development goals? Explain with four examples.     (2020 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Development refers to ongoing progress or an increase in real per-capita income. It signifies an improvement in the economic welfare of individuals and their overall standard of living.

The four key characteristics of development are:

  • Different goals: Developmental goals vary among individuals.
  • Subjective nature: What constitutes development for one person may not be the same for another.
  • Mix of goals: People often consider a combination of objectives when thinking about development.
  • Conflicting notions: Individuals may have different and even conflicting ideas about what national development should entail.


Q20: “Different people have different goals of development”. Explain the statement.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Different people have different development goals:
(i) People have different developmental goals because people come from different background.
(ii) Different people have different dreams and aspirations.
(iii) People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situation
(iv) People may change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to previous goal
(v) For example: A person willing to do higher education will change his goal go for employment because weak economic situation of the family.


Q21: Define the term per capita income.     (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Per capita income measures the average income earned per person in a given area in a specified year. It is calculated by dividing the area’s total income by its total population.


Q22: Define the term literacy rate.     (2020)

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Ans: The literacy rate refers to the percentage of people aged 7 and above who can read and write. It is a key indicator of education in a population.


Q23: In comparison to Kerala, which state has the highest infant mortality rate? (2020)

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Ans: In comparison to Kerala, Bihar has the highest infant mortality rate.


Q24: “Suppose the average income of a country is not being increased over time but the records of the National Income show a rise”. What does this situation signify?    (2020)

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Ans: 

When the average income of a country remains unchanged over time, yet the National Income records show an increase, it indicates a situation of unequal income distribution.

  • This means that while the total income of the country may be rising, it is not benefiting everyone equally.
  • A small number of individuals may be accumulating wealth, while the majority see little to no improvement in their income.
  • This disparity can lead to social and economic issues within the country.


Q25: Fill in the blank: Human Development Index (HDI) level in India can be improved through _____.   (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) Increasing educational level of the people.
(ii) Increasing their health status.
(iii) Increasing people per capital income.


Q26: Suggest any three ways to maintain Body Mass Index.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The three ways to maintain Body Mass Index (BMI) are:

  • It is important to exercise at least 60-90 minutes most days of the week.
  • Stay hydrated and eat a balanced diet.
  • Avoid fast food and oily food.


Q27: Why is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain.     (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The issue of sustainability is important for development because of the passage of time the generation changes and with this change society wants more and more benefits from the resources which are present in our nature. Because of the increasing needs ol people of our society, things are decaying day by day, an excessive use is making things worse. If the speed of using resources remains the same then the available resources will be exhausted soon and our coming generation will stay deprived of all kind of needs. The issue of sustainability is important for development because of the following reasons:
(a) The growth and development should be done by keeping in mind future usage.
(b) If resources are not sustained, then our natural resources will stagnate after some time and no upcoming generation will be able to take advantage of these natural resources.


Q28: “Sustainability of development is a crucial aspect in present times”. Support the statement with examples.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: It is felt that the economic growth and industrialisation have led to reckless exploitation of natural resources. Sustainability promotes a rational use of natural resources.
(i) Currently, reckless exploitation of non-renewable natural resources is going on. Since the stock of natural resources like oil and minerals is limited, development should not take place at the cost of these scare natural resources as they are not renewable in the near future.
(ii) Ground water is an example of renewable resource. But if we use more than what is replenished by nature, then we would be overusing this resource.
(iii) Once the non-renewable resources would be exhausted, we would not be able to use them in future. So, using the resources judiciously will help in maintaining the sustainability of development of our ecosystem.
(iv) Economic development is a continuous process. Resources are to be used in such a way that they are not exploited. At the same time, development should not harm the environment.


Q29: Suggest any one way to create employment in semi-rural areas. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Capacity building and establishing of food processing units in semi-rural areas can help create employment in semi-rural areas.


Q30: Suggest any three ways to improve public facilities in India. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Public facilities are the base for any development in a country. Three ways to improve public facilities in India are: 
(1) Accessible and affordable education must be ensured to all the children of the country, irrespective of their caste, class or gender. More government and public schools should be opened, tuition fee should be reduced and education must be made free up to elementary level.
(2) Public Distribution system should be reformed to include people from the remotest of areas. Corruption in the distribution system should be checked and the food grains provided should be rigorously monitored for quality. 
(3) Health facilities should be made free to children below 10 years of age and senior citizens, disadvantaged classes etc.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q31: What may be a goal of landless rural laborers regarding their income?     (Delhi 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A goal of landless rural laborers regarding their income may be to have more days of work and better wages.


Q32: What may be a goal of prosperous farmer of Punjab?    (Delhi 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A goal of a prosperous farmer in Punjab may include:

  • Improving irrigation facilities for better crop yield.
  • Providing their children with access to better education.
  • Exploring high-yield crop varieties to increase productivity.


Q33: What may be a developmental goal of urban unemployed youth?    (CBSE 2019, 12)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A developmental goal for urban unemployed youth may include:

  • Securing a job with a good salary.
  • Finding employment opportunities that align with their qualifications.
  • Aiming for roles that meet their career aspirations.


Q34: “Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries”. Support the statement with an example.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Consequences of environment degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. This issue is no longer a regional or national issue. Our future is linked together. Sustainability of development Is essential for all the mankind, and it is our common responsibility to save the environment. These days, it is a matter of discussion among different countries of world. Global warming, acid rain etc. are not bound to a country and cannot be controlled by one nation. It is a global matter for thinking and finding the solutions


Q35: What may be one of the developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family? (CBSE 2019, 14, 11)

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Ans: The ideal developmental goals of a girl who belongs to a rich urban family may be getting the same freedom as her brother to pursue higher studies and earn accolades and wealth.


Q36: Mention the formula to calculate the BMI (Body Mass Index). (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Weight of person in kg and height in metres is taken. Divide the weight by the square of the height.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q37: Why is average income considered as an important criterion for development? Give one reason.   (2017)

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Ans: Average income is considered an important criterion for development because it represents the total income of a country divided by the total population. If the average income is adequate to meet the basic requirements and provide other facilities, then the country is considered developed.


Q38: Why does Kerala have a low infant mortality rate?     (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Kerala has a low infant mortality rate due to the high development of education and health facilities in the state.


Q39: On the basis of which three indicators of HDI 2004 Sri Lanka has a better rank than India?   (2017) 

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Ans: On the basis of the following three indicators of HDI 2004, Sri Lanka has a better rank than India:

  • Life expectancy
  • Gross enrollment ratio
  • Per capita income 


Q40: What is the meaning of development? Explain the two aspects of development.    (2017)

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Ans: Development refers to progress or improvement in lifestyle. Important aspects of development are:

  • Different persons can have different developmental goals.
  • What may be development for one may not be development for the other. It may even be destructive for the other. 


Q41: What is average income? What is its importance? Mention its limitations related to development.    (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Average income refers to the total income of a nation (GDP) divided by its population, also known as per capita income. It is an essential measure for classifying countries as developed, underdeveloped, or developing.
Importance of average income:

  • Average income helps in understanding the economic well-being of a nation and its citizens. It assists in identifying disparities between countries and assessing their overall development.

Limitations of average income as a measure of development:

  • Inflation bias: An increase in per capita income can be misleading if it is due to rising prices rather than an actual increase in physical output.
  • Income distribution: Despite rising national income, if the distribution is unequal, it may lead to the rich getting richer and the poor getting poorer.
  • Exclusion of non-marketed goods: Average income fails to consider non-market activities that contribute to human happiness and quality of life.
  • Labor displacement: Technological advancements that lead to labor displacement and adversely affect the poor may still result in increased average income.
  • Population growth: If the rate of population growth exceeds the rate of national income growth, per capita availability of goods and services may decrease, affecting economic welfare.
  • Non-monetary contributions: Some commodities, like salt or needle, may have a higher contribution to economic welfare than their monetary value included in national income calculations.


Q42: What is the main criterion used by the World Bank in classifying different countries? Describe its limitations. (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The World Bank primarily uses per capita income as the criterion for classifying different countries.
Limitations of using per capita income for classification:

  • Narrow focus: Per capita income only considers the economic aspect of life and disregards social factors such as education, health, and life expectancy.
  • Inequality: It hides disparities within countries, as a small population in wealthy Middle Eastern countries may skew the per capita income, while a significant population remains poor.
  • Rich-poor division: Countries are divided into rich, and poor based on per capita income, oversimplifying the complex reality of development.
  • Lack of holistic assessment: The World Bank’s classification focuses solely on income, overlooking other crucial aspects of development.
  • Arbitrary thresholds: The classification uses specific income thresholds, such as $49,300 per annum for rich countries and $2,500 or less for low-income or poor countries, which may not capture the full range of economic and social conditions. 


Q43:  How is it that the average person in Punjab has more income than the average person in Kerala but it lags behind in many other crucial areas? Explain.   (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The average person in Punjab may have a higher income compared to the average person in Kerala, but this does not necessarily imply a higher level of development in other crucial areas. There are several reasons for this discrepancy.
Firstly, income alone is not a comprehensive measure of development. Kerala has made significant progress in areas such as education and healthcare, which contribute to overall development. The state has a higher literacy rate and better access to healthcare facilities compared to Punjab.
Secondly, Kerala has implemented effective social welfare programs and initiatives that prioritize human development. For example, the state has invested in quality education and healthcare, leading to better outcomes in terms of literacy, life expectancy, and overall well-being.
Lastly, Punjab may face challenges in terms of inadequate investments in social sectors and a lack of emphasis on human development. While income may be higher, the overall quality of life and access to essential services may be lower in Punjab compared to Kerala.
Therefore, it is important to consider multiple indicators of development, including education, healthcare, and overall well-being, rather than focusing solely on income, to assess the true level of development in a region.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q44: ‘For development, people look at a mix of goals”. Support the statement with three suitable example.    (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: For development, people look at a mix of goals, for example:

  • People have different developmental goals because people come from different background.
  • Different people have different dreams and aspirations.
  • People set their goals according to the changing circumstances and the prevailing situation
  • People may change the goal with the change in situation which could be contradictory to the previous goal
  • For example: A person willing to do higher education will change his goal to go for employment because of the weak economic situation of the family.


Q45: Explain the factors on which the quality of life depends.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: The quality of life depends upon the following factors:

  • Money and material things
  • Presence of family members, friends, and relatives
  • Good working atmosphere at the office
  • An opportunity to learn and contribute
  • A position of self-respect in the family
  • A safe and secure environment.


Q46: Explain the three components of the Human Development Index.   (2016)

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Ans: The three components of the Human Development Index are:

  • It includes the level of development of a country.
  • It indicates how far a country has traveled and how far it has yet to travel to achieve high ranks in matters such as the per capita income of the people.
  • It includes important welfare elements such as life expectancy, literacy, educational level of people, and health status.


Q47: Which three efforts should be made by any country to improve its HDI?   (2016)

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Ans: The three efforts which could be made by any country to improve its HDI are:

  • Improvement in human capacity through education and healthcare that will result in:
  • Providing 100% literacy to the people.
  • Improving health facilities.
  • Creating a pollution-free environment.


Q48: What is sustainable development? Why is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain.    (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Sustainable development means development should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of future generations.
The issue of sustainability is important and desirable for development because:

  • Economic development is a continuous process. Hence resources should not be exploited. At the same time, development should not harm the environment.
  • It is desirable because everyone would certainly like the present level of development to go further or at least be maintained for future generations.


Q49: What is national development? What aspects are covered under national development?    (2016)

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Ans: National development refers to a nation’s ability to improve the standard of living and well-being of its population.
Aspects covered under national development include:

  • Economic awareness: Increasing the economic knowledge and awareness of the population.
  • Agricultural outputs: Enhancing agricultural production and productivity.
  • Poverty eradication: Focusing on strategies and policies to alleviate poverty within the nation.
  • Rural development: Ensuring the development and progress of rural areas.
  • Urban growth management: Addressing the challenges associated with urbanization and managing the growth of urban areas.
  • Gender parity: Striving for gender equality and equal opportunities for all genders in society.
  • Conflict resolution: Promoting peaceful discussions and negotiations to resolve conflicts within the nation.


Q50: Explain the importance of sustainable development by giving the example of groundwater.   (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Groundwater is an important natural resource that exemplifies the importance of sustainable development. 
Here’s how:

  • Groundwater is a renewable resource that plays a crucial role in meeting the water needs of various sectors, including agriculture, industry, and domestic use. However, excessive extraction and overuse of groundwater can lead to its depletion and long-term negative consequences.
  • Sustainable development emphasizes the responsible and judicious use of resources, including groundwater. By adopting sustainable practices, such as efficient irrigation techniques, rainwater harvesting, and recharging groundwater sources, we can ensure the long-term availability of groundwater.
  • For example, in areas where groundwater is the primary source of irrigation for agriculture, sustainable practices like drip irrigation and precision farming can help reduce water wastage and improve water-use efficiency. This ensures that the available groundwater resources are used optimally without depleting them.
  • Furthermore, sustainable development promotes the protection of groundwater quality. Unregulated disposal of industrial waste, improper sanitation systems, and excessive use of chemical fertilizers and pesticides can contaminate groundwater, making it unfit for human consumption and harming ecosystems. Sustainable development focuses on implementing proper waste management systems, promoting organic farming practices, and protecting water sources from pollution, thus safeguarding the quality of groundwater.
  • By prioritizing sustainable development practices, we can ensure the sustainable use and management of groundwater resources, meeting the present needs without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
Also read: Short Answer Questions: Development

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q51: What is the development goal of rural people of India as per your viewpoint? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The development goal of rural people in India focuses on:

  • Access to better resources, including food.
  • Improved transportation facilities.
  • Enhanced communication services.


Q52: What does Sustainability of development mean? How can sustainable development be achieved?  (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Sustainable development is the only way in which without sacrificing the quality of the environment for future generations, the present generations can continue to develop. Sustainable Development is significant because: 
(1) It encourages the growth that minimises environmental issues. 
(2) It is the only way to address the concerns of the future generation along with accommodating the needs of the current generation. 
(3) It demands that resource reserves, including exhaustible natural and environmental resources, be maintained. This keeps the atmosphere healthy for the current generation. For example, recent studies suggest that because of overuse, groundwater in India is exhausted. This might severely affect the future generations heavily to the point of threatening their survival.

Previous Year Questions 2012

Q53: “The future generation may not have sufficient resources as compared to the present generation.” Explain the statement by giving suitable examples. (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: The future generation may not have sufficient resources as compared to the present generation. This can be asserted in the following ways: 
(1) Resources like groundwater are getting overused everyday. They might get exhausted very soon. 
(2) Even renewable resources like hydropower may get exhausted. 
(3) Newer resources keep on adding to the line but they all have limited life due to the overuse.

05. Previous Year Questions: Outcomes of Democracy

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: “That democratic system of government is considered good in which maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political power.” Explain the statement with suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: A democratic system of government is considered good when the maximum number of citizens are made stakeholders in political power because:

  • Ensures People’s Participation:
    In democracy, citizens have the right to elect their representatives and participate in decision-making. This allows power to be shared among a large number of people instead of being concentrated in a few hands.
  • Makes Government Accountable and Responsive:
    Democratic governments are answerable to the people. Citizens can question policies, demand transparency, and expect the government to respond to their needs and aspirations.
  • Legitimises the Government:
    When rulers are chosen by the people, the government is seen as legitimate and “people’s own government,” which enjoys public trust and support.
  • Promotes Transparency:
    Democracy follows norms and procedures such as free and fair elections, open debates, and the right to information, ensuring that decisions are made transparently.
  • Upholds Equality and Dignity:
    It recognises equal rights for all citizens, strengthens individual dignity, and gives every citizen a voice in governance.
  • Allows Correction of Mistakes:
    Democracy provides mechanisms like elections and debates through which wrong decisions or policies can be corrected peacefully.

Hence, the greater the participation of citizens in political power, the stronger, more legitimate, and more effective the democracy becomes.


Q2: Explain any five bases for assessing the outcomes of democracy.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The outcomes of democracy can be assessed on the following five bases:

  • Accountable and Responsive Government:
    Democracy produces a government that is accountable to citizens and responsive to their needs through regular, free and fair elections and open debates.
  • Economic Growth and Development:
    Democracies aim at economic growth and development, though their performance may not always be better than dictatorships. Still, they provide conditions for people’s participation in development.
  • Reduction of Inequality and Poverty:
    Democracy is expected to reduce inequality and poverty by ensuring political equality. However, in practice, economic disparities often persist.
  • Accommodation of Social Diversity:
    Democracies accommodate differences among social, religious, or linguistic groups through negotiation and respect for diversity, preventing violent conflicts.
  • Dignity and Freedom of Citizens:
    Democracy upholds the dignity and freedom of individuals, ensuring equal respect and opportunities, especially for women and disadvantaged groups.


Q3: “One distinct feature of democracy is that its scrutiny never ends.” Explain the statement with appropriate arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: One distinct feature of democracy is that its scrutiny never ends because people continuously evaluate and question its functioning.

  • Continuous Public Examination:
    In a democracy, citizens constantly assess how well their government is performing. As democracy passes one test, people raise new expectations and demand further improvement.
  • Rising Expectations of Citizens:
    When citizens experience some benefits of democracy, they seek more participation, transparency, and equality. This continuous demand keeps democracy under constant review.
  • Public Awareness and Critical Thinking:
    Democracy transforms people from subjects into active citizens who are aware of their rights and are willing to question those in power.
  • Complaints Indicate Success:
    The fact that people complain about the functioning of democracy is itself proof of its success, as it shows they have developed the ability to expect and evaluate.
  • Ongoing Process of Improvement:
    Democracy is not a static system. It evolves with time, correcting mistakes and striving to become better by responding to the voices and needs of its citizens.

Hence, the scrutiny of democracy never ends because it is an ongoing process of evaluation, improvement, and accountability driven by active and aware citizens.


Q4: “Democratic system is better than other systems.” Explain the statement with appropriate arguments.  (5 Marks)
Or
​How is democracy better than other types of government? Analyse.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy is considered better than other forms of government because it upholds equality, accountability, and freedom for all citizens.

  • Accountable and Responsive Government:
    In democracy, rulers are accountable to the people and must respond to their needs and expectations. Citizens can question the government through elections, debates, and the right to information.
  • Legitimate Government:
    A democratic government is people’s own government. It gains legitimacy because rulers are elected by the citizens and act according to their will.
  • Transparency in Decision-Making:
    Democratic governments follow norms and procedures before making decisions. This ensures transparency and allows citizens to examine whether proper processes were followed.
  • Promotes Equality and Dignity:
    Democracy is based on political equality — every citizen has one vote of equal value. It also upholds the dignity and freedom of individuals, allowing them to live with respect.
  • Peaceful Resolution and Correction of Mistakes:
    Democracy provides peaceful methods to resolve conflicts and correct mistakes through dialogue, discussion, and elections — unlike dictatorships or monarchies, which suppress dissent.

Thus, democracy is superior to other systems because it ensures people’s participation, accountability, equality, and respect for freedom and human dignity.


Q5: Analyse the role of democracy in reducing inequality and poverty.  (5 Marks)
or
​Explain the role of democracy in reducing economic inequalities in India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy is expected to reduce inequality and poverty because it is based on the principle of political equality — where every citizen has one vote and equal political rights. However, its actual performance in reducing economic inequalities has been limited.

  • Expectation of Equal Distribution:
    Democracies aim to ensure that wealth and opportunities are distributed fairly so that all citizens can lead a better life.
  • Persistence of Inequalities:
    In practice, economic inequalities continue to exist. A small number of rich people enjoy a large share of national income, while those at the bottom struggle to meet basic needs like food, housing, health, and education.
  • Political Equality vs. Economic Inequality:
    Though democracy provides equal political rights, it has not been equally successful in providing equal economic opportunities. The gap between the rich and poor often widens even in democratic societies.
  • Government’s Role and Voter Pressure:
    Since the poor form a large part of the electorate, democratic governments are expected to address poverty. However, many governments fail to give it the attention it deserves.
  • Scope for Change:
    Despite its shortcomings, democracy allows people to raise their voices, organise movements, and demand policies for social and economic justice — which is not possible in non-democratic regimes.

Thus, while democracy has not completely eliminated inequality and poverty, it provides the space and means to struggle against them and move towards a more just society.


Q6: How does democracy establish an accountable, responsible, and legitimate governance? Explain.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy establishes an accountable, responsive, and legitimate government in the following ways:

  • Accountability:
    In a democracy, rulers are elected by the people and can be voted out if they fail to perform. Regular, free, and fair elections make the government accountable to citizens.
  • Responsiveness:
    Democratic governments are expected to respond to the needs and expectations of the people through public debate, participation, and the right to information.
  • Legitimacy:
    A democratic government is considered legitimate because it is chosen by the people and functions according to their consent. Even if it is slow or inefficient, it is still people’s own government.

Thus, democracy ensures that power remains in the hands of the people and that the government acts according to their will and welfare.


Q7: “Democratic governance is responsive to the expectations of citizens.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democratic governance is responsive to the expectations of citizens because it is based on participation, accountability, and public welfare.

  • People’s Participation in Decision-Making:
    In democracy, citizens have the right to elect their representatives and take part in decisions that affect their lives. This ensures that government policies reflect people’s needs and aspirations.
  • Public Opinion and Debate:
    Decisions in a democracy are made through discussion, negotiation, and consultation. Open public debates and media scrutiny compel the government to act according to citizens’ expectations.
  • Accountability to the People:
    Elected representatives are answerable to the people. If they fail to deliver, citizens can replace them through free and fair elections. This keeps the government responsive.
  • Transparency in Governance:
    Democratic systems allow people access to information through laws like the Right to Information Act. This enables citizens to question government actions and demand explanations.
  • Focus on Public Welfare:
    Since governments depend on the support of the people, they must implement welfare measures in areas like education, health, and poverty reduction to retain trust and legitimacy.

Thus, democracy ensures that the government remains sensitive to citizens’ needs, works for their welfare, and constantly adapts to public expectations.

OR

“Democracy accommodates social diversity better than dictatorship.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

Democracy accommodates social diversity better than dictatorship because it recognises and respects the differences that exist among various communities in a society.

  • In a democracy, people belonging to different religions, languages, and castes can freely express their views and take part in decision-making. Differences are managed through discussion and negotiation rather than force or suppression.
  • Democracy ensures that all groups have equal political rights. Every citizen, regardless of background, has one vote of equal value, preventing any group from being permanently excluded from power.
  • True democracy is not simply rule of the majority; it also protects the interests of the minority. The majority must work with the minority so that governments represent the views of all sections of society.
  • Democratic governments create power-sharing arrangements among different social groups and regions, allowing everyone to have a say in governance. This makes democracy flexible and inclusive.
  • Dictatorships, on the other hand, often suppress social and cultural differences to maintain control, leading to conflict and injustice.

Therefore, democracy is better suited to accommodate social diversity because it promotes equality, understanding, and peaceful coexistence among people with varied backgrounds.


Q8: In a democratic country the government adopts environment friendly policies with the help of citizens and experts. Which one of the following is a positive outcome of this process?  (1 Mark)
(a) The government is capable of determining policies on its own. 
(b) Citizens feel empowered to determine policies. 
(c) Corporates protect their own interest in determining policies. 
(d) Market forces also influence the government for their interests.

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Ans: (b) Citizens feel empowered to determine policies.

In a democracy, when the government adopts environment-friendly policies through discussion with citizens and experts, it shows people’s participation and accountability. This makes citizens feel empowered as they actively take part in shaping decisions that affect their lives — a key positive outcome of democracy.


Q9: Explain the role of opposition in democracy.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The opposition plays a vital role in a democracy by ensuring that the government remains accountable and works within constitutional limits.

  • The opposition questions and criticises the policies and decisions of the ruling party, helping to keep a check on misuse of power.
  • It represents alternative viewpoints and voices the concerns of citizens who may not agree with the ruling party, ensuring that different opinions are heard in governance.
  • The opposition also contributes to better decision-making by engaging in debates and discussions in the legislature, suggesting improvements and highlighting flaws in government policies.

Thus, the opposition strengthens democracy by promoting transparency, accountability, and balance of power in the political system.


Q10: “Democracy elevates humans from the status of subject to citizen.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy elevates humans from the status of subjects to citizens because it gives people power, dignity, and the right to participate in governance.

  • In a democracy, individuals are not merely ruled; they rule themselves through their representatives. This makes them active participants in decision-making rather than passive followers.
  • Democracy grants fundamental rights and freedoms, allowing citizens to express their opinions freely, criticise the government, and demand accountability. This empowers people and gives them control over those in power.
  • It promotes dignity and equality — every person, regardless of caste, gender, or status, has one vote of equal value and an equal right to be treated with respect.
  • Citizens have the right to information and participation, enabling them to question government actions and influence public policy. This develops awareness and responsibility among people.
  • The fact that people can complain, protest, and demand change shows the success of democracy, as it transforms them from silent subjects to aware and empowered citizens who shape their nation’s future.

Thus, democracy truly uplifts individuals by recognising them as equal, dignified, and active citizens rather than subjects under authority.


Q11: “Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.   (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting the dignity and freedom of the individual because it is founded on equality, respect, and individual rights.

  • Recognition of Individual Freedom:
    Democracy guarantees fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, expression, and participation in decision-making, allowing individuals to live with dignity and independence.
  • Equality and Respect for All:
    In a democratic system, all citizens are considered equal before the law. Every person, irrespective of caste, religion, gender, or class, enjoys equal political rights and opportunities.
  • Dignity of Women:
    Through long struggles, democracy has helped recognise that respect and equal treatment of women are essential to a just society. Although inequality still exists, democratic principles give women a legal and moral basis to fight for their rights.
  • End of Social Discrimination:
    In societies like India, democracy has strengthened the position of disadvantaged and discriminated castes, helping them claim equal status and opportunity.
  • Citizens’ Awareness and Empowerment:
    Democracy transforms people from subjects to active citizens who are aware of their rights and can question authority. This awareness itself reflects the dignity and strength of individuals in a democratic system.

Thus, democracy is superior because it not only provides freedom and equality but also ensures that every individual is treated with respect, dignity, and a sense of self-worth.


Q12: “Democracy and Development go together.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy and development go together” because democracy creates the right conditions for sustainable and inclusive growth by involving people in decision-making and ensuring accountability in governance.

  • People’s Participation in Policy-Making:
    In a democracy, decisions related to development are made after discussion and consultation with citizens. This helps in identifying real needs and using resources effectively for public welfare.
  • Transparency and Accountability:
    Democratic governments follow proper procedures and allow citizens to question decisions. This transparency reduces corruption and ensures that development benefits reach the people.
  • Equal Opportunities for All:
    Democracy is based on equality, giving every individual the right to education, employment, and participation in public life — all of which contribute to national development.
  • Balance Between Growth and Justice:
    While dictatorships may achieve faster growth, democracies ensure that growth is accompanied by social justice and protection of citizens’ rights, preventing exploitation.
  • Public Pressure for Welfare Measures:
    In a democracy, citizens can influence the government through elections and movements to adopt pro-people policies such as poverty reduction, education, and healthcare.

Hence, democracy and development go hand in hand because democracy not only promotes economic progress but also ensures that development is inclusive, accountable, and just.


Q13: “Democratic governments are usually attentive to the needs and demands of the people.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democratic governments are usually attentive to the needs and demands of the people because they derive their authority from citizens and depend on their support to remain in power.

  • Government by the People’s Choice:
    In a democracy, rulers are elected by the citizens. To win elections and maintain public trust, they must listen to the people’s problems and act according to their needs.
  • Accountability to Citizens:
    Since the government can be changed through regular, free, and fair elections, it remains accountable to the people. This accountability ensures that the government pays attention to citizens’ welfare.
  • Public Discussion and Debate:
    Democracy is based on deliberation and negotiation. Through debates in legislatures, media discussions, and public opinion, citizens influence government decisions and policies.
  • Transparency and Right to Information:
    Citizens have the right to know how decisions are made and funds are used. This transparency forces governments to respond to people’s expectations.
  • Focus on Welfare Measures:
    Democratic governments try to fulfil social and economic needs such as education, health, and employment, as ignoring these can lead to public dissatisfaction and loss of support.

Thus, democratic governments are attentive to the people because their power depends on public approval, making them responsive and responsible towards the citizens’ needs.


Q14: Evaluate the outcomes of democracy in the economic sector of the country.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The outcomes of democracy in the economic sector show a mixed picture. While democracies provide opportunities for growth and fairness, they have not always been fully successful in ensuring equal economic progress for all.

  • Moderate Economic Growth:
    Studies show that democracies and dictatorships have had almost similar rates of economic growth. Dictatorships may grow slightly faster, but the difference is small, and democracies provide fairer conditions for development.
  • Balanced Development:
    Economic development in democracy depends on factors like population, resources, and global situation. Though democracies may not achieve very high growth, they ensure stable and people-centred development.
  • Inequality of Wealth:
    Democracies have not been very successful in reducing the gap between the rich and the poor. A small section of society enjoys a large share of wealth, while many struggle to meet basic needs.
  • Reduction of Poverty:
    Despite having political equality, democracies often fail to effectively address poverty and unemployment. Governments are sometimes unable to meet the expectations of the poor majority.
  • Freedom and Participation in Economy:
    The positive side of democracy is that it allows citizens to participate freely in economic decisions and influence policies through public pressure and debate. This ensures that development remains accountable to the people.

Hence, while democracy may not always deliver rapid economic growth, it provides a fair, transparent, and participatory system that aims for inclusive and sustainable development.


Q15: Evaluate the outcomes of democracy in the social sector of the country.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The outcomes of democracy in the social sector are seen in its efforts to promote equality, harmony, dignity, and freedom among citizens. Though challenges remain, democracy provides the best framework for achieving these goals.

  • Political and Social Equality:
    Democracy is based on the principle of political equality, where every individual has one vote of equal value. This promotes social equality by recognising that all citizens are equal, regardless of caste, gender, or religion.
  • Accommodation of Social Diversity:
    Democracies respect and accommodate social, religious, and linguistic differences through discussion and power-sharing. This helps in reducing conflicts and promoting harmony among various communities.
  • Protection of Minority Rights:
    True democracy ensures that majority rule does not become majority domination. It protects the rights and interests of minority groups, promoting inclusiveness in governance.
  • Dignity and Freedom of Individuals:
    Democracy upholds the dignity and freedom of every citizen. It provides the legal and moral foundation for women, disadvantaged castes, and other marginalised groups to fight against discrimination and inequality.
  • Public Awareness and Citizen Empowerment:
    Democracy transforms people from passive subjects into active, aware citizens who can question authority and demand justice. This growing awareness strengthens social justice and equality.

Thus, democracy has made significant progress in promoting social justice, equality, and harmony, even though complete elimination of social inequalities remains an ongoing challenge.


Q16: Explain the role of democracy in establishing the dignity of citizens.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy plays a crucial role in establishing the dignity of citizens because it is built on the principles of equality, freedom, and respect for every individual.

  • Recognition of Equality:
    Democracy treats all citizens as equal before the law, irrespective of caste, religion, gender, or social background. This equality forms the foundation of human dignity in a democratic society.
  • Freedom and Rights:
    Citizens enjoy fundamental rights such as freedom of speech, expression, and association. These rights enable individuals to live with self-respect and make independent choices without fear or oppression.
  • Dignity of Women:
    Democracy has helped in recognising that equal treatment and respect for women are essential features of a just society. Women now have legal and moral grounds to fight against discrimination and inequality.
  • Empowerment of Marginalised Groups:
    Democracy provides a platform for disadvantaged castes and minority groups to demand equal status and opportunities. It has strengthened their social position and given them a voice in governance.
  • Transformation from Subjects to Citizens:
    Democracy transforms people from being passive subjects to active citizens who can question authority and influence governance. This sense of participation enhances their self-worth and dignity.

Thus, democracy ensures that every individual is treated with respect, equality, and freedom, making dignity not just an ideal but a living reality for all citizens.


Q17: Explain the role of democracy in establishing harmony among social diversities.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy plays a vital role in establishing harmony among social diversities because it recognises, respects, and accommodates the differences that exist within society.

  • Peaceful Management of Differences:
    In a democracy, social divisions based on religion, language, caste, or ethnicity are handled through dialogue, discussion, and negotiation rather than force. This prevents conflicts from turning violent.
  • Equal Political Rights for All:
    Every citizen has equal voting rights and the opportunity to participate in governance. This equality ensures that no group feels excluded or inferior, promoting unity and mutual respect.
  • Representation of Minority Groups:
    True democracy protects minority interests and ensures that the majority does not misuse its power. The majority must work with minority groups to form policies that reflect the interests of all.
  • Power-Sharing and Inclusion:
    Democratic governments often adopt power-sharing mechanisms to include different social, cultural, and regional groups in decision-making, ensuring fair participation and trust.
  • Prevention of Suppression:
    Unlike dictatorships that often suppress diversity, democracy allows free expression of identity and culture, helping people coexist peacefully and strengthening social harmony.

Thus, democracy establishes harmony by promoting tolerance, respect, and cooperation among diverse groups, ensuring that unity is maintained in a society full of differences.


Q18: “Democratic governments are usually attentive to the needs and demands of the people.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democratic governments are usually attentive to the needs and demands of the people because they derive their power from citizens and are accountable to them.

  • Government Chosen by the People:
    In a democracy, the rulers are elected by citizens through free and fair elections. To retain power, they must listen to the people’s needs and fulfil their expectations.
  • Accountability and Responsibility:
    Democratic governments are answerable to the public. If they fail to perform or ignore people’s demands, they can be voted out in the next election. This compels them to remain responsive.
  • Public Debate and Consultation:
    Democracy is based on deliberation and negotiation. Policies and decisions are discussed openly in legislatures and the media, ensuring that public opinion shapes governance.
  • Transparency and Right to Information:
    Citizens have the right to know how decisions are made and public funds are used. This transparency keeps the government sensitive to public concerns and prevents misuse of power.
  • Focus on Welfare Measures:
    Since the government depends on people’s support, it is encouraged to introduce programmes related to education, health, poverty reduction, and employment to improve citizens’ lives.

Thus, democratic governments remain attentive because their authority and survival depend on the trust, participation, and satisfaction of the people they represent.


Q19: How is democracy a responsible and legitimate government? Explain.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Democracy is considered a responsible and legitimate government because it is based on the consent of the people and functions according to their will.

  • Government by Consent:
    In a democracy, rulers are elected by the people through free and fair elections. This gives the government legitimacy, as it represents the will of the citizens rather than the authority of a few individuals.
  • Accountability to the People:
    Democratic governments are responsible and answerable to the citizens. If they fail to fulfil their duties or misuse power, people have the right to question them and replace them in the next election.
  • Transparency in Decision-Making:
    Democracy follows established norms and procedures before making decisions. Citizens can know how and why a particular decision was made through the Right to Information, ensuring transparency and fairness.
  • Public Participation:
    Citizens can influence and participate in decision-making through debates, protests, and discussions. This ensures that policies reflect public opinion and collective interest.
  • Moral and Legal Legitimacy:
    Even if a democratic government is slow or imperfect, it remains people’s own government, functioning with moral and legal authority — something non-democratic regimes lack.

Thus, democracy is both responsible — because it answers to the people — and legitimate — because it is formed and sustained by the consent of the governed.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Read the following statements regarding democracy and choose the correct option.
(I) Promotes equality among citizens
(II) Government by few individuals
(III) Protection of human rights
(IV) Ensures checks and balance system     (CBSE 2024)
Options:
(a) 
(I), (II) and (III)
(b) (II), (III) and (IV)
(c) (I), (III) and (IV)
(d) (I), (II) and (IV)

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Ans: (c)
The correct answer is (c) because in a democracy, it promotes equality among citizens, protects human rights, and ensures a system of checks and balances to prevent any one group from having too much power. Statement (II), which says “Government by few individuals,” does not apply to democracy, as it implies a system like an oligarchy, not a democratic government.


Q2: “Democracy is an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.” Explain the statement.     (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: (1) Democracy produces an accountable government because in a democracy, people have the right in choosing their representatives through the electoral process.
(2) Elected representatives participate in the decision-making  process on behalf of  the people. They are accountable to the people who elect them.
(3) If these elected representatives do not work properly, people have a chance to correct them in the next elections. Thus, it is an legitimate government because it is chosen by people through free and fair elections.
(4) Democratic governments are elected by the people and are responsible towards the Constitution and the Parliament.
(5) A democratic government is people’s own government. It is popular and responsible for making favourable laws for the collective good of the society.


Q3: “Accommodation of social diversity is the key feature of democracy.” Explain the statement in the Indian context.     (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Accommodation of social diversity is the key feature of democracy because:
(1) Constitutional Framework:
 All Indian citizens, regardless of caste, religion, gender, or ethnicity, are guaranteed fundamental rights by the Indian Constitution. In order to remedy the past injustices that minority people have endured, it also contains provisions for affirmative     action measures like reservations.
(2) Federal Structure: India’s federal structure provides for decentralised governance, allowing states to have autonomy in matters pertaining to language, culture, and regional identity.
(3) Representation in Government: India’s parliamentary democracy ensures representation of diverse social groups in government institutions.
(4) Reservation Policies: India has implemented reservation policies to ensure the representation of marginalised communities in elected bodies, educational institutions, and government jobs.
(5) Cultural Pluralism: The diversity of languages, faiths, traditions, and customs that makeup India’s cultural landscape is remarkable. India’s democratic culture promotes cultural plurality, enabling people to freely practice their various cultural identities as individuals and communities.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q4: Which one of the following is the most popular form of government in the contemporary world?   (2023, At 2014)
(a)
 Dictatorial Government
(b) 
Constitutional Monarchy
(c) 
Military Government
(d) 
Democratic Government 

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Ans: (d)
The correct answer is (d) Democratic Government because, today, most countries around the world practice democracy, where the people have the power to elect their leaders and make decisions. In contrast, the other options like dictatorial, military, or constitutional monarchy governments are less common and do not give the same level of power to the citizens.


Q5: “Democracy produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.” Support the statement with arguments.      (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Democracy produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate Government. This statement can be explained on the following grounds:

  • The government can be responsible when people start taking actions when the government becomes insensitive about their aspirations. People can hold protests, carry out campaigns and organise rallies and force the government to respond to them.
  • A democratic government is a legitimate government, as it is elected by citizens and enjoys the confidence and trust of the citizens.
  • People have the right to choose their rulers and they have control over their rulers. Citizens can participate in decision making.
  • Democracy makes the point that decision making is based on norms and procedures. So, a citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures, can find out this information.
  • A democratic government is the people’s own government and it is run by the people. People are ruled by representatives elected by them.


Q6: “There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world” Support the statement with examples.       (2023)

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Ans: Despite any shortcomings that we might witness in a democratic model of governance, it is still the most preferred form of government all over the world including in South Asia. Some reasons for this are given below:
(i) People have the right to choose who governs them through regular elections.
(ii) The elected government is answerable to the people and to ensure its stability, and has to deliver its promises.
(iii) Democracy ensures transparency.
(iv) It accommodates diversity and promotes inclusion and equality.
(v) It gives an equal chance of participation to all the citizens.
(vi) An important pillar of democracy is ensuring the dignity and freedom of people.
(vii) The true power lies with people.
(viii) Lastly, democracy has proven to be a better mode than dictatorship, aristocracy, or any other form ol governance.


Q7: “Democracy stands much superior to any other forms of governments in promoting dignity and freedom of the individual. Support the statement with arguments.      (CBSE 2023, 18, 14)

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Ans: “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”:

  • Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Democracy provides fundamental rights to every citizen.
  • Freedom from coercion is the basis of any democracy, where everyone can have faith in choice.
  • In a democracy, people have equal opportunities so they can come up in life. They are not discriminated against on the basis of caste or gender.
  • Long struggles by women have got them respect and equal treatment. In many democracies, women were deprived of their right to vote for a long time which they have achieved now. In India, 1/3rd of seats have been reserved for women in local bodies.
  • Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.


Q8: Which type of government is likely to be more acceptable to the people in the world? 
(a) Democracy 
(b) Military 
(c) Dictatorship 
(d) Theocratic (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: (a)
Democracy is generally more acceptable to people around the world because it is based on the principles of freedom, equality, and representation. In a democratic government, citizens have the right to participate in decision-making, elect their leaders, and hold them accountable. This form of government promotes human rights, respects diversity, and allows for peaceful transitions of power, making it preferable and more widely accepted than other forms such as military rule, dictatorship, or theocracy.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Democracy.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q9: Analyse the reason for the overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world.      (2022)

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Ans: 
1. Promotes freedom: Democracy is based on the principle of individual freedom and liberty. People in democratic societies have the freedom to express their opinions, choose their leaders, and participate in decision-making processes.

2. Ensures equality: Democracy provides equal opportunities for all citizens, regardless of their social or economic status. It ensures that everyone has an equal voice in decision-making processes.

3. Allows peaceful transitions of power: In a democratic system, power is transferred through elections, which provides a peaceful way for people to change their leaders and express their opinions.

4. Protects human rights: Democracy promotes the protection of human rights and ensures that citizens have access to justice and equality before the law.

5. Fosters stability and development: Democracy provides a stable and predictable environment for businesses, investors, and individuals to operate in. It also encourages economic growth and development.

6. Reflects popular will: In a democratic system, the government is accountable to the people and reflects the will of the majority. This ensures that policies and decisions made by the government reflect the needs and desires of the people.
Overall, the overwhelming support for democracy all over the world can be attributed to its ability to promote individual freedom, equality, peaceful transitions of power, human rights protection, stability, development, and reflect the popular will.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q10: “Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.” Analyse the statement with three examples.    (Term-II, 2021-22)

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Ans: Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is indeed an important outcome that cannot be ignored. Here are three examples to illustrate this:

  • Example 1: The United States of America
    In the United States, democracy has been able to generate its own support through the electoral process. The citizens have the right to vote and choose their representatives, which gives them a sense of ownership and participation in the government. The high voter turnout during elections is evidence of the support democracy receives from the people.
  • Example 2: India
    India is the world’s largest democracy and has successfully generated its own support through a vibrant electoral system. Despite its diverse population and numerous challenges, democracy has been able to sustain itself in India. The regular elections, where millions of people participate, reflect the support and belief in the democratic system.
  • Example 3: South Africa
    South Africa’s transition from apartheid to democracy is a remarkable example of how democracy can generate its own support. The majority of South Africans fought for the end of racial segregation and the establishment of a democratic government. The democratic system in South Africa has been able to address historical injustices and promote equality, garnering support from the people.

Therefore, these examples demonstrate that democracy’s ability to generate its own support is a significant outcome that cannot be overlooked.


Q11: Democratic government is a legitimate government. Support the statement with suitable arguments.    (Term-II, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: A democratic government is called legitimate  government because it is people’s own government.
(i) It may be slow, less efficient and may have other flaws but it is people’s government.  
(ii) There is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. People of South Asia, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, India, Pakistan and Nepal have no j doubt about the suitability of democracy for their country,
(iii) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support makes it more legitimate


Q12: How is a democratic government known as a responsive government? Explain with examples.   (Term-II, 2021-22 C, AI 2014)

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Ans: A democratic government has to be responsive to the needs of its citizens.
(i) Through discussions and public opinions the democratic government can check the popularity of its decisions and mechanism of administering justice.
(ii) A government which is able to respond to grievances faster is able to avoid confrontation and provide good governance. Such governments are said to be responsive


Q13: Mention the two conditions that democracy must fulfill in order to achieve a harmonious social life.  (Term-II,2021-22)

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Ans: Democracy must fulfill two conditions to achieve a harmonious social life. Firstly, there should be a respect for the principles of equality, justice, and human rights. This means that all individuals should have equal opportunities, equal protection under the law, and their basic rights and freedoms should be safeguarded. Secondly, there should be a culture of dialogue, inclusiveness, and compromise. This involves fostering an environment where different opinions and perspectives are respected, conflicts are resolved through peaceful means, and consensus is built through open and constructive discussions.


Q14: “Democracy enhances the dignity and freedom of individuals.” Support the statement.   (Term-II, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: Democracy enhances the dignity and freedom of individual. This statement is supported on the basis of
(i) The societies which have been built on the basis of subordination and domination, democracy recognise that all individuals are equal.
(ii) For women, most societies are male dominated. But democracy recognise the equality of women as well.
(iii) Same in the case of caste inequalities. Democracy give equal status and opportunities to all sections of society.


Q15: “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”. Justify the statement.
(Term-ll, 2021-22 C, 2015,2014)

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Ans: “Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”:
(i) Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings. Democracy provides fundamental rights to every citizen.
(ii) Freedom from coercion is basis of any democracy, where everyone can have faith of choice.
(iii) In a democracy people have equal opportunities so they can come up in life. They are not discriminated on the basis of caste or gender.
(iv) Long struggles by women have got them respect and equal treatment. In many democracies, women were deprived of their right to vote for a long time which they have achieved now. In India l/3rd of seats have been reserved for women in local bodies.
(v) Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.

Also read: Mind Map: Outcomes of Democracy

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q16: “Democracies accommodate social diversities and provide dignity and freedom to the citizens”. Justify the statement.
(Term-ll, 2021 – 22 ,2020)

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Ans: Democracy promotes dignity and freedom of the people:
(i) Democracy stands much superior to any other form of government in promoting dignity and freedom of the people.
(ii) It promotes equality among citizen and hence increases respect for each other among citizen.
(iii) Respect and freedom have been recognised as the basis of democracy. (iv) Freedom and equality to women
(v) Strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
(vi) Majority-minority coordination.


Q17: Give any one example of economic development in dictatorial regimes. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Dictatorships have higher rates of economic growth as compared to democracies. For example, China’s growth rate is higher than most of the other democracies in the world.


Q18: “Democracy is best suited to produce better results.” Examine the statement.  (CBSE 2020, 16)

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Ans: Democracy produces better results because: 
(1) Democracy is a popular form of government. People participate in making decisions that affects them, including chosing of their representatives. This makes results acceptable. 
(2) Regular elections offer a chance to the people to change the current rulers. People can vote for other leaders in the following elections.
(3) Democracy provides an efficient method to deal with differences and conflicts, which are bound to arise in a diverse society, in a peaceful manner through negotiations. 
(4) Only a democratic setup is able to accommodate various social divisions without violence. 
(5) Democratic governments have a formal constitution

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q19: How do democratic governments ensure transparency? Explain.    (2019 C)

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Ans: Following are the ways by which democratic government ensures transparency:
(i) Democratic government ensures that the decision i making process is based on proper norms and procedures,
(ii) Citizens have the right to examine the process of decision making.
(iii) A democratic government develops mechanism for the citizens to hold the government accountable and mechanism for citizens to take part in decision making  whenever they think fit.


Q20: Describe the importance of democratic government as an accountable and legitimate government.   (CBSE Delhi 2019,32/1/1)

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Ans: Democratic government can be said to be accountable and legitimate government. The following reasons can be scribed to it:
Accountable government:
(i)
 When people choose their representatives, they are expected to be accountable, this is the basic outcome of democracy.
(ii) The citizens have the right and also the means to examine the process of decision making, that is high level of accountability is expected.
(iii) The government is expected to practice regular, free and fair elections and open discussions on important issues.
(iv) Democratic government can apparently be less efficient than a non-democratic government. This happens because a non-democratic government does not need to arrive at consensus among a diverse set of people. Democracy functions on the basis of deliberation and negotiation and hence decisions are often delayed. But this does not mean that a democratic government is less efficient. 

Legitimate government:
(i) 
A democratic government is people’s own government. That is why there is an overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world and I there is the element of legitimacy attached to it.
(ii) People wish to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They also believe that democracy is suitable for their country. Democracy’s ability to generate support for itself is an outcome that cannot be ignored.
(iii) Though there are many reports of democracies ignoring the demands of people and there are routine tales of corruption but yet chances of governments improving only exists in democratic set-up.


Q21: “Democracies do not appear to be very successful in reducing economic inequalities.” Justify the statement.  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Democracies fail to fulfill the expectations of economic development:
(i) Slow economic development and economic growth can be due to large population.
(ii) Basic needs of life, such as food, clothing, shelter are difficult to achieve in certain democracies.
(iii) Prevalence of economic inequalities are often seen.
(iv) Poverty is still a big issue.
(v) Allocation of resources in few hands.
(vi) Unjust distribution of goods and opportunities


Q22: Study the given picture and answer the question that follows:

Which one of the following options best signifies this cartoon? 
(a) Demand for separate state from Democratic Government. 
(b) Democratic Government is facing territorial issues with the bordering states. 
(c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation. 
(d) Democratic Government accepts demands based on separate state. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (c)
This cartoon likely illustrates the challenges faced by democratic governments in managing the diverse demands and pressures from various groups within the country. Instead of rejecting these pressures outright, a democratic government seeks ways to accommodate different interests and groups, balancing diverse needs to maintain stability and unity. This approach reflects the flexibility and inclusiveness characteristic of democratic systems.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) Democratic Government is coping with multiple pressures through accommodation.


Q23: ‘‘Democracies have had greater success in setting regular free and fair elections.’’ Analyse the statement. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Democracies have had greater success in setting regular free and fair elections: 
(1) In a democracy, all people above a certain age have the right to vote as well as contest elections. 
(2) Elections are free and fair in a democracy as there is an independent body (Election Commission in India) which monitors all election related activities impartially. 
(3) If there are any malpractices during elections, then a re-election is conducted in that constituency. Hence democracy has had greater success in setting up free elections.

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q24: How is democracy a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other alternative government? (CBSE 2018, 17, 15)

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Ans: Democracy is a better form of government when compared with dictatorship or any other alternative form of government because it:
(1) Promotes equality among citizens. 
(2) Enhances the dignity of the individual. 
(3) Improves the quality of decision making.


Q25: ‘‘Democracies lead to peaceful and harmonious life among citizens.’’ Support the statement with examples.  (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: The given statement can be supported using the following points. 
(1) Democracy accommodates various social divisions. 
(2) Democracy reduces the possibility of social tensions from becoming explosive and violent. 
(3) An ability to handle social differences and conflicts among different groups is an advantage of democracy. 
(4) Democracy develops procedure to conduct healthy competitions among different groups in a society. 
(5) Democracy respects differences and provides mechanism to resolve them.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q26 Explain the meaning of ‘sectional interest group’.    (Foreign 2017)

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Ans: A ‘sectional interest group’ refers to an organized association or organization that represents the common interests of a specific section or segment of society. These interest groups advocate for the concerns and issues that are specific to their particular section, such as labor unions representing workers’ rights or farmer associations advocating for agricultural policies. Sectional interest groups aim to protect and promote the welfare of their members and influence decision-making processes that affect their respective sections.


Q27: Explain the meaning of democracy.    (Al 2017)

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Ans: Democracy is a system of government in which the entire population or all eligible members of a state have the power to participate in decision-making processes. This can be done directly, through direct voting on policies and laws, or indirectly, by electing representatives who make decisions on behalf of the people. In a democratic system, the government is accountable to the people, and citizens have the right to express their opinions, criticize the government, and participate in the political process.


Q28: Why is there overwhelming support for democracy all over the world? Explain one reason.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: 

  • It is because democracy is an accountable, responsive and legitimate government. The most basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.
  • Democracy ensures that decision making will be based on norms and procedures and a citizen who wants to know if a decision was taken through the correct procedures can find this out.
  • The actual performance of democracies shows that democracies have had greater success in setting up regular and free elections and in setting up conditions for open public debate.


Q29: On the basis of which values will it be a fair expectation that democracy should produce a harmonious social life? Explain.   (CBSE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: The values that are associated with democracy producing a harmonious social life are; 

  • Equality among all human beings.
  • Respect for individual freedom.
  • Democracies accommodate various social divisions.
  • Democracies reduce the possibility of tensions becoming explosive or violent.
  • Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts.


Q30: How can you say that democracy is better than dictatorship?
OR
Which values make democracy better than any other form of government? Explain.   (CBSE (F) 2017)
OR
Analyse any three values that make democracy better. (CBSE 2017, 15, 14)

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Ans: Democracy promotes equality among citizens as it is the people’s own government.

  • It enhances the dignity of the individual.
  • It also improves the quality of decision-making.
  • It provides methods to resolve conflicts if any.
  • Only democracy allows room to correct mistakes.
  • It is a legitimate government.
  • Gives equal status and respect to women and weaker sections.
  • It promotes transparency.
  • Values of social justice, equality, fraternity.
  • It gives importance to public opinion.
  • It provides rights to people.
  • It gives the feeling of collective belonging.
  • It encompasses the feeling of integrity secularism and tolerance.
  • It inculcates the feeling of integrity and dutifulness.
  • It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean. A democratic government is the people’s own government.
  • There is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world—in countries with democratic regimes as well as non-democratic regimes.


Q31: “Democracy is accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens.” Evaluate the statement. (CBSE (Comptt) 2017)
OR

“Democratic government is known as responsive government.” Assess the statement.   (CBSE (Comptt) 2017)

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Ans: Democracy is accountable and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens

  • The most basic outcome of democracy is that it produces a government that is accountable to the citizens, and responsive to the needs and expectations of the citizens. 
  • Economic growth and development -level of economic development is slow because of delays in decision making. 
  • Accommodation of social diversity – the majority should work with the minority. 
  • Dignity and freedom of citizens-every individual want to receive respect from fellow beings. Equality for women.


Q32: How does democracy stand better than any other form of government in promoting the dignity and freedom of the citizens? Explain with examples.   (CBSE (Comptt) 2017)

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Ans: Democracy stands better than any other form of government in promoting the dignity and freedom of citizens:

  • Respect and Freedom: The passion for respect and freedom is the basis of democracy which is recognized throughout the world in principle.
  • Dignity of women: Democracy provides dignity to women by giving them the freedom to fight for their rights.
  • Right to equality: equal status and equal opportunity have a legal sanction in democracy.
  • Individual freedom: In a democracy, every individual has the freedom to pursue his goal.


Q33: “Democratic government is legitimate government”? Support the statement with arguments. (CBSE Delhi 2016)
OR
How is a “democratic government” a “legitimate government”? Explain with examples. (CBSE Delhi 2017)

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Ans: Democratic government is a legitimate government: It may be slow, less efficient, not always very responsive or clean. But a democratic government is peoples’ own government. That is why there is overwhelming support for the idea of democracy all over the world. People wished to be ruled by representatives elected by them. They also believe that democracy is suitable for their country. Democracy’s ability to generate its own support is itself an outcome that cannot be ignored.
Democratic Government is known as legitimate government:

  • Democracy produces a government that follows and is accountable to the people.
  • It provides a mechanism for citizens to hold the government accountable and allows citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think fit.
  • If you wanted to measure democracies on the basis of this expected outcome you would look for the following practices and institutions regular free and fair election, open public debate on major policies.


Q34: Democracy accommodates social diversities. Support the statement with examples. (CBSE (AI) 2016)
OR
How is social diversity accommodated in democracy? Explain with examples.  (CBSE (Al) 2017)

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Ans: “Democracy accommodates social diversities”.
Democracy develops a mechanism which successfully negotiates difference among the ethnic population.

  • Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these tensions becoming explosive or violent.
  • No society can fully and permanently resolve conflicts among different groups. But we can certainly learn to respect these differences and can evolve a mechanism to negotiate these differences. 
  • The ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is thus a definite plus point of democratic regimes. Democracy accommodates social diversity as it allows for equality, fair representation to all irrespective of their caste, creed, colour, race, religion, language or place of residence. 
  • Democracy also ensures that the government should not be made by the majority but it should have the representation of minorities as well.  
  • For example: Belgium has successfully negotiated differences among the ethnic population. This reduces the possibility of tensions.


Q35: Explain any one difference between a pressure group and a political party.  (CASE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: One difference between a pressure group and a political party is that political parties contest elections and hold power in the government while pressure groups attempt to influence government policies.


Q36: Explain the meaning of transparency in democracy.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: In a democracy, decision making is based on norms and procedures. A citizen has the right and the means to examine the process of decision making. This is known as transparency.


Q37: If you want to extract information about the functions of any government department, which right would you exercise? (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: I would exercise my Right to Information (RTI) to extract information about the functions of any government department.


Q38: How is democracy based on political equality in India?  (CBSE 2017, 15)

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Ans: In India, every citizen above 18 years of age has the right to vote. Every citizen has the right to contest elections irrespective of his/ her caste, religion, creed, economic status, etc. if he/she is 21 years of age. Hence, democracy is based on political equality in India.

Also read: Mind Map: Outcomes of Democracy

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q39: In which area does democracy fail to achieve the same results as in dictatorship?   (2016)

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Ans: Democracy may fail to achieve the same results as dictatorship in terms of efficiency and speed of decision-making. In a democracy, decision-making often involves extensive discussions, debates, and consultations, which can be time-consuming. On the other hand, in a dictatorship, decisions are made by a single ruler or a small group of individuals, allowing for quick and decisive actions. However, it is important to note that democracy provides greater transparency, inclusivity, and protection of individual rights, which are crucial for a just and equitable society.


Q40: What is meant by economic inequality?  (2016)

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Ans: Economic inequality refers to the disparities and uneven distribution of economic assets and income within a society. It is characterized by a significant gap between the wealthy and the poor, where a small portion of the population possesses a large share of wealth and resources, while the majority struggles with poverty and limited economic opportunities. Economic inequality can result from various factors such as unequal access to education, employment opportunities, social privileges, and discriminatory practices.


Q41: Name any two sectional interest groups.  (Al 2016)

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Ans: Two examples of sectional interest groups are Labor Unions and Farmer Associations. Labor Unions represent the collective interests and rights of workers, advocating for better working conditions, fair wages, and improved labor laws. Farmer Associations, on the other hand, represent the interests of farmers and agricultural workers, focusing on issues related to farming practices, agricultural policies, and rural development.


Q42: Which system can reduce the possibility of tension and conflict among different groups of society?  (2016)

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Ans: Democracy is a system that can reduce the possibility of tension and conflict among different groups of society. Through democratic processes such as open dialogue, inclusive decision-making, and respect for individual rights and freedoms, democracy provides a platform for different groups to express their opinions, negotiate their differences, and work towards common goals. By ensuring equal participation and representation, democracy encourages cooperation, compromise, and the peaceful resolution of conflicts, thereby fostering social harmony and stability.


Q43: Suggest some broad guidelines that can be kept in mind while devising ways and means for political reforms in India.   (C-BST Sample Paper 2016)

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Ans: Some important political reforms should be done for improving democracy in India. These are:

  • A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. Political parties should maintain a register of its members, to hold open elections, to follow its own Constitution, etc.
  • Political parties can be monitored by ordinary citizens, pressure groups, media, etc. Pressure on political parties can be done through petitions, publicity and agitation.
  • The quality of democracy depends on the degree of public participation. It is difficult to reform politics if ordinary citizens do not directly participate in politics and simply criticize it from outside. 

Thus, the participation of common people in politics is necessary for democracy.


Q44: “Democratic governments in practice are known as accountable.” Support the statement with arguments.   (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: Democratic governments in practice are accountable:

  • It is right to expect democracy to produce a government that follows procedures and is accountable to the people.
  • It is also expected that the democratic government develops mechanisms for citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think it is fit.
  • The democratic government is accountable to the people. If it ignores the will of the people, they will not elect their ruler in the next general election.
  • The procedures and decision-making process should be transparent for democratic government to be accountable to the people.


Q45: “No party system is ideal for all countries and in all situations.” Analyse the statement.  (CBSE (All) 2017, CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: Party system is not something any country can choose:

  • It evolves over a long time, depending on the nature of society.
  • It depends on social and regional divisions.
  • It depends on the history of politics and its system, of elections.
  • These cannot be changed very quickly.
  • Each country develops a party system that is conditioned by its special circumstances.


Q46: Complaints are treated as a testimony to the success of democracy.” Justify the statement.   (CBSE 2017-18C)

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Ans: 

  • Complaints are treated as a testimony to the success of democracy as they highlight the awareness of people and their expectations from the system that has been put in place.
  • In a democracy, the scrutiny is ongoing. As democracy passes over one test, it produces another test. As people get some benefits of democracy, they ask for more and want to make democracy even better.
  • People always come up with more expectations and complaints.
  • A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project. It transforms people from the status of a subject into that of a citizen. 
  • Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.


Q47: Describe any five characteristics of democracy.   (CBSE (Al) 2017)

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Ans: Democracy is a better form of government than any other form of government:

  • Democracy promotes equality among citizens: In democracies, every citizen vote has the same value irrespective of gender, caste, religion, or race. This ensures political equality among its citizens.
  • Democracy enhances the dignity of the individual:  Democracy is based on the the principle of political equality, on recognizing that the poorest and the least educated has the same status as the rich and the educated.
  • Democracy improves the quality of decision making: Democracy is based on consultation and discussion. A democratic decision always involves many persons, discussions and meeting. When a number of people put their heads together, they are able to point out possible mistakes in any decision. Even though this takes time but taking time over important decisions is a must 
  • Provides a method to resolve conflicts: Democracy provides a method to deal with differences and conflicts as different people have different opinions and interests. However, there are free and fair elections. In a democracy, no one is a permanent loser or a permanent winner. Different groups can live with one another in harmony and peace. 
  • Accountable, responsive and legitimate government: In a democracy, the Government is always held accountable. If any of the policies, and laws are not implemented properly, then the citizens have the right to vote them out in the next elections. Moreover, in a democracy, citizens can approach the Judiciary, if the Government has taken any actions which are counter productive to the well-being of citizens. 
  • Reduction of inequality and poverty: Governments can intervene to promote equity, and reduce inequality and poverty, through the tax and benefits system. This means employing a progressive tax and benefits system which takes proportionately more tax from those on higher levels of income, and redistributes welfare benefits to those on lower incomes. 
  • Democracy promotes transparency:  Democratic government ensures that the decision-making process is based on proper norms and procedures. Citizens have the right to examine the process of decision making. A democratic government develops mechanisms for the citizens to hold the government accountable and mechanism for citizens to take part in decision making whenever they think fit.


Q48: “A democracy must look after the interests of all, not just one section.” Support the statement with arguments.   (CBSE (F) 2017)

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Ans: Democracy must look after the interest of all because:

  • Democracy believes in and work for equality.
  • It has the ability to handle social differences irrespective of religion or race or linguistic group, etc.  
  • It gives equal treatment to women.
  • It cares equally for the majority and minority.
  • Democracy in India has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged.
  • It tries to provide equal opportunities to minority and depressed classes.
  • Ordinary citizens value their democratic rights.
  • Democracy shows that people have developed awareness.
  • It has the ability to expect and look critically at power holders.


Q49: “Democracy stands much! superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens.” Justify the statement.   (CBSE Delhi 2017, CBSE (Al) 2016)

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Ans: “Democracy stands much Superior in promoting dignity and freedom of the citizens”:

  • Every individual wants to receive respect from fellow beings.
  • The passion for respect and freedom are the basis of democracy.
  • Democracies throughout the world have recognized this. It has been achieved in various degrees in various democracies.
  • Long struggles by women have got them respect and equal treatment and now accepted as necessary ingredients of a democratic society.
  • In many democracies, women were deprived of their right to vote for a long time which they have achieved new.
  • In India, 1/3rd of seats have been reserved for women in local bodies.
  • Democracy has strengthened the claims of the disadvantaged and discriminated castes for equal status and equal opportunity.
  • Legal basis which works on the principle of individual freedom and dignity.


Q50: Evidence shows that in practice, many democracies did not fulfil the expectation of producing economic development in the country. Validate the statement with the help of a relevant example.   (CBSE Sample Paper 2016)

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Ans: If we consider all democracies and all dictatorships for the fifty years between 1950 and 2000, dictatorships have a slightly higher rate of economic growth.
Economic development depends on several factors: country’s population size, global situation, cooperation from other countries, economic priorities adopted by the country, etc.
However, the difference in the rates of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorships and democracies is negligible. Overall, it cannot be said that democracy is a guarantee of economic development But we can expect democracy not to lag behind dictatorships in this respect.
When such a significant difference in the rates of ectopic growth between countries under dictatorship and democracy, it is better to prefer democracy as it has several other positive outcomes.


Q51: “A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project.” Justify the statement.   (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: “A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project”:

  • As democracy passes one test, it produces another test. As people get some benefits of democracy they ask for more and want to make democracy even better.
  • That is why when we ask people about the way democracy functions, they will always come up with more expectations, and many complaints.
  • The fact that people are complaining is itself a testimony to the success of democracy; it shows that people have developed awareness and the ability to expect and to look critically at power holders and the high and the mighty.
  • A public expression of dissatisfaction with democracy shows the success of the democratic project; it transforms people from the states into citizens.
  • Most individuals today believe that their vote makes a difference to the way the government is run and to their own self-interest.


Q52: Mention any two common features of democratic politics.  (CBSE 2016, 12)

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Ans: Features of a democratic government are: 
(1) Free and fair elections are organised. 
(2) The principle of ‘one person, one vote, one value’ is followed.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q53: What is meant by transparency? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Transparency means that every citizen belonging to any democratic country has the right to information, the right to examine or investigate whether the laws, plans, action, policies or decisions taken by the government are correct or are beneficial to them or not.


Q54: How does democracy produce an accountable government? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Democracy produces an accountable government by giving the citizen the right to examine the process by which decisions are made


Q55: Democracy accommodates the social diversities. Support the statement with examples. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Democracy accommodates social diversities and this can be asserted as follows: (1) Democracies develop a procedure to conduct their competition. This reduces the possibility of these social conflicts or tensions becoming explosive or violent. (2) A democratic society learns to respect these differences and can evolve a mechanism to negotiate these differences. (3)     Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts is a benefit of democratic regimes.

04. Previous Year Questions: Political Parties

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Which of the following are the main components of a political party? Choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

I. Leaders
II. Active members
III. Followers
IV. Pressure groups
(a) 
Only I, II, and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (a) Only I, II, and III are correct.
According to the chapter, a political party has three main components — the leaders, the active members, and the followers. Pressure groups are not a component of a political party; they are separate organisations that may be extensions of parties.


Q2: Explain the importance of political parties in democracy.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Political parties are essential for the working of democracy because they perform vital functions such as:

  • Contesting Elections: Parties put up candidates and fight elections to fill political offices and exercise power.
  • Policy Making: They put forward different policies and programmes, allowing voters to choose between alternatives.
  • Forming and Running Governments: The party that wins forms the government, while others play the role of opposition by criticising the government and mobilising opposition.
  • Shaping Public Opinion: Parties raise and highlight issues, helping people form opinions on various matters.
  • Providing Access to Government: Parties act as a link between the people and the government by addressing people’s needs and demands.

In summary: Political parties are necessary because they make representative democracy work effectively and ensure that governments are accountable to the people.


Q3: Why did India adopt the multiparty system? Explain with suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: India adopted a multiparty system because of its social and geographical diversity and large population. The reasons are:

  1. Diverse Society: India has a vast variety of religions, languages, regions, and cultures. This diversity cannot be represented by just two or three parties.
  2. Representation of Different Interests: A multiparty system allows different opinions and regional interests to have political representation.
  3. Historical and Political Evolution: India’s party system evolved naturally from its political and social conditions, not by choice.


Q4: Describe three main functions of political parties.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The three main functions of political parties are:

  1. Contesting Elections: Political parties nominate candidates to contest elections and seek to win popular support to form the government.
  2. Policy Formulation: Parties put forward different policies and programmes, and the voters choose from them. The ruling party then frames laws and policies based on its ideology.
  3. Forming and Running Governments: The winning party forms the government, while the opposition parties criticise the government and offer alternative policies.


Q5: Describe three major challenges faced by political parties in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The three major challenges faced by political parties in India are:

  1. Lack of Internal Democracy: Power is concentrated in the hands of a few leaders. Ordinary members are not consulted in decision-making, and internal elections are rarely held.
  2. Dynastic Succession: Top positions are often controlled by members of one family, which is unfair to other members and weakens democracy.
  3. Use of Money and Muscle Power: Parties nominate candidates who can raise or spend large amounts of money, and sometimes support criminals to win elections.


Q6: To reform the party system, which of the following tasks have been made compulsory for political parties? Choose the most appropriate option:  (1 Mark)
I. It is now compulsory for all political parties to file income tax returns.
II. It is now compulsory for all parties to have one-third women candidates.
III. It is now compulsory for all political parties to hold their organizational election.
IV. It is now compulsory for all candidates to disclose information about pending criminal cases against them through affidavit.
(a)
 Only I, II, and III are correct.
(b) Only I, II, and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
(d) Only II, III, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

According to the chapter, the Election Commission has made it compulsory for political parties to hold organisational elections and file income tax returns, while the Supreme Court has made it mandatory for every candidate to file an affidavit giving details of property and criminal cases. There is no law making one-third women candidates compulsory.


Q7: Describe any three features of the multiparty system.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The three features of the multiparty system are:

  • Competition Among Several Parties: More than two parties compete for power, and several of them have a reasonable chance of forming the government.
  • Coalition Governments: When no single party gets a majority, different parties join together to form an alliance or front to run the government.
  • Representation of Diversity: This system allows various interests, opinions, and social groups to be represented in the political process, reflecting the country’s diversity.


Q8: Which of the following statements are correct related to the role of political parties in India?  (1 Mark)
I. Play a decisive role in making laws for the country.
II. Making different interest groups in the country.
III. Play a role in shaping public opinion in the country.
IV. Pulling forward different policies and programs before voters.
(a) 
Only I, II, and III are correct.
(b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
(c) Only II, III, and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

Political parties play a decisive role in making lawsshape public opinion, and put forward different policies and programmes before voters. They do not create different interest groups — those are usually formed separately or as extensions of parties.


Q9: Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
The Need for Political Parties
As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy. As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government. They needed some ways to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed. They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them. Political parties fulfill these needs that every representative government has. We can say that parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.

(i) Explain the meaning of ‘representative democracy’.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Representative democracy is a system where people elect their representatives to make laws, form policies, and run the government on their behalf.

(ii) How do political parties shape public opinion?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Political parties shape public opinion by raising and highlighting issues, conducting movements, and spreading their views among the people through their large network of members and activists.

(iii) Why are political parties considered a necessary condition for a democracy? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Political parties are necessary because they bring together different views from society, present them to the government, and help form a responsible government. They act as a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them — fulfilling essential needs of a representative democracy.


Q10: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Assertion (A): Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission.
Reason (R): The Government provides election symbols to all political parties in India.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

Every political party in India must register with the Election Commission — this is correct. However, it is the Election Commission, not the government, that provides election symbols to political parties. Therefore, the reason is false.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: How do Political Parties ensure accountability to the public? Choose the most suitable option from the following.    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a)
 Through Press Conferences
(b) Through Social Media Campaigns
(c) Through encouraging Partisanship
(d) Through Elections and Voter Support

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Ans: (d)
Elections are the primary means by which political parties are held accountable to the public. Voters are able to assess the candidates’ performance and decide whether or not to endorse them based on their deeds and statements.


Q2: Describe any three functions of the Political Parties.    (3 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Functions of Political Parties are: 
(1) They contest election.
(2) They put forward different policies and programmes.
(3) Parties form and run the government.
(4) Parties that lose in the election play the role of opposition.
(5) They shape public opinion.
(6) They provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Which one of the following countries has two party system?    (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 
China
(b) 
Russia
(c) 
America
(d) 
India

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Ans: (c)
The United States operates under a two-party system, primarily dominated by the Democratic Party and the Republican Party. This means that most elections are primarily contested between these two parties, making it easier for voters to choose between two distinct options. In contrast, other countries like China and Russia have different political systems, and India has multiple parties, which is known as a multi-party system.


Q4: Explain the merits of Multi Party System.     (3 Marks) (2023)

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Ans: The merits of a multi-party system include:

  • Diverse representation: It allows various interests and opinions to participate in politics.
  • Inclusivity: In a diverse country, this system addresses the needs of different sections of society.


Q5: Analyze the need of Political Parties in the Democracy.  (3 Marks) (CBSE 2023)
OR
Describe the roles of Political Parties in India. (CBSE 2014)

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Ans: The need of political parties in a democracy are as follows: 
(1) Parties contest elections. In most democracies, elections are fought mainly among the candidates put up by political parties. 
(2) Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. They mould public opinion. 
(3) Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q6: Differentiate between ruling and opposition parties.     (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: The ruling party is the political party that wins elections and forms the government. It is responsible for making and implementing policies.

In contrast, the opposition party consists of those parties that do not achieve a majority in the elections. Their role includes:

  • Critiquing the government’s decisions and policies.
  • Voicing alternative views and concerns.
  • Mobilising public opinion against the ruling party.


Q7: Why has India adopted a multi-party system? Explain.     (Term-ll, 2021-22, Foreign 2017, Al 2016)

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Ans: India has adopted a multi-party system due to its vast social and geographical diversity. This system allows for a range of interests and opinions to be represented in politics. 
Key reasons include:

  • The large population and varied cultures make it difficult for just one or two parties to represent everyone.
  • A multi-party system encourages political representation for different groups.
  • It allows for the formation of alliances among parties, which can lead to more stable governance.

Overall, this system reflects the complex nature of Indian society and ensures that multiple voices are heard in the political arena.


Q8: How do political parties shape public opinion?    (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: Political parties shape public opinion in the following ways:

  • Highlighting issues: They raise awareness about various social and political issues.
  • Membership influence: With a large number of members across the country, parties often form pressure groups that represent different societal sections, helping to shape public views.
  • Launching movements: Parties sometimes initiate movements to address problems faced by the public.
  • Access to government: They provide citizens easier access to government services and welfare schemes, making it simpler to approach local party leaders than government officials.


Q9: Explain how the rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies.     (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: The rise of political parties is closely linked to the development of representative democracies. As societies grow and become more complex, they require effective governance. 
Here are key points illustrating this connection:

  • Political parties serve as a foundation for representative government.
  • They collect and express public opinions on important issues.
  • Parties unite various representatives, enabling them to support or challenge the government.
  • They help formulate policies and communicate these to the public, based on their political ideologies.
  • These functions are essential for the healthy functioning of representative democracies.

Thus, political parties are vital for the establishment and maintenance of a representative democratic system.


Q10: Explain any three features of a ‘one-party system’.    (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: Three features of one party system are as follows: 
(i) Only one party is allowed to control and rule the government. There is no change of government and power is concentrated in the hands of the party leader.
(ii) In this system electoral politics does not permit free competition for power.
(iii) There is absence of the checks and balances provided by democratic government.


Q11: “Political parties have become omnipresent in democracies all over the world.” Explain the statement with examples.     (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: We need political parties because of the functions that the political parties perform:
(i) They contest in elections.
(ii) They put forward different policies and programme for the betterment of society.
(iii) They play a decisive role in the making of laws that affect each of us.
(iv) They form and run the government.
(v) They play the role of opposition to the ruling party.
(vi) They shape public opinion, as they raise and highlight issues.
(vii) They provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by the government.


Q12: Describe the role of political parties in Indian democracy.    (Term-ll, 2021-22 C, 2020 C)

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Ans: Indian democracy has a multi-party system, political parties perform a series of functions to strengthen our democracy in the following manners:
(i) Contesting elections : Political parties contest elections; A political party nominates its candidate for the electoral contest in various constituencies. This provides a variety of choice of personalities for the people to vote for.
(ii) Policies : Political parties put forward different policies and programmes so that the voters can choose from amongst them. A political party brings a large number of similar opinions under one umbrella. These opinions are channelised to form policies and programmes. The policies and programmes of the ruling party generally become the government policies.
(iii) Making law : Political parties play a decisive role in making laws for the country that benefits the v/hole population.
(iv) Playing opposition : A party which does not get majority or does not come under the majority coalition, needs to play the role of opposition. This forms the basis of checks and balances in a democracy.
(v) Shaping public opinion: Political parties shape public opinion. They do so by raising and highlighting issues in the legislature and in the media.
(vi) Providing access to government machinery: Political parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments. Parties need to be responsive to people’s needs and demands thus bring good governance. 

Political parties are as easily one of the most visible institutions in a democracy. For most ordinary citizens, democracy is equal to political parties.


Q13: “There are various reforms taken to strengthen parties in India so that they perform their function well.” Explain the statement with examples.    (Term-II,2021-22)

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Ans:  To strengthen political parties in India and enhance their functioning, several reforms have been implemented.
Here are some examples:
(i) Transparency and Accountability: Requiring political parties to disclose their funding sources and expenditures to ensure transparency and accountability. For example, the Election Commission of India has introduced guidelines for parties to submit annual audited reports.
(ii) Internal Democracy: Encouraging parties to adopt internal democratic processes such as holding regular elections for party leadership positions. This promotes inclusivity and fairness within the party structure.
(iii) Anti-defection Law: Implementing the Anti-defection law to prevent elected representatives from switching parties indiscriminately, thus promoting stability and party discipline.
(iv) State Funding of Elections: Providing state funding for elections to reduce the influence of money power and promote a level playing field for all parties, especially smaller ones with limited resources.
(v) Electoral Reforms: Introducing reforms like electronic voting machines (EVMs) to ensure free and fair elections, reducing malpractices and enhancing the credibility of the electoral process.
(vi) Strengthening Election Commission: Empowering the Election Commission to regulate and oversee the conduct of elections impartially, ensuring that parties adhere to the set guidelines and rules.
These reforms aim to strengthen political parties in India, enabling them to fulfill their functions effectively and serve the interests of the public better.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q14: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:    (2021 C)
Democracies that follow a federal system all over the world tend to have two kinds of political parties : parties that are present in only one of the federal units and parties that are present in several or all units of the federation. This is the case in India as well. There are some countrywide parties, which are called ‘national parties’. These parties have their units in various states. But by and large, all these units follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
Every party in the country has to register with the Election Commission. While the Commission treats all parties equally, it offers some special facilities to large and established parties. These parties are given a unique symbol – only the official candidates of that party can use that election symbol. Parties that get this privilege and some other special facilities are ‘recognised’ by the Election Commission for this purpose. That is why these parties are called, ‘recognised political parties’. The Election Commission has laid down detailed criteria of the proportion of votes and seats that a party must get in order to be a recognised party. A party that secures at least 6 percent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party. A party that secures at least six percent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a National party.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:

(i) Which one of the following is a National party?
(a)
 Bharatiya Janata Party
(b) Samajwadi Party
(c) Shiv Sena
(d) Shiromani Akali Dal

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Ans: (a) 
The Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) is recognized as a national party in India because it has a presence in multiple states and follows a unified policy and strategy set at the national level. It meets the criteria laid out by the Election Commission, which includes securing a specific percentage of votes and winning a certain number of seats in elections. In contrast, the other options, like the Samajwadi Party, Shiv Sena, and Shiromani Akali Dal, are primarily focused on specific states and do not have the same national reach.

(ii) Which of the following is not a regional party?   [Old NCERT]
(a) 
Jharkhand Mukti Morcha
(b) Asom Gana Parishad
(c) Indian National Congress
(d) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

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Ans: (c)
The Indian National Congress (INC) is not a regional party because it operates across the entire country and has units in multiple states. In contrast, the other options like Jharkhand Mukti Morcha, Asom Gana Parishad, and Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam are regional parties that primarily focus on specific areas or states in India.

(iii) Where does every political party have to register in India?
(a) 
Government of India
(b) NITI Aayog
(c) Election Commission
(d) Law Commisssion

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Ans: (c)
In India, every political party must register with the Election Commission. This ensures that the party is recognized officially and can participate in elections. The Election Commission regulates the conduct of elections and maintains a fair electoral process in the country.

(iv) When a party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats of Lok Sabha, it is recognised as a :
(a) 
Regional Party
(b) National Party
(c) Pressure Group
(d) Business Organisation

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Ans: (b)
A party is recognized as a National Party in India if it secures at least 6% of the total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four states and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha. This recognition allows the party to have certain privileges, like using a unique election symbol across the country.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q15: Give one technical term for the following statement: “A person who is strongly committed to a party or group.”  (2020 C)

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Ans: Partisan 

partisan is someone who is strongly committed to a specific party or group. This commitment often leads to:

  • A tendency to take a side on issues.
  • An inability to view matters from a balanced perspective.

Partisanship can influence political dynamics, as it reflects loyalty to particular policies and interests.


Q16: Describe the role of political parties in Indian democracy.    (Term-ll, 2021-22 C, 2020 C)

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Ans: Indian democracy operates within a multi-party system, where political parties play essential roles to enhance democratic governance. 
Their functions include:

  • Contesting elections: Political parties nominate candidates for elections, providing voters with diverse choices.
  • Formulating policies: They present various policies and programmes, allowing voters to select options that reflect their views. This helps consolidate similar opinions into coherent policies.
  • Making laws: Political parties are crucial in the legislative process, contributing to laws that benefit the entire population.
  • Opposition role: Parties not in the majority serve as the opposition, ensuring checks and balances within the government.
  • Shaping public opinion: They influence public discourse by raising important issues in both the legislature and media.
  • Access to government: Political parties facilitate citizens’ access to government services and welfare schemes, promoting good governance.

Political parties are among the most visible institutions in a democracy. For many citizens, the concept of democracy is closely linked to the presence and actions of political parties.


Q17: Define the term ‘Political Party’. Explain with examples the need for political parties in India.   (2020)

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Ans: Political parties: A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. 
Need of Political Parties in India:
(i) The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies.
(ii) As societies became large and complex, they also needed some agency to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government.
(iii) They needed some ways, to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed.
(iv) They needed a mechanism to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them.
(v) Political parties fulfill these needs that every representative government has.


Q18: Correct the following statement and rewrite it: Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was formed under the leadership of Mayawati.    (2020)

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Ans: 

  • The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) was established in 1984 under the leadership of Kanshi Ram.
  • It aims to represent the interests of the Bahujan Samaj, which includes DalitsAdivasisOBCs, and religious minorities.
  • The party draws inspiration from leaders such as Sahu MaharajMahatma PhulePeriyar Ramaswami Naicker, and Babasaheb Ambedkar.
  • Its focus is on securing the rights and welfare of the oppressed communities.
  • The BSP has a strong presence in Uttar Pradesh and neighbouring states like Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.


Q19: Suggest any one way to make political parties more responsive to people’s needs and demands. (CBSE 2020, 15)

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Ans: Political parties can be made more responsive through organised petitions, agitations and publicity by various groups. 
Explanation: This shall make political parties pay more attention to people’s needs to secure their support.


Q20: Suggest any one way to promote public participation in political parties for enhancing the quality of democracy. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Following are the ways in which public participation in political parties can be promoted: 
(1) Parties should make their election process more transparent and elect more candidates from among the common people. 
(2) Various platforms like social media can be used to allocate them small responsibilities to maintain their interest in party activities.

Also read: PPT: Political Parties

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q21: Explain the three components of a political party.      (CBSE Delhi 2019 (32/1/2) 

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Ans: 


The three components of a political party are as follows:

  • The Leaders: The leaders are the ones who hold positions of power at various levels in the sphere of politics. They belong to different political parties. The leaders of the ruling party are responsible for the impact of various policies and processes and address issues of the people time and again.
  • The Active members: Political parties comprise lakhs of members and political activists across the entire nation. They play an important role in promoting the agenda of the party including a focus on issues and various policies and party leadership.
  • The Followers: The followers of a political party are the supporters of the ideas and agenda of that particular political party. They are the citizens of the general public who strongly believe in the ideas and approaches of the party and extend their support to the party, especially during elections.

Note: A political party is a group of people with similar ideologies who come together to form an organization in order to contest elections and hold power in the government.


Q22: How are Political parties recognised as regional and National parties in India?    (CBSE Delhi 2019)

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Ans: India has a multi-party system, where political parties are classified as national, state or regional level parties. All parties are registered with the Election Commission.
The criterion for Recognition by The Election Commission as national or state-level parties.

National Party:
(i) A party that secures at least six per cent of total votes in Lok Sabha elections or Assembly elections in four States and wins at least four seats in the Lok Sabha is recognised as a national part.
(ii) Now, India has seven recognised national parties.
(iii) Indian National Congress, Bhartiya Janta Party.

State Party:
(i) A party that secures at least 6 per cent of the total votes in an election to the Legislative Assembly of a State and wins at least two seats is recognised as a State party.
(ii) There are 54, state recognised parties in India.
(iii) Biju Janta Dal, Mizo National Front


Q23: Define the two-party system. Explain its advantages and disadvantages. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Two party system: In a democratic system power usually changes between two main parties, several other parties may exists but only the two main parties have a serious chance of winning majority of seats to form government is known as Two Party System.
Advantages: 
(1) Several other parties contest election. 
(2) Clarity of manifestoes and programs. 
Disadvantages: 
(1) Limited choice to the voters. 
(2) Limited representation.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q24: Political parties fill political offices and exercise political power. But they do this by performing a series of important functions. Describe any five of them.  [CBSE 2018]
Or 
Describe the role of political parties in a democratic state. [CBSE 2017-18]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Political parties play a crucial role in democracies by performing several important functions:

  • Contest elections: Political parties field candidates to compete in elections, allowing voters to choose from various options.
  • Formulate policies: They present different policies and programmes, helping to group similar opinions and guide government direction.
  • Opposition role: Parties that do not win elections serve as the opposition, critiquing the government and highlighting its failures.
  • Shape public opinion: Political parties raise and focus on issues that matter to the public, influencing societal views and discussions.
  • Access to government: They provide citizens with easier access to government services and welfare schemes, making it simpler for people to voice their concerns.


Q25: Illustrate the situations which display lack of internal democracy within a political party. (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: Situations which display lack of internal democracy within a political party: 
(1) Parties do not keep membership registers, do not hold organisational meetings, and do not conduct internal elections regularly. 
(2) Ordinary members of the party do not get sufficient information on what happens inside the party. 
(3) They do not have the means or the connections needed to influence the decisions. As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party. 
(4) Since one or few leaders exercise paramount power in the party, those who disagree with the leadership find it difficult to continue in the party. 
(5) More than loyalty to party principles and policies, personal loyalty to the leader becomes more important.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q26: Which organization does recognize ‘Political Parties in India?    (CBSE 2017, 11)

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Ans: The Election Commission of India is responsible for the task of recognizing political parties in India. Every party in India has to register with the Election Commission and it also lays down detailed criteria for state as well as national level parties to qualify as a particular ‘party.’


Q27: Name any two regional political parties of U.P. (Uttar Pradesh).     (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Two Regional Political Parties of UP:

  • Samajwadi Party (S.P.)
  • Rashtriya Lok Dal (R.L.D.)


Q28: Assess the importance of political parties in a democracy.     (CBSE (F) 2017)

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Ans: Importance of Political Parties:

  • Parties contest elections to form a government.
  • Parties put forward different policies and programmes and the voters choose from them.
  • A party reduces a vast multitude of opinions into a few basic positions which it supports.
  • Parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country.
  • Parties recruit leaders, trains them and then make them ministers to run the Government.
  • Parties provide people access to government machinery and welfare schemes implemented by governments.


Q29: “Political Parties are a necessary condition for a democracy.” Analyse the statement with examples.     (CBSE (Comptt) 2017)

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Ans: Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy: If political parties don’t exist then:

  • Every candidate in the elections will be independent.
  • No one will be able to make any promise to the people about any major policy changes. 
  • The government may be formed, but its utility will remain ever uncertain.
  • Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in the locality.
  • No one will be responsible for how the country will be run.
  • Political parties are important for representative democracies as they bring representatives together to form the government.
  • It consists of people seeking to achieve their objectives through constitutional means and aims at promoting national interest.


Q30: Why did India choose to have a multi-party system?
OR
Examine the reason to accept a multi-party system in India.     (CBSE (F) 2017)

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Ans: India adopted multi-party system because

  • It strengthens democracy.
  • India is geographically a very large country.
  • India is socially a very diverse country.
  • India is culturally and religiously a diverse country.
  • All these diversities can be accommodated if there is a multi-party system and just 1 party or 2 party system will not help in more representation and participation of people in democratic processes.


Q31: Elucidate some of the recent efforts taken in our country to reform political parties and their leaders.     (CBSE Delhi 2017)
OR
Examine any two institutional amendments made by different institutions to reform political parties and their leaders.     (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans:

  • The Constitution was amended to prevent elected MLAs and MPs from changing parties. This was done because many elected representatives were indulging in DEFECTION in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. Now, if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. 
  • The Supreme Court passed an order to reduce the influence of money and criminals. Now, it is mandatory for every candidate who contests elections to file an AFFIDAVIT giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. The new system has made a lot of information available to the public. But there is no system of check if the information given by the candidates is true. 
  • The Election Commission passed an order making it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax; returns. The parties have started doing so but sometimes it is a mere formality. It is not clear if this step has led to greater internal democracy in political parties.


Q32: Describe in brief the recent efforts that have been made in India to reform political parties and their leaders.     (CBSE 2016-17C)

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Ans: Recent efforts to reform political parties and their leaders are as given below:

  • Anti-defection law: In India, many elected representatives started indulging in changing party allegiance from the party to which a person had got elected to a different party in order to become ministers or for cash rewards. So in order to curb this tendency, anti-defection law was passed. According to it, if any MLA or MP changes parties, he or she will lose the seat in the legislature. Now MPs and MLAs have to obey the decisions of the party.
  • Filing of an affidavit: The Supreme Court has made it mandatory for every candidate who contests an election to file an affidavit giving details of his property and criminal cases pending against him. This has been done to reduce the influence of money and criminals.
  • Hold organisational elections: The Election Commission has made it necessary for political parties to hold their organisational elections and file their income tax returns.


Q33: How can the growing role of money and muscle power in political parties be controlled? Suggest any three measures. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The growing role of money and muscle power in political parties can be controlled in the following ways: 
(1) There should be state funding of elections. 
(2) Rath yatras, rallies and processions should be banned. 
(3) All types of elections should be held at the same time. 
(4) It should be mandatory for every candidate contesting elections to file an affidavit giving details of his/her property and criminal cases pending against him/her, if any. 
(5) Political parties should hold their organisational elections and file their income tax returns


Q34: Explain any three recent efforts made to reform political parties in India. (CBSE 2017, 11)
OR
Suggest any three reforms to make political parties more democratic. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Recent efforts made to reform political parties in India are: 
(1) Anti-defection law has been introduced, under which a member can be disqualified if he/she goes against the instructions issued by the party for monetary benefits. 
(2) To reduce the influence of money and muscle power in the parties, funding of political parties has been made transparent and democratic. Funds can only be accepted if complete documentation has been attached and miscreants are likely to be punished. 
(3) It is mandatory for any candidate to file an affidavit giving details of his property and cases pending against him/her before nomination.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q35: Why is a one-party system not considered a good democratic system?    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: A one-party system is not seen as a good democratic system for several reasons:

  • It limits political competition, preventing alternative viewpoints.
  • There is a lack of accountability and transparency in governance.
  • Healthy democracies require multiple parties to foster debate and represent diverse interests.

In contrast, systems with multiple parties encourage a broader range of opinions and choices.


Q36: Name any one political party that has a national-level political organization but is not recognized as the national political party.    (Al 2016)

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Ans: Samajwadi Party, Samata Party, Rashtriya Janata Dal


Q37: Name the alliance formed by the Congress Party.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: The alliance formed by the Congress Party is known as the United Progressive Alliance (UPA).


Q38: Which party was the principal opposition party in Lok Sabha in 2004?    (2016)  [Old NCERT]

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Ans: The principal opposition party in the Lok Sabha in 2004 was the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP).


Q39: What are the components of a political party?       (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: The components of a political party include:

  • Leaders: They create the party’s policies and select candidates for elections.
  • Active members: These individuals engage in various party committees and participate in activities.
  • Followers: Supporters who believe in the party’s ideology and vote for it during elections.


Q40: Name any one political party that has a national-level political organisation but not recognised as the national political party. (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: State parties like the Samajwadi Party, Samata party and Rashtriya Janata Dal have National level political organisations with units in several States but are not recognised as national parties.


Q41: Why is a one-party political system not considered a good democratic system?     (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: The one-party political system is not considered a good democratic system for several reasons:

  • It lacks democratic choice, as there is no competition for power.
  • Democracy requires at least two parties to compete in elections.
  • In a healthy democracy, multiple parties should have a fair chance to gain power.
  • Countries like the United States and the United Kingdom exemplify a two-party system.
  • multiparty system, like in India, allows several parties to compete for power.
  • In a one-party system, such as in China, only one party controls the government, limiting political freedom.


Q42: What is meant by a ‘national political party? State the conditions required to be a national political party.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: National Political Party has units in the various states, they follow the same policies, programmes and strategy that is decided at the national level.
Conditions required:
(i) A party that secures at least 6% of the total votes in general elections of Lok Sabha or assembly elections in four states.
(ii) Wins at least 4 seats in Lok Sabha.


Q43: “Nearly every one of the state parties wants to get an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national-level coalition.” Support the statement with arguments.     (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: State parties seeking National level coalition: Before the general election of 2014, in three general elections, no one national party was able to secure on its own a majority in Lok Sabha. As a result, the national parties were compelled to form alliances with state or regional parties. Since 1996, nearly every one of the state parties has got an opportunity to be a part of one or the other national-level coalition government. This has contributed to the strengthening of federalism and democracy.


Q44: What is meant by a regional political party? State the conditions required to be recognised as a ‘regional political party.    (CBSE (Al) 2016) 

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Ans: A regional Party is a party that is present only in some states. Conditions required for a party to be recognised as a regional political party are:

  • Regional political party (or state party) is a party that has its presence only in one or some states.
  • The regional parties may not always be regional in their ideology or outlook. Examples of some regional parties with units in several states include Samajwadi Party, Samata Party, Rashtriya Janata Dal etc. Parties such as Biju Janata Dal or Mizo National Front are conscious about their state identity.
  • According to the criteria laid down by the Election Commission, a party that secures at least six per cent of the total votes in an election to the legislative assembly of a state and wins at least two seats is recognized as a state party.


Q45: What is a political party? State any two points of the ideology of the Bhartiya Janata Party.      (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: political party is a group of individuals who unite to contest elections and gain power in the government. They share common policies and programmes aimed at promoting the collective good of society.

The ideology of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) includes:

  • Full territorial and political integration of Jammu and Kashmir with India.
  • A uniform civil code for all citizens, regardless of religion.
  • Emphasis on cultural nationalism.


Q46: Why did India adopt a multi-party system?     (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: India has adopted a multi-party systemdue to its vast size and diverse society. 
Here are key reasons:

  • Social Diversity: India is home to various cultures, languages, and religions, making it challenging for just two or three parties to represent all interests.
  • Geographical Diversity: The country’s varied geography contributes to different regional issues, necessitating multiple parties to address these effectively.
  • Political Representation: A multi-party system allows for a broader range of opinions and interests to be represented in government.

This system can lead to coalitions where parties join forces to form a government, reflecting the complex political landscape of India.


Q47: “All over the world, people express their dissatisfaction with the failure of political parties to perform their functions well.” Analyse the statement with arguments.     (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Popular dissatisfaction and criticism: It has focused on four areas in the working of political parties, need to face and overcome these challenges in order to remain effective instruments of democracy. Lack of internal democracy within parties.

  • Dynastic succession: Since most political parties do not practice open transparent procedures for their functioning, there are very few ways for an ordinary worker to rise to the top in a party. Those who happen to be leaders are in a position of unfair advantage to favour people close to them or even their family member.
  • The growing role of money and muscle power in parties: Since parties are focused only on mining elections, they land to use shortcuts to win elections. They feed to nominate those considers who have or can raise a lot of mercy. Rich people and companies who give funds to the parties tend to have an influence on the policies and decisions of the party. In some cases, parties support climates that can win an election.
  • There is not a meaningful choice to the voters: In recent years there has been a decline in the ideological parties of the world. Sometimes different leaders either because shifting from one party to another.


Q48: What suggestions are often made to reform political parties?
OR
Suggest any five effective measures to reform political parties.     (CBSE (AI) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • A law should be made to regulate the internal affairs of political parties. It should be made compulsory for political parties to maintain a register of its members, to follow its own constitution, to act as a judge in case of party disputes and to hold open elections to the highest post.”
  • It should be made mandatory for political parties to give a minimum number of tickets, about one-third to the women candidates. 
  • There should be state funding for elections. The government should give parties money to support their election expenses. This support can be given in a way like; petrol, paper, telephone, etc. Or, it could be given in cash on the basis of votes, secured by the party in the last elections. It should be mandatory to hold their organisational elections. 
  • People can put pressure on political parties through petitions, publicity and agitation. 
  • Parties should reduce the influence of money and criminals. 
  • The parties should select candidates for contesting elections who have a good record.


Q49: “Political parties are a necessary condition for a democracy”. Analyse the statement with examples.    (CBSE (AI) 2016)
OR

“About hundred years ago there were a few countries that had hardly any political party. Now, there are a few countries that do not have political parties .” Examine this statement.

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Ans: Political parties are a necessary condition for democracy.

  • Without political parties, democracies cannot exist.
  • If we do not have political parties – in such a situation every candidate in elections will be independent.
  • No one will be able to make any promises to the people about any major policy changes.
  • The rise of political parties is directly linked to the emergence of representative democracies. As we have seen, large societies need representative democracy.
  • The government may be formed but its utility will remain uncertain. They needed some ways to bring various representatives together so that a responsible government could be formed.
  • They needed some mechanisms to support or restrain the government, make policies, justify or oppose them.
  • Elected representatives will be accountable to their constituency for what they do in their locality.
  • Political parties play a decisive role in making laws for a country. Formally laws are debated and passed in the legislature in which the ruling party plays a major role.
  • Parties form and run governments. Parties recruit leaders, train them and then make them ministers to run the government in the way they want.
  • Those parties that lose in the elections play the role of opposition to the parties in power, by voicing different views and criticising for its failure or wrong policies.
  • Parties shape public opinions. They raise and highlight issues. Parties have lakhs of members and activists spread all over the country. Parties sometimes also launch movements for the resolution of problems faced by people.
  • But no one will be responsible for how the country will run.
  • The role of the opposition party in a democracy necessitates the existence of political parties,
  • As societies become large and complex, they also needed some agencies to gather different views on various issues and to present these to the government, that is why political parties are needed.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q50: “Lack of internal democracy within parties is the major challenge to political parties all over the world.” Analyse the statement. (CBSE 2015)
Or 

In what way lack of internal democracy is seen in the political parties?

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Ans:

  • All over the world, there is a tendency of political parties towards the concentration of power in one or few leaders at the top. 
  • Parties do not keep membership register. 
  • They do not regularly hold organisational meetings. 
  • They do not conduct internal elections regularly. 
  • Ordinary members of the party do not have sufficient information as to what happens inside the party. 
  • As a result, the leaders assume greater power to make decisions in the name of the party.


Q51: What is the multi-party system? Why did India adopt a multi-party system?      (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Multi-party system: A multi-party system exists when several political parties compete for power, and more than two parties have a realistic chance of winning either independently or through alliances.

Reasons for India’s multi-party system:

  • Each country develops a party system based on its unique circumstances.
  • India’s vast social and geographical diversity cannot be effectively represented by just two or three parties.


Q52: Why do political parties involve partisanship? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Parties follow different ideologies and people who support these ideologies passionately are its supporters. These supporters work hard to prove that their political party and its ideology is the only correct and ideal approach towards development of the country. In this process, they become staunch supporters of their parties which is called being a partisan.

Also read: PPT: Political Parties

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q53: Describe any three functions of the Political Parties. (CBSE 2014)

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Ans: Functions of Political Parties are: 
(1) They contest election. 
(2) They put forward different policies and programmes. 
(3) Parties form and run the government


Q54: Name the “Regional political parties” that are predominant in Jharkhand, Maharashtra and in Odisha respectively with their symbols. (CBSE 2014)

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Ans: The “Regional political parties” that are predominant in Jharkhand, Maharashtra and in Odisha respectively with their symbols are:

Previous Year Questions 2013

Q55: Name the national political party which espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Mention any four features of that party. (CBSE 2013)

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Ans: Indian National Congress (INC) espouses secularism and welfare of weaker sections and minorities. Four features of the party are as follows:

  • Commitment to Secularism: The party promotes harmony among different religions and ensures equality irrespective of religious or cultural differences.
  • Focus on Welfare of Weaker Sections: The INC advocates for policies aimed at uplifting marginalized groups, such as Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, and minorities, through reservations, scholarships, and welfare schemes.
  • Support for Economic Reforms with Social Justice: The party supports liberalization and privatization while balancing the interests of weaker sections through programs aimed at poverty alleviation and rural development.
  • Advocacy of Democratic Values: The INC emphasizes democratic principles, striving for a fair and inclusive political environment within its party framework and in governance

03. Previous Year Questions: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Decentralisation in India
The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

(i) At how many levels has decentralisation of power been done in the Indian Constitution? (1 Mark)

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Ans: Decentralisation of power has been done at three levels — the Union Government, the State Governments, and the local governments (Panchayats and Municipalities). 

(ii) Explain the role of local self-government in solving problems.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Local self-government plays an important role in solving problems because people have better knowledge of local issues and can decide how to spend money and manage things efficiently. It allows direct participation of people in decision-making.

(iii) “Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.” Explain the statement.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Local government enables people to participate directly in decision-making about issues that affect their daily lives. It helps inculcate a habit of democratic participation and ensures that governance becomes more accountable and effective at the grassroots level. By empowering people at the village and town level, it fulfils the democratic ideal of self-rule by the people

Q2: Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Concurrent List – Education
(b) Concurrent List – Defence
(c) Concurrent List – Police
(d) Concurrent List – Trade

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Ans: (a)

Education is a subject of common interest to both the Union and State Governments and is therefore included in the Concurrent List. Both can make laws on it, but if there is a conflict, the Union law prevails.


Q3: Choose the correct option related to concurrent list of the Indian Constitution: (1 Mark)
(a) Marriage, Currency, Commerce
(b) Defence, Banking, Education
(c) Agriculture, Trade, Irrigation
(d) Education, Forest, Marriage

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Ans: (d)

The Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State Governments such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption, and succession.


Q4: Choose the correct option related to Union list:  (1 Mark)
(a) Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
(b) Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
(c) Education, Commerce, Banking
(d) Currency, Communication, Defence

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Ans: (d)

The Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications, and currency, on which only the Union Government can make laws.


Q5: Explain the main features of the Indian federal system. (3 Marks)

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Ans: The main features of the Indian federal system are:

  • Two or more levels of government:
    India has a three-tier system — the Union Government, the State Governments, and the Local Governments.
  • Division of powers:
    The Constitution clearly divides powers between the Union and the State Governments through three lists — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • Constitutional authority of each level:
    The existence and authority of each level of government are constitutionally guaranteed, and one level cannot change the powers of the other unilaterally.
  • Independent judiciary:
    Courts, especially the Supreme Court, act as an umpire in case of disputes between different levels of government.
  • Financial autonomy:
    The sources of revenue for each level are clearly specified to ensure financial independence.


Q6: How does the Indian federal structure promote balanced governance across the nation?  (1 Mark)
(a) 
By allowing states to exercise complete autonomy on all issues.
(b) By ensuring a division of power between centre and states.
(c) By allowing all decision-making processes under the Union Government.
(d) By giving more powers to local governments in comparison to states.

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Ans: (b) By ensuring a division of power between centre and states.
India’s federal structure ensures balanced governance by dividing powers between the Union and State Governments through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. This allows both levels to function independently within their own areas of jurisdiction.


Q7: Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Local Self Government
The local government structure goes right up to the district level. A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or block or mandal. The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the zilla (district) parishad. Most members of the zilla parishad are elected. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and some other officials of other district-level bodies are also its members. Zilla parishad chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad. Similarly, local government bodies exist for urban areas as well. Municipalities are set up in towns. Big cities are constituted into municipal corporations. Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives. Municipal chairperson is the political head of the municipality. In a municipal corporation, such an officer is called the mayor. This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world.

(i) Explain the relationship between gram panchayats and panchayat samitis.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form a panchayat samiti (also called block or mandal). The members of the panchayat samiti are elected by all the members of the gram panchayats in that area.

(ii) How is the structure of municipal corporation different from municipality?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: municipality is set up in towns, while a municipal corporation is established in big cities. Both are controlled by elected bodies, but the political head of a municipality is the municipal chairperson, whereas in a municipal corporation it is the mayor.

(iii) How does the local government structure promote democracy? Examine.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Local government promotes democracy by ensuring direct participation of people in decision-making at the village and city levels. It enables citizens to take part in discussions on local issues, helps in better governance, and strengthens the principle of self-government. This deepens democracy and makes it more representative and accountable.

Q8: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
State Reorganisation Commission
“The report of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), was implemented on November 1, 1956. This, in its own time and own way, has also transformed the political and institutional life of the nation. … Gandhi and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be based on a new set of provinces, these based on the principle of language. However, when India was finally free in 1947, it was also divided… Far from undermining Indian unity, linguistic states have helped strengthen it. It has proved to be perfectly consistent to be Kannadiga and Indian, Bengali and Indian, Tamil and Indian, Gujarati and Indian. To be sure, these states based on language sometimes quarrel with one another.

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(i) What promise did Gandhiji make to his followers?  (1 Mark)

Ans: Gandhiji and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be organised into provinces based on the principle of language.

(ii) How did language strengthen the unity of India?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: The creation of linguistic states helped people of the same language live together, making administration easier and more efficient. Instead of dividing the country, it strengthened Indian unity by allowing people to maintain both their regional identity and national identity — for example, being Kannadiga and Indian.

(iii) Mention the names of major language of Kerala and Andhra Pradesh states.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The major language of Kerala is Malayalam, and the major language of Andhra Pradesh is Telugu.


Q9: Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:  (1 Mark)
I. Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
II. Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.
(a) 
Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, III and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, II and IV are correct.

The formation of linguistic states made the country more united and stronger (I)made administration easier (II), and helped in the development and recognition of Indian languages (IV).
It did not weaken the federal structure; instead, it strengthened unity and democracy.


Q10: Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government with examples.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: A federal government divides power between central and regional units, while a unitary government concentrates power at the center.


Q11: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Source: A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(i) Explain the meaning of ‘participatory democracy’. (1 Mark)

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Ans: Participatory democracy means direct involvement of people in the decision-making process of governance. Citizens actively participate in discussions, planning, and budgeting for their local areas. 

(ii) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: The given example defines a decentralised form of government, where power is shared with local bodies and people participate directly in governance. 

(iii) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the example of Brazil.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, a similar system exists through the three-tier structure of local self-government:

  • Gram Panchayat at the village level,
  • Panchayat Samiti or Block/Mandal at the intermediate level, and
  • Zilla Parishad at the district level in rural areas.
    In urban areas, Municipalities and Municipal Corporations function similarly, allowing citizens to participate in decision-making about local issues.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following:    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)

Options:
(a)
 (A)-(IV ), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)- (IV)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)- (IV)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV ), (D)- (III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV ), (C)-(II), (D)- (I) 

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Ans: (b)

(A) Union List – (II) Banking: Banking is primarily managed by the central government, which falls under the Union List.

(B) State List – (III) Police: The police force is a subject that is managed by individual states, so it belongs to the State List.

(C) Concurrent List – (I) Trade Union: Trade unions can be regulated by both the central and state governments, making them a subject in the Concurrent List.

(D) Residuary List – (IV) Internet: The internet is a newer subject not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, thus it falls under the Residuary List where powers are given to the government to legislate on subjects not specified.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:   (4 & 5 Marks) (2023)
Language Diversity of India
How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.
(I) Explain the importance of language diversity in India.
(II) Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.
(III) The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the statement with an example.

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Ans: (i) Importance of Language Diversity in India:

  • India’s vast number of languages contributes to its cultural diversity.
  • This diversity helps to preserve the unique identities of various communities.

(ii) Difference Between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages:

  • Scheduled Languages: There are 22 languages recognised in the Indian Constitution, known as scheduled languages.
  • Non-Scheduled Languages: All other languages not included in this list are referred to as non-scheduled languages.

(iii) Fusion of Languages and Cultural Unity: The statement highlights how the blending of diverse languages and cultures has fostered a shared national identity. For instance, unlike Sri Lanka, Indian leaders have been careful in promoting Hindi, allowing for a more inclusive approach to language use.


Q3: Match Column-A with Column-B and choose the correct option.     (1 Mark) (2023)

(a) I – 4 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2
(b)
 I – 3 , II – 4, III – 1, IV – 2
(c)
 I – 4 , II – 1, III – 3, IV – 2
(d)
 I – 2 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

I. Defence – 2. Union List: Defence is managed by the central government, which is why it falls under the Union List.

II. Police – 3. State List: The police force is a state subject, meaning individual states have the power to legislate on this issue, so it belongs to the State List.

III. Marriage – 1. Concurrent List: Laws regarding marriage can be made by both the central and state governments, which is why it is included in the Concurrent List.

IV. Computer Software – 4. Residual Subjects: Since computer software is a newer subject not specifically mentioned in the Constitution, it falls under the Residual Subjects, allowing the government to make laws on it.


Q4: Match the column – A with column – B and choose the correct option.           (1 Mark) (2023)

(a) I – 4 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2
(b)
 I – 3 , II – 4, III – 1, IV – 2
(c) 
I – 2 , II – 3, III – 1, IV -4
(d)
 I – 4 , II – 2, III – 1, IV – 3

Hide Answer  

Ans:  (c)

(I) Banks – 2. Union List: Banking is primarily managed by the central government, so it falls under the Union List.

(II) Agriculture – 3. State List: Agriculture is mainly regulated by individual states, making it a subject in the State List.

(III) Education – 1. Concurrent List: Education is a subject where both the central and state governments can make laws, which is why it is included in the Concurrent List.

(IV) Computer – 4. Residuary Subjects: The topic of computers is newer and not specifically mentioned in the Constitution, placing it in the Residual Subjects category, allowing the government to legislate on it.


Q5: Identify the administrative level of Indian Government with the help of the information given in the box and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)  (CBSE 2023)
1. Power shared between Central to Local Government.
2. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
3. It is called a three tier government._________
(a)
 Dictatorial System
(b)
 Unitary Federal System
(c)
 Decentralised System
(d)
 Imperialistic System

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Ans: (c)
A Decentralised System means that power and responsibilities are distributed from the central government to local governments, allowing them to make decisions about local matters. In India, this involves a three-tier government structure with the central, state, and local levels, where state governments share powers and revenue with local authorities, enhancing local governance and participation.


Q6: Read the given extract and answer all questions.    (4 Marks) (2023)
DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA

When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called decentralization. The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level. People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides at the local level it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government. The need for decentralisation was recognized in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralize power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and muncipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of State Governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.
(i) Explain Decentralization in democracy.
(ii) Explain the importance of Local self Government in democracy.
(iii) Describe any two steps taken by Indian government for decentralization.

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Ans: (i) Decentralisation in democracy refers to the transfer of power from central and state governments to local governments. This process allows local authorities to address issues more effectively, as they have a better understanding of local problems.
(ii) The importance of local self-government includes:

  • Local issues are often best resolved at the community level.
  • Residents possess better insights into spending priorities and resource management.
  • It encourages direct participation in decision-making, fostering a culture of democratic involvement.

(iii) Two significant steps taken by the Indian government for decentralisation are:

  • Establishment of Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas across all states.
  • Mandatory regular elections for local government bodies, ensuring local representation.
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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q7: Which one of the following countries is the example of Holding together federation?     (2022)
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) U.SA
(d) Switzerland

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Ans: (b)

India is an example of a holding together federation
Here are some key points:

  • In a holding together federation, the central government is typically more powerful than the states.
  • Different states may have unequal powers, with some granted special rights.
  • Other examples include Spain and Belgium.

In contrast, Australia, the USA, and Switzerland are examples of coming together federations.


Q8: Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options.     (2022)  [Old NCERT]
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

In a unitary form of government:

  • The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
  • There is either one level of government or the lower levels follow the orders of the central government.

This means that the central government has the authority to direct provincial or local governments.


Q9: Choose the correct pair among the following:     (2022)  [Old NCERT]
(a) A – 1
(b) B – 2
(c) C – 3
(d) D – 4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Russia, Canada and Argentina are federal countries. China is a unitary country.


Q10: Which of the following countries is an example of ‘coming together federation?   (2022)
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

  • The United States is an example of a ‘coming together’ federation.
  • In this type of federation, constituent states typically have equal power.
  • In contrast, India, Spain, and Belgium represent ‘holding together’ federations.
  • In holding together federations, the central government usually has more power than the states.


Q11: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Commerce
(d) Irrigation

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Communication is included in the Union list


Q12: Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list?    (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Banking
(b) Business
(c) Currency
(d) Communication

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Ans: (b)
Business is included in the State list. Banking, currency and communication are included in the Union list.


Q13: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Agriculture
(d) Marriage

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Concurrent list includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Government. These are education, forest, marriage, adoption and succession.


Q14: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:   (2022)

(a) l – C, II – D, III – B, IV – A
(b)
 I – A, II – B, III -C, IV – D
(c) 
l – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
(d)
 l – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

(I) Union List – D. Defence: Defence is primarily a central government responsibility, so it falls under the Union List.

(II) State List – C. Police: The police force is managed by state governments, which makes it a subject in the State List.

(III) Concurrent List – B. Forest: Forest management can be legislated by both the central and state governments, placing it in the Concurrent List.

(IV) Subsidiary Matters – A. Computer-related matter: Since computer-related issues are more recent and not specifically detailed in the Constitution, they fall under Subsidiary Matters.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q15: Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options: 
(a) There are two or more levels of government. 
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens. 
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction. 
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government. (CBSE Term-1 2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
In a Unitary form of government, all powers are centralized at the national level. The central government holds the primary authority, and any administrative divisions (sub-units) function under its control. The sub-units do not have independent jurisdiction but instead operate as extensions of the central government, with limited powers that are often delegated by the central authority.
The other options are characteristics of a federal form of government, where:
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier has its own jurisdiction and powers defined by the constitution.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.


Q16: Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’? 
(a) Australia 
(b) India 
(c) U.S.A. 
(d) Switzerland (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (b)
In a Holding Together Federation, the central government shares power with constituent states or regions, but the division of power is typically unequal, with the central authority retaining more control. This model is used to unify a country with diverse regions and cultural groups, aiming to hold them together under a single federal structure.
India is an example of a Holding Together Federation, as the union government holds significant power, and states have varying degrees of autonomy.


Q17: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List? 
(a) Trade 
(b) Commerce 
(c) Agriculture 
(d) Marriage (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (d)
In the Indian Constitution, subjects are divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
(i) The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the central and state governments can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the central law prevails.
(ii) Marriage is included in the Concurrent List, allowing both the central and state governments to make laws regarding marriage.
The other options are part of different lists:
(i) Trade and Commerce are typically included in the Union and State Lists, depending on whether they are inter-state or intra-state.
(ii) Agriculture is in the State List, giving states the power to legislate on it.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Marriage.


Q18: Choose the correct pair among the following:  (CBSE Term-1 2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(a) Russia – Unitary:
 Incorrect. Russia is a federal country, with powers divided between the central government and various federal subjects.
(b) China – Federal: Incorrect. China has a unitary system, where the central government holds primary authority, and administrative divisions operate under its control.
(c) Canada – Unitary: Incorrect. Canada is a federal country, with powers shared between the national government and provinces.
(d) Argentina – Federal: Correct. Argentina operates as a federal country, with powers divided between the national government and its provinces.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Argentina – Federal.

Also read: Mind Map: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q19: Rewrite the correct statement:     (2020 C)
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of ‘Coming Together Federation’.

Hide Answer  

Ans: India, Spain, and Belgium are examples of a ‘holding together federation’.

  • In this type of federation, the central government holds more power than the states.
  • States may have unequal powers, with some granted special authorities.
  • This structure allows for a balance between the national and state governments.


Q20: Rewrite the correct statement:    (2020 C) [Old NCERT]
The Union Government as well as the State Governments can make laws on State subjects like forest, trade unions, marriage, etc. 

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Ans: The Union Government and State Governments can make laws on subjects that are of shared interest, known as concurrent subjects. Examples include:

  • Forests
  • Trade unions
  • Education
  • Marriage

If there is a conflict between laws made by both governments, the law passed by the Union Government takes precedence.


Q21: Describe any three features of ‘federal government’.     (2020)

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Ans: The three features of a federal government are:

  • Power distribution: The central government shares some powers with state governments.
  • Separation of powers: Authority is divided among the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
  • Elected officials: Those in office hold supreme power within the government.


Q22: Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’.     (2020) [Old NCERT]

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Ans: Three features of unitary government are:

  • Centralisation: A unitary government has a centralised structure, meaning most powers are held by the central authority.
  • Supremacy: The central government holds supreme power over all administrative divisions.
  • Limited Autonomy: Local divisions, such as states or districts, have less authority compared to the central government.


Q23: Describe any three characteristics of distribution of power between the center and states in India.    (2020)

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Ans: The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists.
List of Jurisdiction:
(i) Union List:
 Union List includes subjects of national importance; such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.
(ii) Concurrent List: Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
(iii) State List: State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.
(iv) Residuary List: Anything out of purview of above mentioned list is taken as residuary subject. Union Government has the power to legislate on these subjects.


Q24: Enumerate the features of federalism.    (2020)

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Ans: The features of federalism include:

  • There are two or more levels of government.
  • Each level has its own jurisdiction over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • The constitution defines the powers of each government level.
  • Changes to fundamental constitutional provisions require agreement from both levels of government.
  • Courts interpret the constitution and resolve disputes between government levels.
  • Revenue sources for each government level are clearly defined to ensure financial independence.
  • The federal system aims to maintain national unity while respecting regional diversity.


Q25: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Support the statement in reference of India.    (2020)

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Ans: Federalism is a system of government where power is shared between a central authority and various units within the country. In India, this is evident through the following points:

  • India has multiple levels of government, each governing the same citizens.
  • Each level has its own jurisdiction over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • The Constitution clearly defines the powers and responsibilities of each tier, ensuring their existence is constitutionally protected.
  • Changes to fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot be made unilaterally; they require agreement from both the central and state governments.
  • The courts have the authority to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different government levels.


Q26: Which institution has been created in each State of India to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections?    (2020)

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Ans: The State Election Commission has been established in each state of India to oversee the conduct of panchayat and municipal elections. This independent body ensures that elections are held regularly and fairly.

  • It is responsible for managing the electoral process at the local level.
  • The commission guarantees that elections are conducted in accordance with the law.
  • It plays a crucial role in strengthening local governance.


Q27: Describe the rationale behind the implementation of Decentralisation in India.    (2020) 
OR
Explain the basic idea behind decentralisation of political power in India.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problem and issues which are best settled at the local level, people have better knowledge about problems in their localities. They also have better idea about where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides at the local level, it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.


Q28: Describe the nature of the Panchayati Raj System in India.    (2020)

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Ans: Nature of the Panchayati Raj System in India:

  • The Gram Panchayat is a council made up of ward members, known as panchs, and a president called the sarpanch.
  • Members are directly elected by the adult population of the village or ward.
  • It serves as the main decision-making body for the village.
  • In 1992, the Constitution was amended to establish a more effective three-tier system: Gram PanchayatBlock Samiti, and Zila Parishad.


Q29: Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian federation. 
(I) Hindi was identified as the official language. 
(II) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages. 
(III) English can be used along with Hindi for official purpose.
Choose the combination that provides the correct statement(s) from the following : 
(a) (I) and III 
(b) (I) and (II) 
(c) Only (I) 
(d) (I), (II) and (III)  (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: (d)
All three statements regarding the language policy of the Indian federation are correct:
(I) Hindi was identified as the official language: Correct. Hindi, in the Devanagari script, was designated as the official language of India under Article 343 of the Indian Constitution.
(II) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognized as scheduled languages: Correct. Initially, there were 14 scheduled languages, but this number has expanded to 22, including Hindi, under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(III) English can be used along with Hindi for official purposes: Correct. English continues to be used for official purposes along with Hindi, especially in non-Hindi-speaking states and for communication between the central and state governments.
Since all statements are correct, the answer is (d) (I), (II) and (III).


Q30: State any one step taken in Belgium  to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: The Constitution of Belgium took a significant step to address regional differences and cultural diversities by ensuring equality in representation. This was achieved by:

  • Maintaining an equal number of French and Dutch speakers in the central government.
  • Preventing any single community from dominating decision-making.


Q31: Describe the features of federalism in India.   (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The main features of federalism in India are as follows:

  • Two or more levels of government: India has a central government and state governments, with a third tier of local governance through Panchayats and Municipalities.
  • Same citizens with separate jurisdiction: Different levels of government govern the same citizens, but each has its own authority over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • Jurisdiction specified by the constitution: The powers of each government level are clearly defined in the constitution, ensuring their existence and authority are constitutionally protected.
  • No unilateral constitutional changes: Fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be changed by one level of government alone; consent from both levels is required.
  • Sources of revenue: Each government level has clearly defined sources of revenue, ensuring financial independence.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q32: Name any two subjects that are included in the Concurrent List. How are laws made on these subjects? Explain.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Concurrent List: Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.


Q33: How is sharing of power between the union and the state government basic of the structure of the constitution of India? Explain.     (2019)

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Ans: The sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments, there is power-sharing which is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power-sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.


Q34: Describe any three steps taken to strengthen the local self-governments by the Constitutional Amendment, 1992.    (CBSE 2019, 18) 
OR 
Explain the steps taken by the Indian Government in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A significant step towards decentralisation and strengthening local self-governments was taken in 1992 with the amendment of the Constitution. This amendment aimed to empower the third tier of democracy by granting constitutional status to local governing bodies.

  • Regular Elections: It is now a constitutional requirement to hold regular elections for local government bodies. Each State has established an independent State Election Commission to oversee these elections.
  • Reservation of Seats: Seats are reserved in local governing bodies for Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes. Additionally, at least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
  • Power and Revenue Sharing: State governments must share certain powers and revenue with local government bodies, although the specifics can vary by State.


Q35: Describe the importance of a third-tier of government in a vast country like India.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Importance of third-tier government:

  • Local Problem Solving: Many issues are best addressed at the local level, as residents understand their communities better.
  • Resource Management: Locals have better insights on how to allocate resources effectively.
  • Direct Participation: The local level allows people to engage directly in decision-making processes.
  • Democratic Engagement: This fosters a culture of democratic participation among citizens.


Q36: Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India? (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Union Government has the authority to legislate on residuary subjects in India. These subjects are those not specified in the Constitution’s three lists:

  • Union List: Covers national issues like defence and foreign affairs.
  • State List: Includes local matters such as police and agriculture.
  • Concurrent List: Contains subjects of mutual interest, like education and marriage.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q37: Describe any three provisions of amendment made in Indian constitution in 1992 for making. ‘Three-Tier’ government more effective and powerful.     (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three provisions of the 1992 amendment to the Indian Constitution that enhance the effectiveness of the ‘Three-Tier’ government are:

  • Regular Elections: It is now mandatory to hold regular elections for local government bodies.
  • Reservation of Seats: Seats are reserved for the Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in elected bodies.
  • Women’s Representation: At least one-third of all positions in local governance are reserved for women.
  • State Election Commission: Each state has established an independent State Election Commission to oversee panchayat and municipal elections.
  • Power Sharing: State governments must share certain powers and revenues with local government bodies.


Q38: Describe any three steps taken to strengthen local self-governments, by the Constitutional Amendment, 1992. (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Steps taken to strengthen local self-governments by the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 include:

  • Regular elections to local government bodies are now mandatory.
  • Seats are reserved for Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in elected bodies.
  • At least 33% of the seats are reserved for women in all elected bodies.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q39: List under which both the Union and State Governments can make laws under the federal system in India. (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Concurrent List

The Concurrent List in India is a category of subjects where both the Union and State Governments can make laws. This includes:

  • Education
  • Forests
  • Trade
  • Marriages

Both levels of government share the responsibility for these subjects, allowing for a collaborative approach to legislation.


Q40: What is the system of Panchayati Raj? (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: In India, the Panchayati Raj functions as a system of governance in which gram panchayats are the basic units of local administration. The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).


Q41: Why was the States re organisation commission formed? (CBSE 2017, 16)

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Ans: It was formed to recommend creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.


Q42: “India has a large cultural, regional and religious diversity but there is unity among people”. What factors are responsible for this? Elaborate.  (CBSE 2017, 16)

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Ans: India is known for its vast cultural, regional, and religious diversity, yet it maintains a strong sense of unity among its people. 
Several factors contribute to this unity:

  • Democratic principles: India is a democratic country that strives for political, social, and economic equality through its Constitution, fostering harmony among its citizens.
  • Constitutional recognition: The Indian Constitution acknowledges and empowers various ethnic groups and tribes, which helps reduce feelings of isolation.
  • Federal structure: India’s federal government encourages public participation in political processes, ensuring that government decisions are legitimate and accepted by all.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q43: Mention the dual objectives of federal system of government. (2016)

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Ans: The federal system has dual objectives:

  • To promote unity within the country.
  • To accommodate regional diversity.


Q44: Explain any five features of the Panchayati Raj system in India. (2016)

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Ans: Five features of the Panchayati Raj system in India are:

  • Rural-based: The Panchayati Raj system primarily focuses on rural areas.
  • Gram Panchayat: Each village has a Gram Panchayat, which serves as the basic unit of the system.
  • Elected Representatives: Members known as Panchs and a Sarpanch are elected by the village’s adult population to govern the Gram Panchayat.
  • Gram Sabha: The Panchayat operates under the supervision of the Gram Sabha, which includes all voters in the village and meets at least twice or thrice a year.
  • Panchayat Samiti: Several Gram Panchayats combine to form a Panchayat Samiti, also called a Block or Mandal, responsible for coordinating and supervising the Gram Panchayats.


Q45: Explain the factors that make federal government in India so attractive. (2016)

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Ans: The factors that make the federal government in India attractive include:

  • Defined Jurisdiction: Each branch of government has a clear jurisdiction, allowing issues to be addressed appropriately.
  • Administrative Autonomy: Each level of government operates independently, with financial autonomy and no administrative interference.
  • Unity and Diversity: The federal structure promotes unity among citizens while respecting regional diversity.


Q46: How has the Panchayati Raj strengthened democracy in India? Express your views. (2016)

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Ans: The Panchayati Raj system has strengthened democracy in India in the following ways:
1. Decentralization of power: The Panchayati Raj system is a prime example of decentralization of power. It provides a platform for the direct participation of people in decision-making at the local level. This ensures that people can get most of their problems solved locally and have a say in the governance of their own communities.
2. Empowerment of local communities: The Panchayati Raj system has empowered local communities by giving them the authority to make decisions on matters that directly affect their lives. People at the grassroots level have a better understanding of their problems and can find appropriate solutions, leading to effective governance.
3. Promoting social justice: The Panchayati Raj system has played a crucial role in promoting social justice. It has given marginalized sections of society, such as women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes, an opportunity to participate in decision-making and have their voices heard. This has led to greater representation and inclusivity in the democratic process.
Overall, the Panchayati Raj system has strengthened democracy in India by promoting grassroots democracy, empowering local communities, and ensuring social justice.


Q47: What is decentralisation? Why do we need it? (CBSE 2016, 15, 14)

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Ans: Decentralisation grants more autonomy or freedom to lower levels of government and increases political awareness participation among the people

Also read: Mind Map: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q48: In which list of the Indian Constitution Does Education come? Why? (2015)

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Ans: Education is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This means:

  • Both the Central and State governments can make laws regarding education.
  • This arrangement allows for a unified approach to education across the country.
  • If there is a conflict between laws made by the two levels of government, the law made by the Central Government will take precedence.


Q49: Highlight any three steps taken by India towards making it a federation. (2015)

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Ans: Three steps taken by India towards making it a federation are:

  • Reorganization of States: The boundaries of several old states were adjusted to create new states based on linguistic, cultural, ethnic, or geographical differences.
  • Center-State Relations: These relations have been clearly defined, ensuring a distinct distribution of power and responsibilities between the central and state governments.
  • Decentralization: India has implemented decentralization at the local level through the establishment of Panchayati Raj and municipal governments, promoting greater participation and self-governance.


Q50: Differentiate between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat. (2015)

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Ans: The differences between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat are as follows:

  • Composition: Gram Sabha includes all the voters in a village, whereas Gram Panchayat is a council made up of elected ward members and a president (sarpanch).
  • Decision-making: Gram Sabha serves as the main decision-making body at the village level, allowing all adult members to participate. In contrast, Gram Panchayat acts as the executive body that carries out the decisions made by the Gram Sabha.
  • Functions: Gram Sabha discusses and decides on various matters, such as approving development plans, resolving disputes, and monitoring the Gram Panchayat’s performance. Gram Panchayat is responsible for daily administration and governance, including implementing development projects and welfare schemes.


Q51: Why did the makers of our Constitution declare India to be a union of States? Why were some sub-political units of India given a special status? (CBSE 2015, 12)

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Ans: This can be explained as follows: 
(1) India became a ‘Union of states’ because it was a union of both British ruled territories as well as many princely states. 
(2) The term indicated the values of unity and harmony among its people. 
(3) Some sub-political units of India have a special status because they were integrated in the Indian union on different grounds. 
(4) Some units were very backward in their development on measures of literacy and economy- hence had to be especially looked after. 
(5) Some states were too big to be called cities, too small to be called states and hence were called Union Territories.


Q52: Highlight three major distinctions between the Federation of coming together type and the holding together type. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Three distinctions are:

Previous Year Questions 2012

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Q53: How are the powers divided between the state and the centre in India? Explain with an example. (CBSE 20212)

Ans: The division of power between the central and state governments is done through a three fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Government. This is done through three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. 
(1) Union List: It includes subjects of national importance, e.g. defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communication and currency. The Central Government makes laws to maintain uniformity on these subjects. 
(2) State List: It contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. 
(3) Concurrent List: It includes those subjects which are of common interest to both the Central as well as State Governments, like education, forests, marriage and trade unions. Both the State and Central Government can make decisions on these matters.


Q54: What is a Gram Sabha? Describe any four functions of a Gram Sabha.  (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: A Gram Sabha comprises all the adult citizen voters of the village. It is empowered to support and review the Gram Panchayat body. 
The functions of Gram Sabha are: 
(1) It elects the members of the Gram Panchayat. 
(2) It supervises the work of the Gram Panchayat. 
(3) It approves the annual budget of the Panchayat. 
(4) It reviews the performance of the Gram Panchayat.

02. Previous Year Questions: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Decentralisation in India
The need for decentralisation was recognised in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralise power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of state governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly. Local governments did not have any powers or resources of their own. Thus, there was very little decentralisation in effective terms. A major step towards decentralisation was taken in 1992. The Constitution was amended to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful and effective.

(i) At how many levels has decentralisation of power been done in the Indian Constitution? (1 Mark)

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Ans: Decentralisation of power has been done at three levels — the Union Government, the State Governments, and the local governments (Panchayats and Municipalities). 

(ii) Explain the role of local self-government in solving problems.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Local self-government plays an important role in solving problems because people have better knowledge of local issues and can decide how to spend money and manage things efficiently. It allows direct participation of people in decision-making.

(iii) “Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.” Explain the statement.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Local government enables people to participate directly in decision-making about issues that affect their daily lives. It helps inculcate a habit of democratic participation and ensures that governance becomes more accountable and effective at the grassroots level. By empowering people at the village and town level, it fulfils the democratic ideal of self-rule by the people

Q2: Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Concurrent List – Education
(b) Concurrent List – Defence
(c) Concurrent List – Police
(d) Concurrent List – Trade

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Ans: (a)

Education is a subject of common interest to both the Union and State Governments and is therefore included in the Concurrent List. Both can make laws on it, but if there is a conflict, the Union law prevails.


Q3: Choose the correct option related to concurrent list of the Indian Constitution: (1 Mark)
(a) Marriage, Currency, Commerce
(b) Defence, Banking, Education
(c) Agriculture, Trade, Irrigation
(d) Education, Forest, Marriage

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

The Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest to both the Union and State Governments such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption, and succession.


Q4: Choose the correct option related to Union list:  (1 Mark)
(a) Police, Foreign affairs, Agriculture
(b) Trade, Irrigation, Marriage
(c) Education, Commerce, Banking
(d) Currency, Communication, Defence

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Ans: (d)

The Union List includes subjects of national importance such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications, and currency, on which only the Union Government can make laws.


Q5: Explain the main features of the Indian federal system. (3 Marks)

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Ans: The main features of the Indian federal system are:

  • Two or more levels of government:
    India has a three-tier system — the Union Government, the State Governments, and the Local Governments.
  • Division of powers:
    The Constitution clearly divides powers between the Union and the State Governments through three lists — Union List, State List, and Concurrent List.
  • Constitutional authority of each level:
    The existence and authority of each level of government are constitutionally guaranteed, and one level cannot change the powers of the other unilaterally.
  • Independent judiciary:
    Courts, especially the Supreme Court, act as an umpire in case of disputes between different levels of government.
  • Financial autonomy:
    The sources of revenue for each level are clearly specified to ensure financial independence.


Q6: How does the Indian federal structure promote balanced governance across the nation?  (1 Mark)
(a) 
By allowing states to exercise complete autonomy on all issues.
(b) By ensuring a division of power between centre and states.
(c) By allowing all decision-making processes under the Union Government.
(d) By giving more powers to local governments in comparison to states.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) By ensuring a division of power between centre and states.
India’s federal structure ensures balanced governance by dividing powers between the Union and State Governments through the Union, State, and Concurrent Lists. This allows both levels to function independently within their own areas of jurisdiction.


Q7: Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Local Self Government
The local government structure goes right up to the district level. A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form what is usually called a panchayat samiti or block or mandal. The members of this representative body are elected by all the panchayat members in that area. All the panchayat samitis or mandals in a district together constitute the zilla (district) parishad. Most members of the zilla parishad are elected. Members of the Lok Sabha and MLAs of that district and some other officials of other district-level bodies are also its members. Zilla parishad chairperson is the political head of the zilla parishad. Similarly, local government bodies exist for urban areas as well. Municipalities are set up in towns. Big cities are constituted into municipal corporations. Both municipalities and municipal corporations are controlled by elected bodies consisting of people’s representatives. Municipal chairperson is the political head of the municipality. In a municipal corporation, such an officer is called the mayor. This new system of local government is the largest experiment in democracy conducted anywhere in the world.

(i) Explain the relationship between gram panchayats and panchayat samitis.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: A few gram panchayats are grouped together to form a panchayat samiti (also called block or mandal). The members of the panchayat samiti are elected by all the members of the gram panchayats in that area.

(ii) How is the structure of municipal corporation different from municipality?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: municipality is set up in towns, while a municipal corporation is established in big cities. Both are controlled by elected bodies, but the political head of a municipality is the municipal chairperson, whereas in a municipal corporation it is the mayor.

(iii) How does the local government structure promote democracy? Examine.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Local government promotes democracy by ensuring direct participation of people in decision-making at the village and city levels. It enables citizens to take part in discussions on local issues, helps in better governance, and strengthens the principle of self-government. This deepens democracy and makes it more representative and accountable.

Q8: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
State Reorganisation Commission
“The report of the States Reorganisation Commission (SRC), was implemented on November 1, 1956. This, in its own time and own way, has also transformed the political and institutional life of the nation. … Gandhi and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be based on a new set of provinces, these based on the principle of language. However, when India was finally free in 1947, it was also divided… Far from undermining Indian unity, linguistic states have helped strengthen it. It has proved to be perfectly consistent to be Kannadiga and Indian, Bengali and Indian, Tamil and Indian, Gujarati and Indian. To be sure, these states based on language sometimes quarrel with one another.

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(i) What promise did Gandhiji make to his followers?  (1 Mark)

Ans: Gandhiji and other leaders promised their followers that when freedom came, the new nation would be organised into provinces based on the principle of language.

(ii) How did language strengthen the unity of India?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: The creation of linguistic states helped people of the same language live together, making administration easier and more efficient. Instead of dividing the country, it strengthened Indian unity by allowing people to maintain both their regional identity and national identity — for example, being Kannadiga and Indian.

(iii) Mention the names of major language of Kerala and Andhra Pradesh states.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The major language of Kerala is Malayalam, and the major language of Andhra Pradesh is Telugu.


Q9: Read the following statements regarding the creation of States on the basis of language in India and choose the correct options:  (1 Mark)
I. Formation of states on the basis of language made the country more united and stronger.
II. Formation of states on the basis of language made administration easier.
III. Formation of states on the basis of language has weakened the federal structure.
IV. Formation of states on the basis of language led to the development of Indian languages.
(a) 
Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, III and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, II and IV are correct.

The formation of linguistic states made the country more united and stronger (I)made administration easier (II), and helped in the development and recognition of Indian languages (IV).
It did not weaken the federal structure; instead, it strengthened unity and democracy.


Q10: Differentiate between federal and unitary form of government with examples.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: A federal government divides power between central and regional units, while a unitary government concentrates power at the center.


Q11: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Source: A city called Porto Alegre in Brazil has carried out an extraordinary experiment in combining decentralisation with participative democracy. The city has set up a parallel organisation operating alongside the municipal council, enabling local inhabitants to take real decisions for their city. The nearly 13 lakh people in this city get to participate in making the budget for their own city. The city is divided into many sectors or what we call wards. Each sector has a meeting, like that of the gram sabha, in which anyone living in that area can participate. There are some meetings to discuss issues that affect the entire city. Any citizen of the city can participate in those meetings. The budget of the city is discussed in these meetings. The proposals are put to the municipality that takes a final decision about it.

(i) Explain the meaning of ‘participatory democracy’. (1 Mark)

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Ans: Participatory democracy means direct involvement of people in the decision-making process of governance. Citizens actively participate in discussions, planning, and budgeting for their local areas. 

(ii) In the context of separation of powers, the given example defines which type of government?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: The given example defines a decentralised form of government, where power is shared with local bodies and people participate directly in governance. 

(iii) Describe the structure of the system in India which is almost similar to the example of Brazil.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, a similar system exists through the three-tier structure of local self-government:

  • Gram Panchayat at the village level,
  • Panchayat Samiti or Block/Mandal at the intermediate level, and
  • Zilla Parishad at the district level in rural areas.
    In urban areas, Municipalities and Municipal Corporations function similarly, allowing citizens to participate in decision-making about local issues.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following:    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)

Options:
(a)
 (A)-(IV ), (B)-(I), (C)-(III), (D)- (IV)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(I), (D)- (IV)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV ), (D)- (III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV ), (C)-(II), (D)- (I) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

(A) Union List – (II) Banking: Banking is primarily managed by the central government, which falls under the Union List.

(B) State List – (III) Police: The police force is a subject that is managed by individual states, so it belongs to the State List.

(C) Concurrent List – (I) Trade Union: Trade unions can be regulated by both the central and state governments, making them a subject in the Concurrent List.

(D) Residuary List – (IV) Internet: The internet is a newer subject not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution, thus it falls under the Residuary List where powers are given to the government to legislate on subjects not specified.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:   (4 & 5 Marks) (2023)
Language Diversity of India
How many languages do we have in India? The answer depends on how one counts it. The latest information that we have is from the Census of India held in 2011. This census recorded more than 1300 distinct languages which people mentioned as their mother tongues. These languages were grouped together under some major languages. For example languages like Bhojpuri, Magadhi, Bundelkhandi, Chhattisgarhi, Rajasthani and many others were grouped together under ‘Hindi’. Even after this grouping, the Census found 121 major languages. Of these 22 languages are now included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution and are therefore called ‘Scheduled Languages’. Others are called ‘Non-Scheduled Languages’. In terms of languages, India is perhaps the most diverse country in the world.
(I) Explain the importance of language diversity in India.
(II) Differentiate between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages.
(III) The fusion of languages has united the country into one cultural entity.’ Explain the statement with an example.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) Importance of Language Diversity in India:

  • India’s vast number of languages contributes to its cultural diversity.
  • This diversity helps to preserve the unique identities of various communities.

(ii) Difference Between Scheduled and Non-Scheduled Languages:

  • Scheduled Languages: There are 22 languages recognised in the Indian Constitution, known as scheduled languages.
  • Non-Scheduled Languages: All other languages not included in this list are referred to as non-scheduled languages.

(iii) Fusion of Languages and Cultural Unity: The statement highlights how the blending of diverse languages and cultures has fostered a shared national identity. For instance, unlike Sri Lanka, Indian leaders have been careful in promoting Hindi, allowing for a more inclusive approach to language use.


Q3: Match Column-A with Column-B and choose the correct option.     (1 Mark) (2023)

(a) I – 4 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2
(b)
 I – 3 , II – 4, III – 1, IV – 2
(c)
 I – 4 , II – 1, III – 3, IV – 2
(d)
 I – 2 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

I. Defence – 2. Union List: Defence is managed by the central government, which is why it falls under the Union List.

II. Police – 3. State List: The police force is a state subject, meaning individual states have the power to legislate on this issue, so it belongs to the State List.

III. Marriage – 1. Concurrent List: Laws regarding marriage can be made by both the central and state governments, which is why it is included in the Concurrent List.

IV. Computer Software – 4. Residual Subjects: Since computer software is a newer subject not specifically mentioned in the Constitution, it falls under the Residual Subjects, allowing the government to make laws on it.


Q4: Match the column – A with column – B and choose the correct option.           (1 Mark) (2023)

(a) I – 4 , II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2
(b)
 I – 3 , II – 4, III – 1, IV – 2
(c) 
I – 2 , II – 3, III – 1, IV -4
(d)
 I – 4 , II – 2, III – 1, IV – 3

Hide Answer  

Ans:  (c)

(I) Banks – 2. Union List: Banking is primarily managed by the central government, so it falls under the Union List.

(II) Agriculture – 3. State List: Agriculture is mainly regulated by individual states, making it a subject in the State List.

(III) Education – 1. Concurrent List: Education is a subject where both the central and state governments can make laws, which is why it is included in the Concurrent List.

(IV) Computer – 4. Residuary Subjects: The topic of computers is newer and not specifically mentioned in the Constitution, placing it in the Residual Subjects category, allowing the government to legislate on it.


Q5: Identify the administrative level of Indian Government with the help of the information given in the box and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)  (CBSE 2023)
1. Power shared between Central to Local Government.
2. The State Governments are required to share some powers and revenue with them.
3. It is called a three tier government._________
(a)
 Dictatorial System
(b)
 Unitary Federal System
(c)
 Decentralised System
(d)
 Imperialistic System

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
A Decentralised System means that power and responsibilities are distributed from the central government to local governments, allowing them to make decisions about local matters. In India, this involves a three-tier government structure with the central, state, and local levels, where state governments share powers and revenue with local authorities, enhancing local governance and participation.


Q6: Read the given extract and answer all questions.    (4 Marks) (2023)
DECENTRALISATION IN INDIA

When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called decentralization. The basic idea behind decentralization is that there are a large number of problems and issues which are best settled at the local level. People have better knowledge of problems in their localities. They also have better ideas on where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides at the local level it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government. The need for decentralisation was recognized in our Constitution. Since then, there have been several attempts to decentralize power to the level of villages and towns. Panchayats in villages and muncipalities in urban areas were set up in all the States. But these were directly under the control of State Governments. Elections to these local governments were not held regularly.
(i) Explain Decentralization in democracy.
(ii) Explain the importance of Local self Government in democracy.
(iii) Describe any two steps taken by Indian government for decentralization.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) Decentralisation in democracy refers to the transfer of power from central and state governments to local governments. This process allows local authorities to address issues more effectively, as they have a better understanding of local problems.
(ii) The importance of local self-government includes:

  • Local issues are often best resolved at the community level.
  • Residents possess better insights into spending priorities and resource management.
  • It encourages direct participation in decision-making, fostering a culture of democratic involvement.

(iii) Two significant steps taken by the Indian government for decentralisation are:

  • Establishment of Panchayats in villages and municipalities in urban areas across all states.
  • Mandatory regular elections for local government bodies, ensuring local representation.
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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q7: Which one of the following countries is the example of Holding together federation?     (2022)
(a) Australia
(b) India
(c) U.SA
(d) Switzerland

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

India is an example of a holding together federation
Here are some key points:

  • In a holding together federation, the central government is typically more powerful than the states.
  • Different states may have unequal powers, with some granted special rights.
  • Other examples include Spain and Belgium.

In contrast, Australia, the USA, and Switzerland are examples of coming together federations.


Q8: Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options.     (2022)  [Old NCERT]
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction.
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

In a unitary form of government:

  • The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.
  • There is either one level of government or the lower levels follow the orders of the central government.

This means that the central government has the authority to direct provincial or local governments.


Q9: Choose the correct pair among the following:     (2022)  [Old NCERT]
(a) A – 1
(b) B – 2
(c) C – 3
(d) D – 4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Russia, Canada and Argentina are federal countries. China is a unitary country.


Q10: Which of the following countries is an example of ‘coming together federation?   (2022)
(a) United States of America
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

  • The United States is an example of a ‘coming together’ federation.
  • In this type of federation, constituent states typically have equal power.
  • In contrast, India, Spain, and Belgium represent ‘holding together’ federations.
  • In holding together federations, the central government usually has more power than the states.


Q11: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Union list?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Communication
(b) Trade
(c) Commerce
(d) Irrigation

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Communication is included in the Union list


Q12: Which one of the following subjects is included in the State list?    (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Banking
(b) Business
(c) Currency
(d) Communication

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Business is included in the State list. Banking, currency and communication are included in the Union list.


Q13: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List?     (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Trade
(b) Commerce
(c) Agriculture
(d) Marriage

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Concurrent list includes subjects of common interest to both the Union Government as well as the State Government. These are education, forest, marriage, adoption and succession.


Q14: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:   (2022)

(a) l – C, II – D, III – B, IV – A
(b)
 I – A, II – B, III -C, IV – D
(c) 
l – D, II – C, III – B, IV – A
(d)
 l – B, II – A, III – C, IV – D

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

(I) Union List – D. Defence: Defence is primarily a central government responsibility, so it falls under the Union List.

(II) State List – C. Police: The police force is managed by state governments, which makes it a subject in the State List.

(III) Concurrent List – B. Forest: Forest management can be legislated by both the central and state governments, placing it in the Concurrent List.

(IV) Subsidiary Matters – A. Computer-related matter: Since computer-related issues are more recent and not specifically detailed in the Constitution, they fall under Subsidiary Matters.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q15: Identify the correct feature of Unitary form of government from the following options: 
(a) There are two or more levels of government. 
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens. 
(c) Each tier of government has its own jurisdiction. 
(d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government. (CBSE Term-1 2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
In a Unitary form of government, all powers are centralized at the national level. The central government holds the primary authority, and any administrative divisions (sub-units) function under its control. The sub-units do not have independent jurisdiction but instead operate as extensions of the central government, with limited powers that are often delegated by the central authority.
The other options are characteristics of a federal form of government, where:
(a) There are two or more levels of government.
(b) Different tiers of government govern the same citizens.
(c) Each tier has its own jurisdiction and powers defined by the constitution.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) The sub-units are subordinate to the central government.


Q16: Which one of the following countries is the example of ‘Holding together federation’? 
(a) Australia 
(b) India 
(c) U.S.A. 
(d) Switzerland (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (b)
In a Holding Together Federation, the central government shares power with constituent states or regions, but the division of power is typically unequal, with the central authority retaining more control. This model is used to unify a country with diverse regions and cultural groups, aiming to hold them together under a single federal structure.
India is an example of a Holding Together Federation, as the union government holds significant power, and states have varying degrees of autonomy.


Q17: Which one of the following subjects is included in the Concurrent List? 
(a) Trade 
(b) Commerce 
(c) Agriculture 
(d) Marriage (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (d)
In the Indian Constitution, subjects are divided into three lists: the Union List, the State List, and the Concurrent List.
(i) The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the central and state governments can legislate. However, in case of a conflict, the central law prevails.
(ii) Marriage is included in the Concurrent List, allowing both the central and state governments to make laws regarding marriage.
The other options are part of different lists:
(i) Trade and Commerce are typically included in the Union and State Lists, depending on whether they are inter-state or intra-state.
(ii) Agriculture is in the State List, giving states the power to legislate on it.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Marriage.


Q18: Choose the correct pair among the following:  (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: 
(a) Russia – Unitary:
 Incorrect. Russia is a federal country, with powers divided between the central government and various federal subjects.
(b) China – Federal: Incorrect. China has a unitary system, where the central government holds primary authority, and administrative divisions operate under its control.
(c) Canada – Unitary: Incorrect. Canada is a federal country, with powers shared between the national government and provinces.
(d) Argentina – Federal: Correct. Argentina operates as a federal country, with powers divided between the national government and its provinces.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Argentina – Federal.

Also read: Mind Map: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q19: Rewrite the correct statement:     (2020 C)
India, Spain and Belgium are examples of ‘Coming Together Federation’.

Hide Answer  

Ans: India, Spain, and Belgium are examples of a ‘holding together federation’.

  • In this type of federation, the central government holds more power than the states.
  • States may have unequal powers, with some granted special authorities.
  • This structure allows for a balance between the national and state governments.


Q20: Rewrite the correct statement:    (2020 C) [Old NCERT]
The Union Government as well as the State Governments can make laws on State subjects like forest, trade unions, marriage, etc. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Union Government and State Governments can make laws on subjects that are of shared interest, known as concurrent subjects. Examples include:

  • Forests
  • Trade unions
  • Education
  • Marriage

If there is a conflict between laws made by both governments, the law passed by the Union Government takes precedence.


Q21: Describe any three features of ‘federal government’.     (2020)

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Ans: The three features of a federal government are:

  • Power distribution: The central government shares some powers with state governments.
  • Separation of powers: Authority is divided among the legislature, executive, and judiciary.
  • Elected officials: Those in office hold supreme power within the government.


Q22: Describe any three features of ‘unitary government’.     (2020) [Old NCERT]

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Ans: Three features of unitary government are:

  • Centralisation: A unitary government has a centralised structure, meaning most powers are held by the central authority.
  • Supremacy: The central government holds supreme power over all administrative divisions.
  • Limited Autonomy: Local divisions, such as states or districts, have less authority compared to the central government.


Q23: Describe any three characteristics of distribution of power between the center and states in India.    (2020)

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Ans: The Constitution clearly provided a three-fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Governments. Thus, it contains three lists.
List of Jurisdiction:
(i) Union List:
 Union List includes subjects of national importance; such as defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communications and currency. They are included in this list because we need a uniform policy on these matters throughout the country. The Union Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List.
(ii) Concurrent List: Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.
(iii) State List: State List contains subjects of State and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. The State Governments alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the State List.
(iv) Residuary List: Anything out of purview of above mentioned list is taken as residuary subject. Union Government has the power to legislate on these subjects.


Q24: Enumerate the features of federalism.    (2020)

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Ans: The features of federalism include:

  • There are two or more levels of government.
  • Each level has its own jurisdiction over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • The constitution defines the powers of each government level.
  • Changes to fundamental constitutional provisions require agreement from both levels of government.
  • Courts interpret the constitution and resolve disputes between government levels.
  • Revenue sources for each government level are clearly defined to ensure financial independence.
  • The federal system aims to maintain national unity while respecting regional diversity.


Q25: Federalism is a system of government in which the power is divided between a central authority and various constituent units of the country. Support the statement in reference of India.    (2020)

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Ans: Federalism is a system of government where power is shared between a central authority and various units within the country. In India, this is evident through the following points:

  • India has multiple levels of government, each governing the same citizens.
  • Each level has its own jurisdiction over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • The Constitution clearly defines the powers and responsibilities of each tier, ensuring their existence is constitutionally protected.
  • Changes to fundamental provisions of the Constitution cannot be made unilaterally; they require agreement from both the central and state governments.
  • The courts have the authority to interpret the Constitution and the powers of different government levels.


Q26: Which institution has been created in each State of India to conduct Panchayat and Municipal elections?    (2020)

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Ans: The State Election Commission has been established in each state of India to oversee the conduct of panchayat and municipal elections. This independent body ensures that elections are held regularly and fairly.

  • It is responsible for managing the electoral process at the local level.
  • The commission guarantees that elections are conducted in accordance with the law.
  • It plays a crucial role in strengthening local governance.


Q27: Describe the rationale behind the implementation of Decentralisation in India.    (2020) 
OR
Explain the basic idea behind decentralisation of political power in India.    (2019)

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Ans: The basic idea behind decentralisation is that there are a large number of problem and issues which are best settled at the local level, people have better knowledge about problems in their localities. They also have better idea about where to spend money and how to manage things more efficiently. Besides at the local level, it is possible for the people to directly participate in decision making. This helps to inculcate a habit of democratic participation. Local government is the best way to realise one important principle of democracy, namely local self-government.


Q28: Describe the nature of the Panchayati Raj System in India.    (2020)

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Ans: Nature of the Panchayati Raj System in India:

  • The Gram Panchayat is a council made up of ward members, known as panchs, and a president called the sarpanch.
  • Members are directly elected by the adult population of the village or ward.
  • It serves as the main decision-making body for the village.
  • In 1992, the Constitution was amended to establish a more effective three-tier system: Gram PanchayatBlock Samiti, and Zila Parishad.


Q29: Consider the following statements regarding language policy of Indian federation. 
(I) Hindi was identified as the official language. 
(II) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as scheduled languages. 
(III) English can be used along with Hindi for official purpose.
Choose the combination that provides the correct statement(s) from the following : 
(a) (I) and III 
(b) (I) and (II) 
(c) Only (I) 
(d) (I), (II) and (III)  (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: (d)
All three statements regarding the language policy of the Indian federation are correct:
(I) Hindi was identified as the official language: Correct. Hindi, in the Devanagari script, was designated as the official language of India under Article 343 of the Indian Constitution.
(II) Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognized as scheduled languages: Correct. Initially, there were 14 scheduled languages, but this number has expanded to 22, including Hindi, under the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
(III) English can be used along with Hindi for official purposes: Correct. English continues to be used for official purposes along with Hindi, especially in non-Hindi-speaking states and for communication between the central and state governments.
Since all statements are correct, the answer is (d) (I), (II) and (III).


Q30: State any one step taken in Belgium  to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: The Constitution of Belgium took a significant step to address regional differences and cultural diversities by ensuring equality in representation. This was achieved by:

  • Maintaining an equal number of French and Dutch speakers in the central government.
  • Preventing any single community from dominating decision-making.


Q31: Describe the features of federalism in India.   (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The main features of federalism in India are as follows:

  • Two or more levels of government: India has a central government and state governments, with a third tier of local governance through Panchayats and Municipalities.
  • Same citizens with separate jurisdiction: Different levels of government govern the same citizens, but each has its own authority over specific areas like legislation, taxation, and administration.
  • Jurisdiction specified by the constitution: The powers of each government level are clearly defined in the constitution, ensuring their existence and authority are constitutionally protected.
  • No unilateral constitutional changes: Fundamental provisions of the constitution cannot be changed by one level of government alone; consent from both levels is required.
  • Sources of revenue: Each government level has clearly defined sources of revenue, ensuring financial independence.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q32: Name any two subjects that are included in the Concurrent List. How are laws made on these subjects? Explain.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Concurrent List: Concurrent List includes subjects of common interest such as education, forest, trade unions, marriage, adoption and succession. Both the Union as well as the State Governments can make laws on the subjects mentioned in this list. If their laws conflict with each other, the law made by the Union Government will prevail.


Q33: How is sharing of power between the union and the state government basic of the structure of the constitution of India? Explain.     (2019)

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Ans: The sharing of power between the Union Government and the State governments, there is power-sharing which is basic to the structure of the Constitution. It is not easy to make changes to this power-sharing arrangement. The Parliament cannot on its own change this arrangement. Any change to it has to be first passed by both the Houses of Parliament with at least two-thirds majority. Then it has to be ratified by the legislatures of at least half of the total states.


Q34: Describe any three steps taken to strengthen the local self-governments by the Constitutional Amendment, 1992.    (CBSE 2019, 18) 
OR 
Explain the steps taken by the Indian Government in 1992 to make the third-tier of democracy more powerful.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A significant step towards decentralisation and strengthening local self-governments was taken in 1992 with the amendment of the Constitution. This amendment aimed to empower the third tier of democracy by granting constitutional status to local governing bodies.

  • Regular Elections: It is now a constitutional requirement to hold regular elections for local government bodies. Each State has established an independent State Election Commission to oversee these elections.
  • Reservation of Seats: Seats are reserved in local governing bodies for Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes. Additionally, at least one-third of all positions are reserved for women.
  • Power and Revenue Sharing: State governments must share certain powers and revenue with local government bodies, although the specifics can vary by State.


Q35: Describe the importance of a third-tier of government in a vast country like India.     (2019)

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Ans: Importance of third-tier government:

  • Local Problem Solving: Many issues are best addressed at the local level, as residents understand their communities better.
  • Resource Management: Locals have better insights on how to allocate resources effectively.
  • Direct Participation: The local level allows people to engage directly in decision-making processes.
  • Democratic Engagement: This fosters a culture of democratic participation among citizens.


Q36: Which government has the power to legislate on ‘Residuary’ subjects in India? (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: The Union Government has the authority to legislate on residuary subjects in India. These subjects are those not specified in the Constitution’s three lists:

  • Union List: Covers national issues like defence and foreign affairs.
  • State List: Includes local matters such as police and agriculture.
  • Concurrent List: Contains subjects of mutual interest, like education and marriage.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q37: Describe any three provisions of amendment made in Indian constitution in 1992 for making. ‘Three-Tier’ government more effective and powerful.     (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three provisions of the 1992 amendment to the Indian Constitution that enhance the effectiveness of the ‘Three-Tier’ government are:

  • Regular Elections: It is now mandatory to hold regular elections for local government bodies.
  • Reservation of Seats: Seats are reserved for the Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in elected bodies.
  • Women’s Representation: At least one-third of all positions in local governance are reserved for women.
  • State Election Commission: Each state has established an independent State Election Commission to oversee panchayat and municipal elections.
  • Power Sharing: State governments must share certain powers and revenues with local government bodies.


Q38: Describe any three steps taken to strengthen local self-governments, by the Constitutional Amendment, 1992. (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Steps taken to strengthen local self-governments by the Constitutional Amendment in 1992 include:

  • Regular elections to local government bodies are now mandatory.
  • Seats are reserved for Scheduled CastesScheduled Tribes, and Other Backward Classes in elected bodies.
  • At least 33% of the seats are reserved for women in all elected bodies.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q39: List under which both the Union and State Governments can make laws under the federal system in India. (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Concurrent List

The Concurrent List in India is a category of subjects where both the Union and State Governments can make laws. This includes:

  • Education
  • Forests
  • Trade
  • Marriages

Both levels of government share the responsibility for these subjects, allowing for a collaborative approach to legislation.


Q40: What is the system of Panchayati Raj? (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: In India, the Panchayati Raj functions as a system of governance in which gram panchayats are the basic units of local administration. The system has three levels: Gram Panchayat (village level), Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti (block level), and Zila Parishad (district level).


Q41: Why was the States re organisation commission formed? (CBSE 2017, 16)

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Ans: It was formed to recommend creation of states in India on the basis of different languages.


Q42: “India has a large cultural, regional and religious diversity but there is unity among people”. What factors are responsible for this? Elaborate.  (CBSE 2017, 16)

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Ans: India is known for its vast cultural, regional, and religious diversity, yet it maintains a strong sense of unity among its people. 
Several factors contribute to this unity:

  • Democratic principles: India is a democratic country that strives for political, social, and economic equality through its Constitution, fostering harmony among its citizens.
  • Constitutional recognition: The Indian Constitution acknowledges and empowers various ethnic groups and tribes, which helps reduce feelings of isolation.
  • Federal structure: India’s federal government encourages public participation in political processes, ensuring that government decisions are legitimate and accepted by all.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q43: Mention the dual objectives of federal system of government. (2016)

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Ans: The federal system has dual objectives:

  • To promote unity within the country.
  • To accommodate regional diversity.


Q44: Explain any five features of the Panchayati Raj system in India. (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Five features of the Panchayati Raj system in India are:

  • Rural-based: The Panchayati Raj system primarily focuses on rural areas.
  • Gram Panchayat: Each village has a Gram Panchayat, which serves as the basic unit of the system.
  • Elected Representatives: Members known as Panchs and a Sarpanch are elected by the village’s adult population to govern the Gram Panchayat.
  • Gram Sabha: The Panchayat operates under the supervision of the Gram Sabha, which includes all voters in the village and meets at least twice or thrice a year.
  • Panchayat Samiti: Several Gram Panchayats combine to form a Panchayat Samiti, also called a Block or Mandal, responsible for coordinating and supervising the Gram Panchayats.


Q45: Explain the factors that make federal government in India so attractive. (2016)

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Ans: The factors that make the federal government in India attractive include:

  • Defined Jurisdiction: Each branch of government has a clear jurisdiction, allowing issues to be addressed appropriately.
  • Administrative Autonomy: Each level of government operates independently, with financial autonomy and no administrative interference.
  • Unity and Diversity: The federal structure promotes unity among citizens while respecting regional diversity.


Q46: How has the Panchayati Raj strengthened democracy in India? Express your views. (2016)

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Ans: The Panchayati Raj system has strengthened democracy in India in the following ways:
1. Decentralization of power: The Panchayati Raj system is a prime example of decentralization of power. It provides a platform for the direct participation of people in decision-making at the local level. This ensures that people can get most of their problems solved locally and have a say in the governance of their own communities.
2. Empowerment of local communities: The Panchayati Raj system has empowered local communities by giving them the authority to make decisions on matters that directly affect their lives. People at the grassroots level have a better understanding of their problems and can find appropriate solutions, leading to effective governance.
3. Promoting social justice: The Panchayati Raj system has played a crucial role in promoting social justice. It has given marginalized sections of society, such as women, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes, an opportunity to participate in decision-making and have their voices heard. This has led to greater representation and inclusivity in the democratic process.
Overall, the Panchayati Raj system has strengthened democracy in India by promoting grassroots democracy, empowering local communities, and ensuring social justice.


Q47: What is decentralisation? Why do we need it? (CBSE 2016, 15, 14)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Decentralisation grants more autonomy or freedom to lower levels of government and increases political awareness participation among the people

Also read: Mind Map: Federalism

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q48: In which list of the Indian Constitution Does Education come? Why? (2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Education is included in the Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution. This means:

  • Both the Central and State governments can make laws regarding education.
  • This arrangement allows for a unified approach to education across the country.
  • If there is a conflict between laws made by the two levels of government, the law made by the Central Government will take precedence.


Q49: Highlight any three steps taken by India towards making it a federation. (2015)

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Ans: Three steps taken by India towards making it a federation are:

  • Reorganization of States: The boundaries of several old states were adjusted to create new states based on linguistic, cultural, ethnic, or geographical differences.
  • Center-State Relations: These relations have been clearly defined, ensuring a distinct distribution of power and responsibilities between the central and state governments.
  • Decentralization: India has implemented decentralization at the local level through the establishment of Panchayati Raj and municipal governments, promoting greater participation and self-governance.


Q50: Differentiate between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat. (2015)

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Ans: The differences between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat are as follows:

  • Composition: Gram Sabha includes all the voters in a village, whereas Gram Panchayat is a council made up of elected ward members and a president (sarpanch).
  • Decision-making: Gram Sabha serves as the main decision-making body at the village level, allowing all adult members to participate. In contrast, Gram Panchayat acts as the executive body that carries out the decisions made by the Gram Sabha.
  • Functions: Gram Sabha discusses and decides on various matters, such as approving development plans, resolving disputes, and monitoring the Gram Panchayat’s performance. Gram Panchayat is responsible for daily administration and governance, including implementing development projects and welfare schemes.


Q51: Why did the makers of our Constitution declare India to be a union of States? Why were some sub-political units of India given a special status? (CBSE 2015, 12)

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Ans: This can be explained as follows: 
(1) India became a ‘Union of states’ because it was a union of both British ruled territories as well as many princely states. 
(2) The term indicated the values of unity and harmony among its people. 
(3) Some sub-political units of India have a special status because they were integrated in the Indian union on different grounds. 
(4) Some units were very backward in their development on measures of literacy and economy- hence had to be especially looked after. 
(5) Some states were too big to be called cities, too small to be called states and hence were called Union Territories.


Q52: Highlight three major distinctions between the Federation of coming together type and the holding together type. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Three distinctions are:

Previous Year Questions 2012

Hide Answer  

Q53: How are the powers divided between the state and the centre in India? Explain with an example. (CBSE 20212)

Ans: The division of power between the central and state governments is done through a three fold distribution of legislative powers between the Union Government and the State Government. This is done through three lists: Union List, State List and Concurrent List. 
(1) Union List: It includes subjects of national importance, e.g. defence of the country, foreign affairs, banking, communication and currency. The Central Government makes laws to maintain uniformity on these subjects. 
(2) State List: It contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation. 
(3) Concurrent List: It includes those subjects which are of common interest to both the Central as well as State Governments, like education, forests, marriage and trade unions. Both the State and Central Government can make decisions on these matters.


Q54: What is a Gram Sabha? Describe any four functions of a Gram Sabha.  (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: A Gram Sabha comprises all the adult citizen voters of the village. It is empowered to support and review the Gram Panchayat body. 
The functions of Gram Sabha are: 
(1) It elects the members of the Gram Panchayat. 
(2) It supervises the work of the Gram Panchayat. 
(3) It approves the annual budget of the Panchayat. 
(4) It reviews the performance of the Gram Panchayat.

01. Previous Year Questions: Power-Sharing

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government?  (1 Mark)
(a) Unitary
(b) Presidential
(c) Federal
(d) Parliamentary

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Ans: (c) Federal
Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by dividing powers between the central and state governments, creating a federal form of government. This arrangement prevented the domination of one linguistic group over another and maintained unity in the country.


Q2: “Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy because:

  • Involvement of People: In a democracy, people are the source of all political power. They have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
  • Legitimacy of Government: A legitimate government is one where citizens participate and acquire a stake in the system through power sharing.
  • Respect for Diverse Views: It ensures that due respect is given to different groups and opinions in society, making governance more democratic.

Thus, power sharing upholds the essence of democracy by ensuring participation, consultation, and inclusiveness in decision-making.

Or 

Why is power sharing essential for the success of democracy? Explain.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is essential for the success of democracy because it ensures fairness, equality, and stability in society.

  • Prevents Concentration of Power: By dividing powers among different organs and levels of government, it avoids misuse of authority.
  • Protects Interests of All Groups: Power sharing gives minorities and weaker sections a voice in governance, making them feel included.
  • Maintains Unity and Harmony: When all groups share power, trust grows, conflicts reduce, and democracy becomes stronger.

Thus, power sharing makes democracy more inclusive, stable, and effective.


Q3: “Political power cannot be divided.” Analyse suitable arguments against the statement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The statement “Political power cannot be divided” is incorrect because in a democracy, power sharing is essential. Arguments against the statement are:

  • Prevents Concentration of Power: Division of power among organs of government ensures that no single organ can exercise unlimited power.
  • Promotes Checks and Balances: Power shared horizontally among legislature, executive, and judiciary maintains balance and accountability.
  • Ensures Participation and Stability: Sharing power among different levels of government, social groups, and political parties promotes inclusion and prevents conflict.

Hence, division of power strengthens democracy and ensures the stability of the political system.

Q4: Which one of the following organisations has its headquarter in Brussels?  (1 Marks)

(a) United Nations Organisation
(b) European Union
(c) Non-Alignment Movement
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) European Union

  • Brussels, the capital of Belgium, was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union because Belgium’s model of power sharing successfully maintained unity and harmony among diverse communities.


Q5: Which of the following countries is an example of sharing of power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?  (1 Mark)

(a) United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) Belgium
(d) Switzerland

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Belgium

Belgium shares power between the central government and state governments of the two major regions to accommodate linguistic and cultural diversity. This federal division of power helped prevent conflicts between Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities.


Q6: “The government measures gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.” Explain the statement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Sri Lankan government took several steps that made the Tamil people feel left out and unfairly treated.

  • In 1956, Sinhala was made the only official language, and Tamil was ignored.
  • The government gave more jobs and educational opportunities to Sinhala-speaking people.
  • The Constitution protected Buddhism, while Tamil culture and religion were not given equal importance.

Because of these actions, the Tamil people felt neglected and discriminated against, which increased their anger and separation from the government.


Q7: Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka?  (1 Mark)

(a) Tamil-speakers
(b) Sinhala-speakers
(c) Telugu-speakers
(d) English-speakers

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Sinhala-speakers

In Sri Lanka, 74% of the population speaks Sinhala, making them the majority group, while 18% are Tamil-speakers.


Q8: Explain the effectiveness of vertical distribution of ‘power sharing’ in the context of India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, vertical distribution of power means sharing power among different levels of government — the Central GovernmentState Governments, and local bodies like panchayats and municipalities.

This system is effective because:

  1. It allows governments at each level to make decisions for their own area, ensuring efficient administration.
  2. It gives people more participation in decision-making and helps address local needs better.

Thus, vertical power sharing in India makes democracy strong, balanced, and more responsive to the people.


Q9: “Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State Governments is basic to the structure of the Indian Constitution.” Analyse the statement with suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: In India, power is shared between the Union Government and the State Governments, and this is a very important part of our Constitution.

  • The Constitution clearly divides powers between both levels of government. Some subjects like defence and foreign affairs are handled by the Union Government, while others like police and health are handled by State Governments.
  • This system helps both governments to work independently and smoothly in their own areas without interfering with each other.
  • It also allows people to take part in decision-making at different levels — national, state, and local — which makes democracy stronger.

Therefore, sharing of power between the Union and the States is basic to the Indian Constitution, as it ensures balance, cooperation, and better governance.


Q10: Explain the effectiveness of horizontal distribution of power in the context of India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, horizontal distribution of power means sharing power among the three organs of government — the LegislatureExecutive, and Judiciary.

This system is effective because:

  • Each organ checks the other: It prevents any one organ from becoming too powerful. For example, the judiciary can review laws made by the legislature.
  • Maintains balance and accountability: It ensures that power is used responsibly and within limits.

Thus, horizontal power sharing in India helps maintain a balance of power, protects democracy, and ensures fair governance.


Q11: How does the Indian Constitution ensure the division of powers between the Union and State Governments? Explain.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Indian Constitution clearly divides powers between the Union Government and the State Governments to ensure smooth functioning and avoid conflicts.

  1. Three Lists: The Constitution provides a Union ListState List, and Concurrent List.
    • The Union List includes subjects like defence and foreign affairs.
    • The State List includes subjects like police and public health.
    • The Concurrent List includes subjects like education and forests, where both can make laws.
  2. Clarity of Powers: This clear division helps both levels of government work independently and efficiently in their respective areas.
  3. Federal Structure: It maintains a federal balance and ensures that power is not concentrated at one level.

Thus, through these constitutional arrangements, India ensures a fair and effective division of power between the Union and the States.

Q12: How is the distribution of power among different social groups beneficial for democracy? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Distribution of power among different social groups helps democracy by making it more inclusive and fair.

  • It ensures that minorities and weaker sections get a share in decision-making, so they don’t feel neglected.
  • It helps in reducing social conflict and promotes harmony among different religious and linguistic groups.

Thus, sharing power among social groups makes democracy stronger, more equal, and more peaceful.

Q13: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (a): The French-speaking community was rich in comparison to the Dutch-speaking community in Belgium.

Reason (R): Dutch-speaking community got the benefit of economic development and education much later.  (1Mark)
(a)
 Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (a) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

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Ans: (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).

In Belgium, the French-speaking community was richer and more powerful, while the Dutch-speaking community received the benefits of economic development and education much later, which caused tensions between the two groups.


Q14: Which of the following is an example of horizontal power sharing in Indian democracy?  (1 Mark)

(a) Division of power between Central and State Governments.
(b) Division of power between Rural and Urban Governments.
(c) Division of power among Administration, Judiciary, and Army.
(d) Division of power among Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Division of power among Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary.

Horizontal power sharing in India refers to the separation of powers among the three organs of government — the LegislatureExecutive, and Judiciary — ensuring that each organ checks the others and prevents misuse of power.


Q15: Choose the correct option to fill the blank.  (1 Mark)
The Belgian leaders took a different path than Sri Lanka. They recognised the existence of regional differences and ____________
(a) 
Religious diversities
(b) Historical diversities
(c) Cultural diversities
(d) Administrative diversities

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Cultural diversities

  • The Belgian leaders recognised regional and cultural diversities and amended their Constitution to ensure fair power sharing among Dutch, French, and German-speaking communities.

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Q16: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (a): There was civil war in Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (a) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).

In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community passed an Act in 1956 making Sinhala the only official language, which led to discrimination against Tamils. This caused anger, distrust, and ultimately resulted in a civil war in the country.


Q17: Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:
I. Formation of community government.
II. Following majoritarian policy.
III. By providing equal representation of language groups.
IV. By providing additional powers to local governments.  (1 Mark)
(a) 
Only I, II, and III are correct.
(b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, II, and IV are correct.
(d) Only II, III, and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

Belgium solved its problems by:

  • forming a community government,
  • giving equal representation to Dutch and French-speaking groups, and
  • providing more powers to state and local governments.
    It did not follow a majoritarian policy like Sri Lanka.


Q18: “The law enacted in 1956 and other Constitutional Provisions led to major conflict between the two communities in Sri Lanka.” Support the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

After gaining independence in 1948, Sri Lanka adopted several majoritarian measures that favoured the Sinhala-speaking majority and ignored the Tamil-speaking minority. These steps created deep conflict between the two communities.

  1. Sinhala as the Only Official Language (1956):
    The government passed an Act making Sinhala the only official language, completely ignoring Tamil. This made it difficult for Tamil people to get government jobs and access public services.
  2. Preferential Policies for Sinhalas:
    The government gave preference to Sinhala applicants in universities and government employment, reducing opportunities for Tamils.
  3. Protection of Buddhism:
    The Constitution gave Buddhism a special status, ignoring the equal rights of Tamils, who were mostly Hindus and Muslims.
  4. Denial of Political and Cultural Rights:
    Tamil leaders demanded equal political rightsregional autonomy, and recognition of Tamil language, but these demands were repeatedly rejected.
  5. Rise of Conflict and Civil War:
    As a result, Tamil groups started demanding an independent Tamil state (Tamil Eelam). The distrust and anger grew, leading to a civil war that caused great loss of life, property, and peace in Sri Lanka.

Thus, the 1956 law and other discriminatory policies created a sense of alienation and injustice among Tamils, resulting in a long-lasting ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.


Q19: “Power sharing increases trust between different groups.” Support the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is an important feature of democracy because it helps to build trust and cooperation among different social and cultural groups. It ensures that no group feels ignored or dominated by another.

  1. Representation of All Groups:
    Power sharing gives all social, linguistic, and religious groups a role in governance. When everyone participates in decision-making, it reduces feelings of neglect or inequality.
  2. Reduces Social Conflicts:
    When power is shared fairly, it prevents anger and violence between communities. For example, Belgium avoided conflict between Dutch and French-speaking people by sharing power equally.
  3. Promotes Unity and Stability:
    Power sharing helps maintain the unity of the country. People are more likely to support the government when they see their interests being respected.
  4. Encourages Cooperation:
    It allows different groups to work together, promoting mutual respect and understanding among them.
  5. Strengthens Democracy:
    When power is distributed and everyone has a voice, democracy becomes stronger and more stable. It prevents domination and builds trust and confidence among citizens.

Thus, power sharing increases trust between different groups by ensuring fairness, equality, and participation in governance, which helps maintain peace and unity in a democratic country.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Identify the primary objective of power-sharing arrangements in Belgium from the following options. 
(a) Establishing a unitary form of government. 
(b) Centralized political control of government. 
(c) Establishing cultural and educational matters of Dutch. 
(d) Accommodating linguistic and regional interest.  (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: (d)
The primary objective of power-sharing arrangements in Belgium was to accommodate the diverse linguistic and regional interests of the country’s population, which includes Dutch-speaking, French-speaking, and a small German-speaking community. Belgium implemented a complex system of power sharing that allowed each linguistic group representation in the government to ensure peace and equality among communities, thus promoting social harmony and political stability.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Accommodating linguistic and regional interest.


Q2: Why is power sharing desirable? Explain.  (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Power sharing is desirable because it helps in maintaining peace, stability, and fairness within a society. Here’s why:

  • Prevents Conflict: Power sharing ensures that no single group dominates over others. This helps in reducing conflicts and tensions between different communities or groups, which might otherwise arise if one group holds too much power.
  • Promotes Democracy: Power sharing is a key feature of a democratic system. It ensures that people from different backgrounds (such as ethnic, religious, or social groups) have a say in decision-making, making the system more inclusive.
  • Encourages Cooperation: When power is shared, different groups are encouraged to cooperate and work together for the common good. This leads to more balanced and fair policies.
  • Protects Minority Rights: Power sharing helps protect the rights of minority groups by ensuring that they have representation in government and decision-making processes, preventing their interests from being ignored.
  • Ensures Political Stability: When different groups feel included in the governance process, it leads to greater political stability and reduces the chances of unrest or rebellion.

In summary, power sharing is desirable because it promotes fairness, reduces conflicts, supports democracy, and ensures that all groups have a voice in the political system.


Q3:  Which of the following was the primary objective of Belgium to form the separate government in Brussels?  (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
Promoting cultural events. 
(b) Managing international relations. 
(c) Enforcing local laws. 
(d) Ensuring linguistic accommodation. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Ensuring Linguistic accommodation. 
Belgium created a separate government in Brussels primarily to ensure linguistic accommodation between its two main communities: the Dutch-speaking Flemish and the French-speaking Walloons. Brussels, being a bilingual city, required a system that could manage the linguistic diversity in the region and ensure that both linguistic groups were fairly represented and their cultural needs met. This system of accommodation helped in reducing tensions between the Flemish and Walloon communities.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q4: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted ‘Tamil’ as the official language of the State.
Reason (R): The Government of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.    (2023)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Assertion (A): This is false. Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala, not Tamil, as the sole official language of the state in 1956, through the Sinhala Only Act. This led to discontent among the Tamil-speaking minority.

Reason (R): This is true. The Government of Sri Lanka did adopt a series of majoritarian measures, such as making Sinhala the official language and prioritizing Sinhala speakers in state employment and education, which marginalized the Tamil community.


Q5: Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option.
I. It deepens democracy.
II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups.
III. It is a way to ensure political stability.
IV. It brings socio-economic struggles.    (2023)
(a) I, II and III
(b) III, Ill and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
I. It deepens democracy: Power sharing allows various groups to participate in governance, making the political system more inclusive and democratic.

II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups: By giving different social groups a stake in political power, it reduces the chances of conflict, as everyone feels represented.

III. It is a way to ensure political stability: When power is shared among various groups, it promotes stability because it prevents any one group from dominating and causing unrest.

IV. This statement is incorrect: Power sharing aims to address socio-economic struggles rather than create them.


Q6: Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option :
(I) Majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy.
(II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups.
(III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.
(IV) Power sharing is the essence of democracy.        (2023)
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

II. It creates balance and harmony in different groups: Power sharing helps ensure that different social groups can coexist peacefully by allowing them to have a voice in governance.

III. It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups: By sharing power, it addresses the concerns of various groups, which helps prevent tensions and conflicts from escalating.

IV. Power sharing is the essence of democracy: In a democracy, it is crucial for different groups to have representation and influence in decision-making processes.

is incorrect because majoritarianism, which favors the majority, can undermine the rights and voices of minority groups, thus not reflecting the true spirit of democracy.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q7: Which one of the following elements is NOT included in the Belgium model? (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.
(d) There is a community government which has special powers of administration.

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Ans: (d)
There is a community government in Belgium, but it does not have “special powers of administration” in the way implied. Instead, it is responsible for cultural, educational, and language-related matters, ensuring that the needs of each linguistic community are respected. Hence, this option is not accurate in describing the Belgium model.


Q8: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states.
Reason (R): Dominance can undermine the unity of the country. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. In some democratic states, the majority community can dominate decision-making, which may marginalise minority groups.

Reason (R): This is true. When the majority excludes or sidelines minorities, it can lead to dissatisfaction and conflict, threatening the country’s unity and stability.


Q9: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A)  and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The distrust between Sinhalese and  Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka
Reason (R): 1956 Act recognised Sinhala as the only official language. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. The distrust between the Sinhalese and Tamil communities in Sri Lanka escalated into widespread conflict, culminating in a brutal civil war.

Reason (R): This is true. The 1956 Act, which made Sinhala the sole official language, was one of the key majoritarian measures taken by the Sinhalese-dominated government. This decision marginalized the Tamil community and fueled their resentment, leading to tensions and eventually violent conflict.


Q10: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Power-sharing is good.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between social groups. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. Power-sharing is considered beneficial as it promotes inclusivity and ensures that all groups in society have a voice in governance.

Reason (R): This is true. Power-sharing reduces the likelihood of conflict by addressing the grievances of different social groups, thereby fostering harmony and stability.


Q11: What is NOT an integral part of the government? (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Office of the Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary 

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Ans: (a)
While the Office of the Prime Minister is an important position in the government, it is not a separate branch or integral part of the government structure itself. The three main integral parts of the government are the Legislature (which makes laws), the Executive (which enforces laws), and the Judiciary (which interprets laws). The Prime Minister operates within the executive branch but does not represent a distinct part of the government like the others.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q12: 59 percent of the total population of Belgium live in the ______ region. (2021 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 59 percent of the total population of Belgium live in the Flemish region.


Q13: How did the Belgium government accommodate the social differences? (2021 C)

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Ans: The Belgian government has implemented a unique model to accommodate its social differences:

  • Equal representation: Both Dutch and French-speaking populations have equal representation in the central government.
  • Federal structure: Belgium is a Federal state, granting significant powers to state governments.
  • Independent state governments: State governments operate independently and are not subordinate to the central government.
  • Community government: There is a separate government for each language community, handling cultural and educational matters.
Also read: Extra Questions: Power-sharing

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q14: Which one of the following is a major religious group of Sri Lanka? (2020)  
(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhali and Tamil
(d) Sinhali and Christian

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Ans: (b)
In Sri Lanka, the major religious groups are primarily linked to the two main religions: Buddhism and Hinduism. The question asks for a major religious group in Sri Lanka. While “Sinhali and Tamil” represent the two primary ethnic groups in Sri Lanka, they are not religious groups. “Christian and Tamil” is also incorrect as Tamil is an ethnic group, not a religion. Buddhism and Hinduism are the major religions practiced in Sri Lanka. The Sinhala people, who mostly practice Buddhism, form a significant part of the population, while the Tamil community, which includes many Hindus, is also a major group. Thus, Buddhism and Hinduism represent the prominent cultural and religious identities among the different caste groups in the country.

Q15: Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘Community Government’ of Belgium? (2020)
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and Community government 

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Ans: (a)
In Belgium, the Community Government is designed to represent and share power among different social groups, such as linguistic communities (like the Flemish and French speakers). This system ensures that the diverse interests and identities within the country are recognized and that each group has a say in governance, promoting unity and reducing conflict among them.


Q16: State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities. (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Equal representation in the central government is a key step taken in Belgium to address regional differences and cultural diversities. 
The following measures have been implemented:

  • The constitution mandates that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers in the central government is equal.
  • Special laws require support from a majority of members from each linguistic group for certain decisions.
  • State governments have been granted significant powers, operating independently of the central government.
  • Brussels has a separate government that ensures equal representation for both communities.


Q17: The Belgium model of ‘Community government’ worked well because_______ (2020 C)

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Ans: The Belgium model of ‘Community government’ worked well because it recognized the belonging of individuals to one language community.

This approach has several advantages:

  • It promotes cultural identity by acknowledging the distinct languages spoken.
  • It allows for tailored governance that addresses the unique needs of each community.
  • It helps to maintain social harmony and prevent conflicts between different linguistic groups.

Overall, this model has contributed to a stable and inclusive political environment in Belgium.


Q18: Describe the horizontal power-sharing arrangements. (2020)

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Ans: Horizontal power-sharing involves the distribution of power among various branches of government. 
The key features are:

  • Power is shared among different organs of government, including the legislatureexecutive, and judiciary.
  • Each organ exercises distinct powers, ensuring that no single organ can dominate.


Q19: Why is there a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a democratic country? Give any one reason. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: It is necessary to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a country to avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group which would lead to social conflicts.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q20: Why was there an acute problem in Brussels during 1950s and 1960s between the two communities? (2019 C)

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Ans: During the 1950s and 1960s, tensions arose in Brussels between the two main communities in Belgium due to several factors:

  • The French-speaking community was a minority but was relatively wealthy and influential.
  • The Dutch-speaking community felt resentment as they had access to economic development and education much later.
  • Brussels posed a unique challenge: While the Dutch-speaking people were the majority in the country, they were a minority in the capital.


Q21: Explain the major repercussions of passing Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka in 1956. (2019 C)

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Ans: The major repercussion of passing Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka in 1956 was the increase in the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. This led to the launch of parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language.


Q22: Explain any one benefit of ‘Power-Sharing’. (AI2019)

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Ans: Power-sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups. A social conflict often leads to violence and political instability. Power sharing helps to ensure the stability of political order.


Q23: How did the idea of power-sharing emerge? Explain different forms that have common arrangements of power-sharing.  (Delhi 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The idea of power-sharing has emerged contrary to the notions of undivided political power. Earlier, it was believed that all powers of a government must reside in one person or group located in one place. It was felt that if the power to decide was dispersed, it would not be possible to make quick decisions and enforce them. However, these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.
Different forms that have common arrangements of Power Sharing:

  • Horizontal power-sharing: This involves distributing power among different branches of government, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary. Each branch checks the others, preventing any one branch from having unlimited power and ensuring a balance among institutions.
  • Vertical power-sharing: This refers to the division of power between different levels of government, such as the central government and state governments. In India, the constitution defines the powers of each level, ensuring clarity in governance.
  • Empowering social groups: Power can also be shared among various social groups, including religious and linguistic minorities. An example of this is the system of reserved constituencies in assemblies and Parliament, which aims to give minority communities a fair representation.
  • Political parties and pressure groups: Power-sharing is evident in how political parties, pressure groups, and social movements influence those in power. This competition helps prevent power from being concentrated in a single entity, allowing for diverse representation of ideologies and social interests.


Q24: Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.  (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony:
(1) Dutch and French speaking ministers got equal say and powers in the central government. 
(2) Many Powers of the central government have been transferred to state government. 
(3) The State government is no longer subordinate to the Central government. This helped in delegation of duties. 
(4) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. 
(5) There is a third kind of government called community government elected by the people belonging to Dutch, French and German communities no matter where they live.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q25: Explain the three measures taken by Sri Lanka, as per the Act passed in 1956. (2017)

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Ans: The three measures taken by Sri Lanka under the Act passed in 1956 are:

  • The government declared  Sinhala as the only official language, ignoring Tamil.
  • Preferential policies were implemented, favouring Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs.
  • A new Constitution mandated that the state would protect and promote Buddhism.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q26: How and when was Sinhala recognized as the official language of Sri Lanka?   (2016)

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Ans: 

  • Sinhala was officially recognised as the only language of Sri Lanka through an Act passed in 1956.
  • This decision established Sinhala as the sole official language.
  • It disregarded the Tamil language, leading to significant political and social implications.
  • Subsequent government policies favoured Sinhala speakers in education and employment.


Q27: What is the prudential reason behind power-sharing? (2016)

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Ans: The prudential reason for power-sharing is to avoid the concentration of power in one individual or group. 
This is important because:

  • It helps prevent authoritarianism, where one party has unchecked control.
  • It reduces the risk of oppression of minority groups.
  • Power-sharing promotes political stability and peace.


Q28: What does ‘the system of checks and balances’ ensure in power-sharing? (2016)

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Ans: The system of checks and balances ensures that:

  • No single individual or institution can hold unlimited power.
  • It prevents the abuse of power by distributing authority.
  • It protects the rights and interests of various groups within society.


Q29: Mention any one characteristic of power-sharing. (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: One characteristic of power-sharing is the sharing of power between different levels of government or between different communities or groups within a society.


Q30: How is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: The ethnic composition of Belgium is complex for several reasons:

  • Approximately 59% of the population resides in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch.
  • About 40% live in the Wallonia region and communicate in French.
  • Only 1% of Belgians speak German.
  • In Brussels, 80% of the population speaks French, while 20% speak Dutch.


Q31: How did Sri Lanka and the Belgium government try to solve the ethnic problem? (2016)

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Ans: Sri Lanka and the Belgium government tried to solve the ethnic problem in different ways:
(i) The Belgium government respected the feelings and interests of different communities and regions, establishing a federal structure and power-sharing between the Union Government and its constituent units.
(ii) Sri Lanka adopted majoritarianism, passing an Act in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, favoring Sinhala applicants for positions, and protecting and fostering Buddhism through the Constitution. 


Q32: “Attempts at forced integration often sow the seeds of disintegration”. Support the statement with suitable arguments. (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Forced integration can lead to disintegration due to the following reasons:

  • Integration through force can create feelings of resentment and conflict among different regions or communities.
  • Sharing power and resources often raises fears of domination by one group over another.
  • People prefer to maintain their autonomy rather than being overshadowed by others.
  • Historical examples, such as the breakup of the USSR, illustrate the negative effects of forced integration.

Therefore, integration should be based on harmonious and cooperative terms rather than coercion.


Q33: “Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united.” Do you agree with this statement and why? (2016)  

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Ans: Yes, I agree with the statement that the sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united. This is because:
(i) Power-sharing ensures that no single community or group dominates the decision-making process, promoting inclusivity and fairness.
(ii) It allows for the representation of diverse interests and perspectives, leading to better policies and governance.
(iii) Power-sharing can prevent the marginalization of certain communities or regions, reducing conflicts and promoting social cohesion.
(iv) By distributing power, it strengthens the democratic principles of participation, accountability, and checks and balances.


Q34: Why is power-sharing necessary in democracy? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: Power-sharing is necessary in democracy for several reasons:

  • Conflict Reduction: It helps to minimise conflicts between different social groups.
  • Political Stability: Power-sharing promotes a stable political environment, reducing the risk of violence and instability.
  • Unity Preservation: Imposing the will of the majority can seem appealing but ultimately harms national unity.
  • Majority Tyranny: The oppression of minorities can lead to negative consequences for the majority as well.
  • Democratic Spirit: True democracy involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, ensuring that citizens have a say in governance.
  • Legitimacy: A legitimate government is one where citizens participate and have a stake in the system.
Also read: Extra Questions: Power-sharing

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q35: Which factor is responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamil? (2015)

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Ans: The majoritarianism policy in Sri Lanka has significantly increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils
Key points include:

  • The policy favoured the Sinhalese community, leading to feelings of exclusion.
  • It resulted in discrimination in political rights and job opportunities for Tamils.
  • Government actions ignored the interests of the Tamil population.

These factors contributed to a growing sense of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.


Q36: Which type of powers does the community government of Belgium enjoy? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The community government of Belgium enjoys cultural and educational powers, as well as issues related to language.


Q37: State any two measures adopted by Sri Lanka in 1956 as part of their majoritarian policy. (2015)

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Ans: Two measures adopted by Sri Lanka in 1956 as part of their majoritarian policy were:
(i) They declared Sinhala as an official language.
(ii) They tried to promote their religion, Buddhism.


Q38: What system of power-sharing is called “Checks and Balances”? (2015)

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Ans: The system of power-sharing called “Checks and Balances” refers to the distribution of powers among different institutions of government, where each institution has the ability to check the actions of the others to ensure a balance of power.


Q39: Give reasons why power-sharing is desirable. (2015)

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Ans: Power-sharing is desirable for several reasons:

  • Prevents domination: It stops one community from overpowering others, promoting equality.
  • Encourages inclusivity: It accommodates diverse interests and identities, fostering social harmony.
  • Reduces conflict: It lowers the chances of tensions and disputes between communities.
  • Strengthens democracy: It ensures participation, accountability, and checks in decision-making.
  • Improves governance: It allows better representation and responsiveness to citizens’ needs.


Q40: What is a Homogenous Society? (CBSE 2015)  

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Ans: It is a society which shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. For example, Japan and South Korea.

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q41: Who formed the majority in terms of population in Sri Lanka? (2014)

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Ans: The majority of the population in Sri Lanka is formed by the Sinhala community.


Q42: What is the state religion of Sri Lanka? (2014)

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Ans: The state religion of Sri Lanka is Buddhism.


Q43: In which city is the headquarters of the European Union located? (2014)

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Ans: The headquarters of the European Union is located in Brussels.

07. Previous Year Questions: Lifelines of National Economy

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: How did improvement in transportation technology stimulate the globalisation process? Explain.  (2 Marks) 

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Ans: 

  • Improvement in transportation technology made the movement of goods and services faster, cheaper, and more efficient across countries.
  • Modern means of transport such as roadways, railways, airways, and waterways reduced time and distance barriers, expanding trade beyond limited spaces and turning the world into a “large village,” thereby accelerating the process of globalisation.


Q2: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor.
(ii) Name the leading state in coffee production.
(iii) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.
(iv) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans:
(i) The eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor is Silchar in Assam.
(ii) The leading state in coffee production is Karnataka.
(iii) The place where a nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh is Narora.
(iv) The place where a major sea port is located in Odisha is Paradwip.


Q3: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) 
Name the place where an international airport is located in West Bengal.
(ii) Name the place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka.
(iii) Name the place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.
(iv) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans:
(i) The place where an international airport is located in West Bengal is Kolkata.
(ii) The place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka is Bengaluru.
(iii) The place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra is Tarapur.
(iv) The place where a major sea port is located in Odisha is Paradwip.


Q4: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(a)
 Name the place where the major dam is located on the Chenab river.
(b) Name the place where Nuclear Power Plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Name the place where a major Software Technology Park is located in Karnataka.
(d) Name the place where a major Sea Port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans: 
(a) The major dam located on the Chenab River is the Salal Dam in Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) The Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh is at Narora.
(c) The major Software Technology Park in Karnataka is located at Bengaluru.
(d) The major Sea Port located in Odisha is Paradwip.

Q5: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the leading state in production of rice.
(ii) Name the place where coal-mines are located in Tamil Nadu.
(iii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Karnataka.
(iv) Name the oil field located in Maharashtra.

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Ans: 
(i) The leading state in the production of rice is West Bengal.
(ii) The place where coal mines are located in Tamil Nadu is Neyveli.
(iii) The major sea port located in Karnataka is New Mangalore Port.
(iv) The oil field located in Maharashtra is Mumbai High.

Q6: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the place where an International Airport is located in Punjab.
(ii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.
(iii) Name an oil field of India located in Arabian Sea.
(iv) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.

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Ans:
(i) The place where an international airport is located in Punjab is Amritsar.
(ii) The major sea port located in Gujarat is Deendayal Port (Kandla).
(iii) The oil field of India located in the Arabian Sea is Mumbai High.
(iv) The nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh is Narora.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: How are waterways an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India? Explain. (2023)

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Ans: Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India.
(i) The most ancient mode of water transport includes rivers, canals, lakes and coastal areas. Cargo as well as passenger was transported from one place to another through boats and steamers.
(ii) Heavy and bulky goods being exported or imported are easier for trans-shipment from water ways to ship on the coast as the waterways led to ports.
(iii) Inland waterways are the only means of transport in dense forests. Also, heavy cargo goods like coal, cement, timber and metallic ores can be transported through this mode.
(iv) It is fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport, so it most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods and people over long distance.
(v) Its importance has been recognised in the developed world for both domestic and international trade. Efforts have been made to modify rivers to enhance navigability by dredging, stabilising river banks, and building dams and barrages for better regulation of water flow.


Q2: Explain the important features of Air Transport in India. (2023)

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Ans: (i) The air travel, today, is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
(ii) It can cover very difficult terrains like high mountains, dreary deserts, dense forests, and long oceanic stretches with great ease, serving India (varied relief and terrain) adequately.
(iii) In India, it is because of air travel that visits to the north-eastern part of the country marked by dissected relief, big rivers, dense forests, frequent floods and international frontiers has become much convenient and easier,
(iv) Air transport is essential in providing for import and export of various goods.
(v) It also provides for quick relief measures and rescue operations in difficult times of natural calamities and disasters.
The advancement in the means of air transport has proved to be of great importance to the efficiency of the Indian economy as a whole. From increasing the popularity of tourist destinations to the role of a lifesaver during emergency situations, it has significantly added to the vitality of the Indian Economy.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q3: Read the following table and answer the question that follow:
The Indian Railway nework

(I) Which gauge covers maximum of track length in hilly areas in India? 
(II) Which gauge has the highest length in India?    (2022)

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Ans: 


Q4: Read the source given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: 
Lifelines of National Economy 
For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other. Today, India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socioeconomic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
(i) How is science an important factor in the development of transport?
(ii) How has transport integrated socio-cultural plurality? Explain.
(iii) Analyse the significance of communication for a nation.  (Term-2,2021-22)

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Ans: (i) Today transport is cheaper, carries goods farther and get us to our destination easily. It is an outcome of science that improved and developed the operational characteristics such as speed, affordability, price, etc.
(ii) Transport integrated the socio-cultural plurality by efficiently moving goods and people from one place to another.
(iii) Communication helps in quick transmission of ideas, information and messages from person to person and from one place to another. It has connected all regions of a nation and all nation with the world. Well-developed communication also gives boost to transport system of a nation.


Q5: Read the following source and answer the questions that follows:
Tourism
Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism. There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country. Efforts are being made to promote different types of tourism for this upcoming industry.
(i) Explain the importance of tourism. 
(ii) Give an example of ‘Heritage tourism’.
(iii) Assess the benefits of improving tourism in India.  (Term-2,2021-22)

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Ans: (i) Tourism boosts the revenue of the economy, creates thousands of jobs, develops the infrastructures of a country, and plants a sense of cultural exchange between foreigners and citizens.
(ii) Monuments like Qutub minar, Taj mahal, etc. are examples of cultural heritage.
(iii) Tourism has great capacity to create large scale employment of diverse kind – from the most specialised to the unskilled. Tourism can only be sustainable when it is carefully managed. It helps to preserve several places which are of historical importance by declaring them as heritage site. Tourism can also help in conserving the natural habitats of many endangered species.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q6: Match the following and select the correct option:


(a) I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4
(b) I – 2, II – 3, III – 1, IV – 4
(c) I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV -1
(d) I – 4, II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2

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Ans: (c)
I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV -1

  • Kandla (I) is located in Gujarat (4), and it’s one of the major ports on the west coast of India.
  • Tuticorin (II) is in Tamil Nadu (3) and serves as an important port for trade and fishing.
  • Paradwip (III) is located in Odisha (2) and is known for its deep-water harbor, primarily used for exporting iron ore.
  • Haldia (IV) is in West Bengal (1) and is a significant port for handling cargo and shipping.
Also read: NCERT Textbook: Lifelines of National Economy

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q7: Which is the oldest artificial sea port of India? (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Chennai


Q8: Name the first major sea port developed soon after Independence on the Western Coast. (2020)

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Ans: Kandla port was developed soon after independence, jion the western coast.


Q9: Name the inland riverine major sea port of India. (2020)

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Ans: Kolkata port is the inland riverine major port of India.


Q10: Which is the deepest, landlocked and well-protected sea port of India? (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Visakhapatnam


Q11: Which organization is responsible for constructing and maintaining State Highways in India? (2020)

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Ans: Border roads have improved the accessibility in areas of strategic importance and of difficult terrain. They also helped in the economic development of these areas.


Q12: Name the organization that constructs and maintains the District Roads. (2020)

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Ans: State Public Works Department (SPWD)


Q13: Suggest any one way to enhance pilgrimage tourism through Indian Railways. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Railways for enhancing pilgrimage -Pilgrim special tourist train, by providing tourist packages, by making different boarding and de-boarding stations.


Q14: “Rail transport suffers from certain problems in India.” Support the statement with examples. (2020)

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Ans: Problems faced by railway transport:-
(i) Indian railway receives low investment as compared to other departments.
(ii) It has also faced a problem as sinking of track in some stretches and land slides.
(iii) Poor infrastructure such as old track, poor quality of food etc.


Q15: “Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development.” Express your views in favor of this statement. (2020, Delhi 2016)

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Ans: We need various things to sustain our lives in the form of goods, services and support systems. The same applies to all occupational activities. Each of the requirements cannot be in the close vicinity of our place of living. We need to move the goods and services from the supply localities to the demand localities and this is done by the transportation system. We also need efficient transportation for people to reach their places of work, play and learning efficiently. All these activities, which are integral in the economic growth of the local population and the country as a whole is greatly dependent on the transport sector. Thus a dense and efficient network of transportation is a pre-requisite for local and national development. Examples are as follows:
(i) Fast and efficiently moving transport is required for traded items to reach their destinations on time, otherwise business will suffer.
(ii) Transport is required to carry raw materials to production centres.
(iii) From manufacturing hubs to market particularly for perishable goods.


Q16: Describe the growing importance of road transport. (2020)

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Ans: The growing importance of road transport:
(i) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines.
(ii) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
(iii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
(iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances. (v) It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.


Q17: Suggest any one way to improve the postal system in India. (2020)

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Ans: Use of technology in the postal system, such as digitalization, automation, and online tracking services.


Q18: “Communication provides entertainment and creates awareness among masses”. Justify the statement. (2020 C)

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Ans: Communication refers to convey messages and ideas between individuals or masses. They provide entertainment and create awareness among the masses and integrated the people in the following ways:
(i) Everyday at regular intervals, we hear or watch the news on the radio and television.
(ii) News are given on variety of subjects and topics and people come to know what is happening in the society, politics and economy.
(iii) Doordarshan, the national television channel of India, is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of programmes for entertainment, educational, sport etc. for people of different age groups.
(iv) People are entertaining through watching videos, feature films and short films.
(v) India is one the fastest growing mobile networks in the world. Mobile phones have change the way of business. Now, even low-income group people like vegetable vendors, plumbers and carpenters do better businesses because they are connected through mobile phones.


Q19: “Tourism in India provides large amount of employment and promotes national integration.” Justify the statement. (2020 C)

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Ans: There has been a sustained growth in tourism in India over the last three decades. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. Over 10 million foreign tourists arrived in India in 2017. Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits. It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco- tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.

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Previous Year Questions 2019

Q20: “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with examples. (2020 C, Delhi 2019, Al 2016)

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Ans: Roadways still have an edge over the railways. This is because: 
(i) 
Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines and construction time is also comparatively less.
(ii) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography which is a limitation in case of railways.
(iii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains like the Himalayas, whereas the mountainous regions are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief. Similarly it is difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains in the deserts, swampy or forested tracks.
(iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances, whereas railways are suitable for transportation of large number of people and goods in bulk, especially over long distances.
(v) Roadways provide the “last mile connectivity” and provide the door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
(vi) Road transport is the idea to feeder mode of transport to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and seaports.


Q21: Highlight the significance of pipelines as a means of transportation, with suitable examples. (2019 C)

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Ans: Pipeline transport is the transportation of goods or materials through a pipe. In the past, pipes were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are also used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.
The far inland locations of refineries like Barauni, Mathura, Panipat and gas based fertiliser plants have been functioning only because of pipelines. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal. It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.


Q22: Highlight any five major problems faced by road transport in India. (2019 C)

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Ans: Road transportation in India faces a number of problems. Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate. About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy season.
The National Highways are inadequate too. Moreover, the roadways are highly congested in cities and most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.


Q23: Why is air travel preferred in North-Eastern States of India? Explain with examples. (2019 C)

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Ans: Factors that made air travel prominence in North- Eastern states in India.
(i) It can cover difficult terrains area like high mountains which are, by road difficult to reach.
(ii) The north-eastern part of the country marked with the presence of big rivers, dense forest and frequent floods and international frontiers has made the air travel important.
(iii) As per the geographical location of north-eastern states, the area known by road can be accessed to siliguri corridor (Sikkim) is the only route to connect with other parts of India. In this scenario, air travel is placed on utmost importance.


Q24: Describe any five benefits of tourism in India. (Al 2019)

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Ans: Tourism is very important for the Indian economy:
(i) According to the World Travel and Tourism Council tourism generated US$230 billion or 9.4% of the nation’s GDP in 2017 and supported 41.622 million jobs, 8% of its total employment. Over 10 million foreign tourists arrived in India in 2017.
(ii) Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
(iii) It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.
(iv) The various industries that benefit from tourism are handicraft industry, sculpture, sea-shell, regional handloom etc.
(v) Hospitality is another sector that benefits tremendously from tourism. So does the transport sector including air, railways and road transport.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q25: Recognize the form of power sharing which is represented by the Community Government in Belgium. (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: The community government represented power sharing among different social groups like the religious and linguistic groups.

Also read: NCERT Textbook: Lifelines of National Economy

2017 & Rest of Years Questions

Q26: Name the river related to National Waterways No. 2. (Al 2017)

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Ans: The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891km)


Q27: Name the river which is related to National Waterways No. 1. (Al 2017)

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Ans: The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)


Q28: Name the state related to National Waterways No. 3. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans: Kerala

Q29: Examine with an example the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable. (Al 2017)

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Ans: Means of transport and communication play a crucial role in improving our lives and contributing to prosperity and comfort. Here’s an example to illustrate this:
Example: Online shopping and doorstep delivery
The advent of e-commerce platforms and efficient means of transportation have revolutionized the way we shop. Online shopping allows us to browse through a wide range of products from the comfort of our homes and make purchases with just a few clicks. The role of transportation in this context is to ensure the timely delivery of these products to our doorsteps.
Benefits:
1. Convenience: Online shopping eliminates the need to visit physical stores, saving time and effort. We can shop at any time, from anywhere, and have the products delivered to our desired location.
2. Wide selection: E-commerce platforms offer a vast range of products, giving us access to items that may not be available locally. This expands our choices and allows us to find specific products that meet our needs and preferences.
3. Competitive pricing: Online shopping often offers competitive prices and discounts compared to traditional retail stores. This enables us to find better deals and save money on our purchases.
4. Comfortable experience: By eliminating the need to travel and navigate crowded stores, online shopping provides a more comfortable and stress-free shopping experience. We can avoid long queues, parking hassles, and the physical strain of carrying heavy shopping bags.
Transportation and communication play a crucial role in the success of online shopping. Efficient transport systems ensure the timely delivery of products, while communication networks enable us to track our orders, receive notifications, and communicate with sellers if needed. This integration of transport and communication enhances the overall shopping experience, making our lives more prosperous and comfortable.


Q30: What is a new arrival on the transportation map of India? (2016)

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Ans: Pipeline transportation network, which transports gas, liquids, and solids in slurry form.


Q31: Elaborate any three advantages of railways in India. (2016)

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Ans: Railways in India offer several advantages that contribute to the country’s development. Here are three key advantages:
1. Efficient long-distance travel: Railways provide a reliable and efficient mode of transportation for long-distance travel. They offer comfortable and affordable options for individuals to commute between cities and towns.
2. Freight transportation: Railways are instrumental in transporting bulky goods and raw materials across the country. They have a higher carrying capacity compared to other modes of transport, making them ideal for the movement of heavy cargo.
3. Employment generation: The railway sector provides significant employment opportunities. From train operations to maintenance and infrastructure development, railways create jobs for a diverse range of professionals and laborers, contributing to economic growth and livelihoods.


Q32: What is pipeline transportation? Write two merits and demerits of the same. (2016)

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Ans: Pipeline transportation is a mode of transport that involves the movement of liquids, gases, or slurry through pipelines. Here are two merits and two demerits of pipeline transportation:
Merits:
1. Cost-effective: Once the pipeline network is established, the running costs are relatively low compared to other modes of transport. It requires minimal human intervention for operation.
2. Safety and efficiency: Pipelines offer a safe and reliable way to transport liquids and gases, minimizing the risk of accidents and spillage. They also provide a continuous flow of materials without delays or trans-shipment losses.
Demerits:
1. High initial investment: The construction and establishment of pipeline networks require substantial upfront investment. This can be a significant financial barrier, especially for developing countries.
2. Limited versatility: Pipelines are primarily designed for the transportation of specific materials, such as oil, gas, or water. They may not be suitable for transporting a wide variety of goods, limiting their applicability in certain industries or regions.


Q33: How do modern means of transport serve as lifelines for our nation? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: Modern means of transport serve as lifelines for our nation in the following ways:
(i) Economic development: Transport and communication networks are essential for the economic development of a region or country. They connect areas of production with areas of consumption, facilitate the movement of goods and services, and support industrial growth.
(ii) Accessibility and connectivity: Modern means of transport provide accessibility and connectivity to remote areas, ensuring their integration into the national economy. They link villages with towns, connect agricultural areas with industrial centers, and enable trade and commerce across regions.
(iii) Social integration: Transport networks promote social integration by facilitating the movement of people, goods, and ideas. They enable cultural exchange, tourism, and the sharing of knowledge and experiences.
(iv) Emergency response: Modern means of transport play a crucial role in emergency response and disaster management. They enable the quick transportation of relief materials, rescue operations, and the evacuation of affected populations during natural calamities.
(v) National defense: Transport networks are vital for national defense and security. They ensure the rapid movement of troops, equipment, and supplies during times of war or crisis.
(vi) Employment generation: The transport sector creates employment opportunities in various fields, including logistics, maintenance, and administration. It contributes to both formal and informal sectors, supporting livelihoods and economic growth.


Q34: What is the major objective to develop superhighways? (2015)

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Ans: The major objective behind developing superhighways is to reduce the distance and travel time between large cities in India.


Q35: Why was Jawaharlal Nehru port developed? (2015)

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Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru port was developed to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub for the region.


Q36: Why was the Haldia seaport set up? (2015)

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Ans: The Haldia seaport was set up as a subsidiary port to reduce the load on the Kolkata port.


Q37: Describe the rural roads in India. (2015)

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Ans: Rural roads in India are crucial for connecting rural areas and villages with important towns and cities. Here are some key features of rural roads in India:
1. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY): The government of India launched the PMGSY to improve rural connectivity. Under this scheme, efforts are made to provide all-weather motorable roads to every village, ensuring accessibility throughout the year.
2. Connectivity: Rural roads aim to connect remote and isolated areas with major towns and cities. They promote accessibility to essential services such as healthcare, education, and markets.
3. Infrastructure: Rural roads are often built using cost-effective materials like gravel, crushed stone, or bitumen. They are designed to withstand the local weather conditions and accommodate the transportation needs of rural communities.


Q38: Describe any three features of waterways in India. (AI 2015)

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Ans: Waterways in India have unique features that make them an important mode of transport. Here are three key features of waterways in India:
1. Extensive network: India has a vast network of waterways, including rivers, canals, and coastal areas. These waterways cover a significant portion of the country, providing connectivity to various regions.
2. Cost-effective: Waterways are known for their cost-effectiveness, especially for bulk transportation. Compared to other modes of transport, such as road or rail, water transport is relatively cheaper, making it suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
3. Environment-friendly: Water transport has a lower carbon footprint compared to road or air transport. It is considered a more sustainable mode of transportation as it reduces greenhouse gas emissions and minimizes fuel consumption.


Q39: Describe any three factors that accord prominence to airways as a mode of transportation. (2015)

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Ans: Airways, or air transport, have several factors that make them prominent in the transportation sector. Here are three key factors:
1. Speed and efficiency: Airways are the fastest mode of transportation, allowing people and goods to reach their destinations quickly. Air travel significantly reduces travel time and enables businesses to operate more efficiently.
2. Accessibility to remote areas: Air transport plays a vital role in connecting remote and inaccessible areas. It allows people living in remote regions to access essential services and facilitates economic development in these areas.
3. Emergency response: Airways play a crucial role in emergency situations like natural disasters or medical emergencies. The ability to quickly transport relief materials, medical supplies, and personnel to affected areas can save lives and provide timely assistance.


Q40: Why are metalled roads better than unmetalled roads? What is the role of border roads and national highways in transportation? (2015)

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Ans: Metalled roads, also known as paved roads, offer several advantages over unmetalled roads. Here’s why metalled roads are better:
1. Durability: Metalled roads are made with materials like concrete, asphalt, or bitumen, making them more durable and resistant to wear and tear caused by traffic and weather conditions. They have a longer lifespan compared to unmetalled roads.
2. All-weather usability: Metalled roads can be used year-round, regardless of weather conditions. They can withstand heavy rains, floods, and other adverse weather events, providing reliable transportation throughout the year.
Border roads and national highways play vital roles in transportation:
1. Border roads: Border roads connect strategically important and challenging areas along the country’s borders. They aid in the movement of defense personnel, supplies, and equipment, ensuring the security and accessibility of border regions.
2. National highways: National highways are primary road networks that connect major cities, towns, and industrial centers across the country. They facilitate the movement of goods, services, and people on a large scale, supporting economic development and regional integration.


Q41: “Road transport and Rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to each other.” Justify the statement. (Foreign 2015)

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Ans: Road transport and rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to each other due to the following reasons:
(i) Different capacities: Road transport is suitable for smaller amounts of goods and a few passengers over short distances, while rail transport is more efficient for bulk transportation and long-distance travel.
(ii) Accessibility and connectivity: Road transport provides last-mile connectivity, linking rural areas and towns to railway stations and other modes of transport. It acts as a feeder route for rail transport, ensuring accessibility to remote areas.
(iii) Flexibility: Road transport offers flexibility in terms of routes and schedules, allowing for quick and customized transportation. Rail transport, on the other hand, provides a fixed and reliable schedule for mass transportation.
(iv) Perishable goods: Road transport is ideal for the transportation of perishable goods over short distances, ensuring their freshness and quality. Rail transport is more suitable for non-perishable goods and bulk commodities.
(v) Cost-effectiveness: Road transport has lower construction and maintenance costs compared to rail transport. It is more economical for transportation over shorter distances and smaller quantities of goods.
(vi) Urban congestion: Road transport helps alleviate urban congestion by providing local transportation within cities and towns. It reduces the burden on rail transport in heavily populated areas.
(vii) Intermodal connectivity: Both road transport and rail transport are essential for intermodal connectivity, facilitating the seamless movement of goods and passengers between different modes of transport, such as ports, airports, and railway stations.

06. Previous Year Questions: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Industries are one of the main causes of air pollution. Many factories release harmful gases and smoke into the air. The presence of gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide makes the air impure and dangerous for living beings. Smoke from chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries, and smelting plants, as well as from the burning of fossil fuels in factories, adds to the problem. These industries also release tiny solid and liquid particles such as dust, sprays, mist, and smoke into the atmosphere. This polluted air affects human health, damages plants and buildings, and harms the environment as a whole.

To reduce air pollution caused by industries, the following measures can be taken:

  • Install smoke stacks with devices such as electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators to trap dust and harmful particles before releasing gases into the air.
  • Use cleaner fuels like oil or gas instead of coal in factories to reduce smoke and soot.
  • Plant green belts around industrial areas to absorb pollutants and maintain clean air.

By adopting these steps, industries can help reduce air pollution and protect the environment.

Q2: Explain the role of industries in increasing water pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce water pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

Role of industries in increasing water pollution:

  • Industries release organic and inorganic wastes such as dyes, detergents, acids, salts, and heavy metals like lead and mercury into rivers and ponds.
  • Paper, pulp, chemical, textile, dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries, and electroplating industries are the main sources of water pollution.
  • These pollutants make water unsafe for drinking and harmful to aquatic life.
  • Thermal power plants discharge hot water into rivers and ponds without cooling, causing thermal pollution, which affects aquatic organisms.
  • Soil and water pollution are closely related, as rainwater carries pollutants from the soil into groundwater.

Measures to reduce water pollution:

  • Treat industrial effluents before releasing them into water bodies through primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment.
  • Reuse and recycle water in different stages of production to minimise wastage.
  • Harvest rainwater to meet water needs and reduce dependence on polluted or underground sources.

By applying these measures, industries can help reduce water pollution and protect the environment.

Q3: “Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country.” Justify the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Manufacturing industries are known as the backbone of economic development because they play a key role in the progress of a country.

  • Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture, which is the main occupation in India. They produce machines, irrigation pumps, fertilisers, pesticides, and tools that increase agricultural productivity and make farming more efficient.
  • These industries reduce dependence on agriculture by providing employment to many people in factories and service-related sectors. This helps in reducing unemployment and poverty in the country.
  • The growth of industries helps to reduce regional disparities by setting up factories in tribal and backward areas, thus promoting balanced regional development.
  • By exporting manufactured goods, the country earns valuable foreign exchange which strengthens trade and commerce.
  • Countries that convert their raw materials into a wide range of finished goods become more prosperous because finished products have higher value.

Therefore, manufacturing industries are essential for India’s growth as they support agriculture, create jobs, promote balanced development, and make the country economically strong.

Q4: “Agriculture and industries complement each other.” Justify the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Agriculture and industries complement each other by providing raw materials, markets, employment, and supporting economic development.

  • Raw Materials for Industries: Agriculture supplies raw materials like cotton, jute, and sugarcane to industries such as textiles, jute, and sugar, as emphasized in the chapter.
  • Market for Industrial Goods: Agricultural communities create demand for industrial products like fertilizers, pesticides, and machinery, boosting industrial growth.
  • Employment Opportunities: Both sectors generate jobs; agriculture supports rural livelihoods, while agro-based industries (e.g., food processing) employ both rural and urban workers.
  • Economic Development: The interdependence of agriculture and industry drives economic growth by ensuring a steady supply of raw materials and markets, as discussed in the chapter.

Q5: Explain the measures taken by ‘National Thermal Power Corporation’ to prevent environmental degradation.  (5 Marks) 

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Ans: The National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) has taken several important steps to prevent environmental degradation while generating power. It has also received ISO certification for Environment Management System (EMS 14001) for its efforts.

  1. NTPC follows a proactive approach to preserve natural resources such as water, oil, gas, and fuel in the areas where its power plants are located.
  2. It ensures the optimum use of equipment by adopting the latest technology and upgrading existing machinery to improve efficiency and reduce pollution.
  3. The corporation focuses on minimising waste generation and promotes maximum utilisation of ash produced in thermal power plants.
  4. NTPC has developed green belts around its plants to maintain ecological balance and support afforestation.
  5. It also works to reduce environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling systems, and liquid waste management.
  6. NTPC conducts ecological monitoring and maintains an online database for all its power stations to ensure environmental standards are met.

Through these measures, NTPC has set an example of how industrial growth can be achieved along with environmental protection.

Q6: Explain the importance of the manufacturing industry in the Indian economy.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The manufacturing industry plays a very important role in the growth and development of the Indian economy. It is considered the backbone of economic progress because of the following reasons:

  • Modernises agriculture: The manufacturing sector supports agriculture by producing machines, fertilisers, pesticides, irrigation pumps, and other tools that help farmers increase productivity and make farming more efficient.
  • Reduces dependence on agriculture: It provides jobs to a large number of people in the secondary and tertiary sectors, thus reducing the heavy dependence on agricultural income and helping to remove unemployment and poverty.
  • Promotes regional development: By setting up industries in tribal and backward areas, it helps reduce regional disparities and promotes balanced regional growth across the country.
  • Boosts foreign trade: The export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in valuable foreign exchange, strengthening the country’s position in global markets.
  • Adds value to raw materials: Manufacturing converts raw materials into finished goods of higher value, which increases national income and prosperity.

Hence, the manufacturing industry is vital for India’s progress as it supports agriculture, creates employment, promotes regional balance, enhances exports, and strengthens the overall economy.

Q7: How do industries increase thermal pollution? Suggest any three measures to reduce thermal pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: How industries increase thermal pollution:

  • Industries and thermal power plants often release hot water into rivers, ponds, and lakes without cooling it first.
  • This increases the temperature of water bodies, reducing the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water.
  • As a result, aquatic life such as fish and plants are harmed or even destroyed due to sudden temperature changes.
  • Continuous discharge of hot water disturbs the natural balance of aquatic ecosystems.

Measures to reduce thermal pollution:

  • Cool hot water before discharge — Industries should cool or treat hot water before releasing it into water bodies.
  • Reuse and recycle water — Water should be reused in different stages of industrial processes to reduce the amount of heated water being released.
  • Use modern and efficient equipment — Adopting advanced technologies and energy-efficient machinery can help reduce the generation of excess heat.

By following these measures, industries can significantly reduce thermal pollution and protect aquatic ecosystems.

Q8: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.
Reason (R): India is the second largest exporter of jute.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

It is true that most of the jute industry in India is located along the banks of the Hugli river in West Bengal. This is because of the availability of raw jute, cheap labour, water transport, rail and road connectivity, and abundant water for processing.
It is also true that India is the second largest exporter of jute, but this is not the reason for the industry’s location along the Hugli river.

Q9: On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :   (3 Marks)
(i) Leading state in production of Jute  
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat  
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand  
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

Political Map of India

Ans: 

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Leading state in production of Jute: West Bengal

  • The chapter highlights that West Bengal is the leading state in jute production and jute-based industries, particularly due to its proximity to jute-growing areas and the availability of water for processing. Kolkata and its surrounding areas host major jute mills.

Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat: Kakrapar

  • The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a well-known nuclear power plant in Gujarat, located near Surat.

Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand: Bokaro

  •  The chapter specifically mentions the Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand as a major iron and steel plant, part of the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, rich in mineral resources.

Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

  • Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport (Amritsar) is the third-largest airport in Northern India.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “The development process of India has experienced transformation due to the significant influence of Information Technology (IT) and Electronic Industry.” Explain the statement with examples.   (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: 

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(1) Products in the electronics sector range widely, from cell phones to televisions, and India’s development in these products and services has been significantly shaped by the Information Technology (IT) and electronics industry.
(2) India’s economy has changed and its GDP has increased dramatically as a result of the country’s emergence as a major global center for IT, especially in cities like Bangalore, Hyderabad, and Pune.
(3) The IT industry has boosted India’s reputation as a leading global technology destination and directly or indirectly generated millions of jobs. This growth was further accelerated by the “Make in India” initiative, which attracted foreign investments in the electronic sector and promoted domestic manufacturing.
(4) The rapidly expanding Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) sector in this industry has made it a significant source of foreign exchange earnings over the past two or three years.
(5) India’s competitiveness in the international market has increased as a result of the growth of the information technology and electronics industry.

IT Innovation

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Why does the textile industry occupy a unique position in the Indian economy? Explain. (2023)

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Ans: The textile industry holds a unique position in the Indian economy for several reasons:

  • It is the only industry that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, covering everything from raw materials to finished products.
  • The industry generates demand for various sectors, including chemicals, dyes, packaging materials, and engineering.
  • It significantly contributes to industrial production, employment, and foreign exchange earnings.

Overall, the textile industry is vital for the growth and sustainability of the Indian economy.


Q3: Explain any three ways through which industrial pollution can be reduced. (2023)

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Ans: Three ways through which industrial pollution can be reduced are:

  • Use of Efficient Machinery: Equipping machinery and generators with silencers to reduce noise pollution.
  • Recycling Waste: Treat and recycle waste and effluents using biological and mechanical processes.
  • Install Pollution Control Devices: Fit factories with smoke screens, electrostatic precipitators, and scrubbers to minimise emissions.


Q4:  “Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.” Support the statement with examples. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: The agro-industries significantly enhance agriculture by boosting productivity. 
Here are some key points:

  • Supply of Inputs: Agro-industries provide essential tools and materials like irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, and machinery, enabling farmers to increase food production.
  • Transportation: These industries assist in transporting agricultural goods to markets and also consume these products.
  • Job Creation: Manufacturing industries modernise agriculture and create jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors, reducing reliance on agricultural income.
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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q5: Why is the iron and steel industry called the ‘basic industry’? Explain. (Term-ll, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: The iron and steel industry is referred to as a basic industry because:

  • It provides essential materials for various sectors.
  • It is crucial for producing engineering goods.
  • It supplies materials for constructiondefence, and medical equipment.
  • It supports the manufacturing of telephonic and scientific equipment.
  • It is a key component in creating a wide range of consumer goods.

Overall, the production and consumption of steel reflect a country’s development.


Q6: Explain the importance of the ‘cement’ industry. (Term-ll, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: The cement industry is crucial for various reasons:

  • Construction: It is vital for building homes, factories, bridges, and roads.
  • Economic Growth: With rising government spending, this industry significantly contributes to development.
  • Diverse Production: It produces various types of cement to meet different construction needs.


Q7: Read the case given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:      (2022)
NTPC shows the way

NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environmental  Management System) 14001. The corporation has a pro-active approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through
(a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
(b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
(c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
(i) Which is the major power providing corporation in India?
(ii) Name the institution which issues ISO certification for Environment Management System.
(iii) Explain the pro-active approach of NTPC for preserving the natural environment. 

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Ans: (i) NTPC is the major power providing corporation in India, which is expanded as National Thermal Power Corporation.
(ii) An ISO certification in India can be issued by a third party certification body that is accredited by the National Accreditation Board of certification.
(iii) (a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment,
(b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
(c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.


Q8: How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced?  (CBSE Term-2 2022)

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Ans: Industrial pollution of fresh water can be reduced by taking the following measures: 
(1) Minimise the usage of water by reusing and recycling it through multiple successive stages. 
(2) Compulsory treatment of hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.


Q9: Classify industries on the basis of raw materials.  (CBSE Term-2 2022)

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Ans: Industries can be classified based on the raw materials they use. 
The main categories are:

  • Agro-Based Industries: These industries rely on agricultural products, such as textiles, sugar, and edible oils.
  • Mineral-Based Industries: These industries use minerals and metals, including iron, steel, and cement.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q10: “Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of a country.” Support the statement with examples. (2021 C, Foreign 2017)

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Ans: 

The manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of economic development.

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  • Support for Agriculture: The manufacturing sector provides essential inputs for agriculture, such as tractors, harvesting machines, and fertilizers, which modernise farming practices.
  • Employment Opportunities: Establishing industries in tribal and backward areas creates jobs, improving the economic status of local communities.
  • Value Addition: The sector enhances employment by adding value to goods. For instance, countries like the USA export finished products rather than raw materials.
  • Trade Expansion: Exporting manufactured goods boosts trade and generates foreign exchange, contributing to national prosperity.
  • Interdependence: Agriculture and industry complement each other. Agro-industries rely on agricultural raw materials and provide products that enhance farming efficiency.

Agro-Industrial Growth

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q11: Which of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material?   (2020)
(a) 
Cement
(b) Aluminium smelting
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Chemical   

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Ans: (b)
Bauxite is primarily used as a raw material in the production of aluminum through a process called smelting. It is rich in aluminum oxide, which is extracted to produce aluminum metal, making it essential for the aluminum industry. Other industries like cement and iron and steel do not use bauxite as their primary raw material.


Q12: Fill in the blank:
(i)  ___________ industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils, and wires. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Aluminium industry.

(ii) Limestone, silica, alumina, and gypsum are the raw materials of ___________ industry. (2020)

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Ans: Cement industry.


Q13: Suggest any one measure to promote handspun khadi in India. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Schemes for promoting khadi: Government should promote it by reducing cost of khadi.


Q14: Explain the ways through which the industrial pollution of fresh water can be reduced. (2020)

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Ans: When an industry discharges one litre of polluted water without any proper treatment, it can pollute at least eight times the quantity of freshwater. 
To reduce the pollution of water bodies the following action should be taken:
(i) Minimising water use for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
(iii) Treating hot water and other effluents before releasing them in water bodies.
(iv) Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry or even for agricultural purposes need to be regulated and a viable solution needs to be implemented.


Q15: Which one of the following is a private sector industry? 
(a) BHEL 
(b) TISCO 
(c) OIL 
(d) SAIL (CBSE 2020, 12)

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Ans: (b)
(a) BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited): This is a public sector company owned by the Government of India.
(b) TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company, now Tata Steel): This is a private sector industry owned by the Tata Group.
(c) OIL (Oil India Limited): This is a public sector company.
(d) SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited): This is also a public sector company.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) TISCO, as it is a private sector industry.

Also read: Infographics: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q16: Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in and around Chota Nagpur Plateau region. (2019,2014)

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Ans: Iron and steel Industry called as the ‘basic industry’ because it is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction materials, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipments and a variety of consumer goods.


Q17: How are industries responsible for environmental degradation in India? Explain with examples. (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Industries are responsible for environmental degradation in the following ways: 
(i) Many times pollution norms are not followed by the industries. The effluents are not treated before they discharge into air or water bodies. 
(ii) Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects; as happened after the Bhopal Gas tragedy. Hence meticulous maintenance of equipment is necessary. 
(iii) Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling; this greatly harms the aquatic plants and animals. 
(iv) They release toxic dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury, various pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals, plastics and rubber etc., into the water bodies. 
(v) Mismanagement of wastes from nuclear power plants can cause cancers and birth defects.


Q18: Describe the importance of manufacturing industries as a backbone of economic development of the country. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: The manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of a country because: 
(1) The manufacturing sector provides employment to a large number of people in the industrial as well as service sectors. 
(2) It helps in increasing agricultural productivity by modernising agriculture. 
(3) It also helps in minimising regional disparities by setting up industries in tribal and backward areas of the country.


Q19: ‘The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.’ Substantiate the statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (1) On one hand, Industries lead to extensive growth and expansion, on the other hand, these are also the cause of environmental degeneration. 
(2) There is an urgent need or requirement to use a more sustainable model.
(3) Industries must produce eco-friendly products and dump wastes responsibly. 
(4) Use of latest technology can help industries to control pollution and lead towards sustainable mode of operation.
(5) If necessary, dump waste in specified places, away from the land and water sources. Before dumping, treat well and make useful for other than drinking purpose, stop using thermal plants in some of the locations.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q20: Why is economic strength of a country measured by the development of manufacturing industries? (2018, Delhi 2016) 

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Ans: The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries because manufacturing plays a crucial role in the overall growth and development of an economy. Manufacturing industries contribute to several key aspects: 
1. Utilization of Natural Resources: The development of manufacturing industries allows for the efficient utilization of a country’s natural resources, leading to increased production and economic growth. 
2. Balanced Sectoral Development: Manufacturing industries help achieve a balanced sectoral development by reducing the over-dependence on the agricultural sector. This diversification strengthens the economy and reduces vulnerability. 
3. Enhanced Capital Formation: The growth of manufacturing industries leads to an increase in investment and capital formation. This, in turn, boosts economic growth and development. 
4. Increase in National Income and Foreign Exchange: Manufacturing industries contribute significantly to the national income of a country. Additionally, export-oriented manufacturing sectors generate foreign exchange, which strengthens the overall economy. 
5. Job Creation: The development of manufacturing industries creates job opportunities for a large section of the population, thereby reducing unemployment and poverty.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q21: Analyze the role of chemical industries in the Indian economy. (AI 2017) 

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Ans: The chemical industry plays a vital role in the Indian economy due to the following reasons: 
1. Contribution to GDP: The chemical industry is one of the fastest-growing sectors in India and contributes significantly to the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). It provides employment opportunities and generates income, contributing to economic growth. 
2. Export and Import: India ranks 9th in exports and 6th in imports of chemicals globally. The chemical industry contributes to foreign exchange earnings through exports of various chemical products. 
3. Diversification: The chemical industry in India is diversifying rapidly, with growth observed in both organic and inorganic sectors. It includes the production of petrochemicals, fertilizers, synthetic fibers, plastics, adhesives, and paints. This diversification strengthens the industrial base and promotes economic development. 
4. Value Addition: The chemical industry is a significant consumer of its own products. Value addition through various chemical processes adds to the overall economic output of the country. 
5. Employment Generation: The chemical industry provides direct and indirect employment opportunities to a large number of people. It supports various ancillary industries and contributes to job creation, reducing unemployment rates. 


Q22: Explain the contribution of the textile industry to the Indian economy. (Foreign 2017) 

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Ans: The textile industry has a significant contribution to the Indian economy in the following ways: 
1. Industrial Production: The textile industry is one of the largest contributors to industrial production in India. It encompasses various stages of the textile value chain, including spinning, weaving, dyeing, printing, and garment manufacturing. 
2. Employment Generation: The textile industry is a labor-intensive sector and provides employment to a large number of people, particularly in rural areas. It contributes to income generation and poverty reduction. 
3. Export Earnings: The textile industry is a major earner of foreign exchange through exports. India is one of the largest exporters of textiles globally. The industry’s export earnings help improve the country’s balance of trade. 
4. Market Demand: In a developing country like India, the textile industry plays a crucial role in meeting the domestic demand for clothing and textiles. It caters to the diverse needs of the population, providing affordable and fashionable clothing options. 
5. Ancillary Industries: The textile industry supports various ancillary industries such as cotton farming, dyeing, printing, packaging, and garment accessories. These industries contribute to the overall growth and development of the economy.


Q23: Explain with examples the interdependence of agriculture and industries. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The interdependence of agriculture and industries is based on many factors, such as adequate rainfall and good crops. Some examples are:
(i) When the rain fails and the crops fail, the industries suffer, and there are losses in businesses as the purchasing power falls.
(ii) If the cotton crops fail, the clothing industries suffer, and other industries also suffer.
(iii) If poultry farms do not produce enough eggs, the bakery industries that use eggs as their important ingredient also suffer.
(iv) Thus, the success and growth of agriculture are closely linked to the success and growth of industries.


Q24: How do industrial units cause air pollution? Explain. (CBSE 2017, 15)

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Ans: Industrial units cause air pollution in the following ways: 
(1) Industries that ignore pollution norms cause air pollution. They release high proportions of gases. 
(2) Air borne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles, which get released into the atmosphere during production. 
(3) Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants and burning of fossil fuels belong to the major polluting industries.

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Previous Year Questions 2016

Q25: Classify industries on the basis of the source of raw materials. How are they different from each other? (2016)

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Ans: On the basis of the sources of raw materials, industries are classified as:
(i) Agro-based Industries: These industries draw their raw materials from agricultural products. For example, textiles, sugar, coffee, tea, and edible oil.
(ii) Mineral-based Industries: These industries draw their raw materials from minerals. For example, iron and steel industries, cement, petrochemicals, etc.
While in agro-based industries, value addition is done at every stage; in the case of mineral-based industries, refining is a more important activity.


Q26: “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain.” Justify the statement. (Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The textile industry is considered self-reliant because products produced at each stage are used as raw materials for the next stage of production. The value chain refers to a number of activities that the industry performs right from the production of raw materials to the delivery of finished products. The textile industry completes this value chain within the country itself, without relying on imports or outsourcing. This self-reliance helps the industry maintain control over quality, costs, and timelines.


Q27: Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other? (Foreign 2016)

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Ans: Industries can be classified according to the role they play in the economy of the country. They are:
(i) Basic or Key Industries: These industries supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other goods. For example, iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminum smelting. These industries help in the establishment of other industries.
(ii) Consumer Industries: These industries produce goods for direct use by consumers. Examples include sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, electric fans, etc.
The main difference between these two types of industries lies in their target market and the purpose of their production.


Q28: Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another? Explain with examples. (2016)

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Ans:
(i) Small Scale Industry: These industries employ fewer people and less capital. Most of the work is done by small machines and manpower. They use fewer raw materials and produce less. Examples include radio, TV making, agricultural implements, etc.
(ii) Large Scale Industry: These industries employ a large number of people and more capital. Work is done by large machines and manpower. They use a large amount of raw materials and produce more products. Examples include the textile industry, steel industry, etc.
The main difference between these two types of industries lies in their scale of operations, investment, and production capacity.


Q29: Suggest any three steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India. (Al2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three steps to minimize environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are:
(i) Minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) Harvesting rainwater to meet water requirements and reduce the strain on natural resources.
(iii) Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them into rivers and ponds to prevent water pollution.
(iv) Implementing measures to reduce air pollution, such as fitting smokestacks with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators.
(v) Encouraging the use of cleaner fuels, such as oil or gas instead of coal, in industries.
(vi) Redesigning machinery to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise pollution. 

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q30: Why has the ‘National Manufacturing i Competitiveness Council’ been set-up? (2015)

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Ans: The ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ was set up to improve the productivity of the industrial sector. However, this council was wound up in March 2016.


Q31: Explain with examples, how do industries give a boost to the agriculture sector. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The agro-industries give a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity: 
(1) These industries supply irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc. to the farmers which helps them grow more food. 
(2) Industries help in transporting the goods produced to the markets. They also consume these products themselves. 
(3) Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture. They reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q32: Why is the ‘least cost’ known as a decision-making factor for the ideal location of an industry? (2014)

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Ans: The ‘least cost’ is known as a decision-making factor for the ideal location of an industry because it considers factors such as the availability of raw materials, labor, capital, power, and market at a lower cost. By choosing a location that minimizes these costs, the industry can ensure that its production costs are low and maximize its profitability.

Also read: Infographics: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2012

Q33: What are software technology parks? State any two of its features. (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: Software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facilities to software experts. Transistor sets, televisions, phones, cellular telecom, telephone exchanges, radars, computers, and many other items needed by the telecommunications sector are all included in the broad spectrum of goods produced by the electronics and IT industry. 

Key features of software technology parks include:

  • Employment generation: The IT sector employs over one million people.
  • Location: Major parks are situated in cities like BangaloreNoidaMumbaiChennaiHyderabad, and Pune.
  • Growth: Continuous advancements in hardware and software drive the success of the IT industry in India.

Previous Year Questions 2011

Q34: Mention any two factors that have contributed to a healthy growth of the automobile industry in India. Name two centres where the industry is located. (CBSE 2011)

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Ans: Two factors that have contributed to a healthy growth of the automobile industry in India are: 

  • The introduction of new and contemporary models stimulated the demand for vehicles in the market. 
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has brought in new technology. 

Globalisation has led to a heavy rise in demand of these vehicles since products from around the world can be ordered at one click. The two centres of automobile industry are Jamshedpur and Gurgaon.

05. Previous Year Questions: Minerals & Energy Resources

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Assertion (A): Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R): All living things need minerals.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

Minerals are indeed indispensable to our lives because everything we use — from buildings to vehicles and even the food we eat — contains minerals. Moreover, all living things need minerals for vital life processes, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.


Q2: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)Options:
(a) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(b) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

  • Iron ore → Chandrapur (iii) — found in Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt of Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
  • Mica → Gaya (i) — major mica belt lies in Koderma–Gaya–Hazaribagh region of Jharkhand.
  • Bauxite → Maikala (iv) — bauxite deposits occur in the Maikal Hills and Amarkantak Plateau.
  • Coal → Singrauli (ii) — important coalfield located in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Thus, the correct option is (a) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii.

Q3: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

  • Talcher → Odisha (ii) — an important thermal power plant located in Odisha.
  • Ramagundam → Telangana (i) — one of India’s largest thermal power stations.
  • Bhusawal → Maharashtra (iv) — located in Jalgaon district, Maharashtra.
  • Vijayawada → Andhra Pradesh (iii) — a major thermal power station in Andhra Pradesh.


Q4: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Iron Ore
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 – 60 per cent). In 2018 – 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.

(i) In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found? (1 Mark)

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Ans: The maximum iron content is found in Magnetite, which contains up to 70% iron.

(ii) Which is the most important industrial iron ore? (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The most important industrial iron ore is Hematite

(iii) “Iron ore is a basic mineral.” Support the statement. (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Iron ore is a basic mineral because it forms the backbone of industrial development. It is the raw material for producing steel, which is essential for manufacturing machinery, tools, vehicles, buildings, railways, and other industrial goods. Thus, iron ore supports the growth of almost all major industries in India. 


Q5: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(a) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

  • Copper → (ii) Used in electric cables and utensils because it is a good conductor of electricity and heat.
  • Bauxite → (iv) Used in aluminium production as aluminium is extracted from bauxite ore.
  • Mica → (iii) Used in electric and electronic industries due to its insulating properties and heat resistance.
  • Manganese → (i) Used in manufacturing of steel and paints and also for making ferro-manganese alloys.


Q6: “It would be beneficial to develop sustainable ways to meet the growing energy demand in India.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Yes, it is beneficial to develop sustainable waysto meet the growing energy demand in India because of the following reasons:

  1. Limited and Exhaustible Conventional Resources:
    Most of India’s energy resources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas are non-renewable and getting depleted rapidly. The geological formation of these resources takes millions of years, but they are being consumed much faster.
  2. Environmental Concerns:
    Burning fossil fuels causes air pollution, global warming, and acid rain, leading to serious environmental problems. Sustainable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas are clean and eco-friendly.
  3. Energy Security and Self-Reliance:
    India imports a large amount of petroleum and natural gas. Developing renewable sources will reduce dependence on imports and strengthen the country’s energy security.
  4. Economic Development:
    Non-conventional sources such as solar and wind energy have low recurring costs once established. Promoting these will create new employment opportunities and support rural electrification.
  5. Future Sustainability:
    Using renewable energy ensures that future generations also have access to energy resources. Energy saved is energy produced, so promoting energy conservation and efficient use supports sustainable development.

Conclusion:
Therefore, developing sustainable and renewable energy sources is essential to ensure environmental protectioneconomic stability, and long-term energy security for India.


Q7: “We have to use a planned and sustainable manner to conserve our minerals.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Yes, it is essential to use our minerals in a planned and sustainable manner, because mineral resources are finite and non-renewable. The following points support this statement:

  • Limited Availability:
    The total volume of workable mineral deposits is only about 1% of the Earth’s crust. Minerals take millions of years to form, but they are being extracted and consumed rapidly, making them exhaustible resources.
  • Slow Rate of Formation:
    The geological processes of mineral formation are extremely slow, so replenishment cannot match the present rate of consumption. Once exhausted, these resources cannot be replaced easily.
  • Increasing Extraction Costs:
    Continuous mining leads to the depletion of high-grade ores, forcing extraction from greater depths or lower-grade deposits, which increases costs and environmental degradation.
  • Environmental Impact:
    Mining causes land degradation, deforestation, water pollution, and air contamination. Sustainable use helps reduce environmental damage and maintain ecological balance.
  • Need for Future Generations:
    To ensure that future generations also benefit from these valuable resources, we must recycle metalsuse scrap, and develop substitute materials where possible.


Q8: Study the given table and answer the question that follows:  (1 Mark)
CRUDE OIL RESERVES

Read the following possible outcomes from the table and choose the correct option:
I. If crude oil continues to be extracted at the present pace, it would be exhausted in about 50 years.
II. In Middle Eastern Countries it may take longer than average of the world.
III. To ensure the availability of crude oil in future, its reuse and recycle policy should be adopted.
IV. In United States of America, Crude oil is likely to run out in just about 10 years.
(a) 
Only I, III and IV are correct.
(b) Only I, II and III are correct.
(c) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (B) Only I, II and III are correct.

  • Statement I is correct — The world average shows crude oil reserves will last about 50 years.
  • Statement II is correct — The Middle East has reserves lasting 70 years, which is longer than the world average.
  • Statement III is correct — To ensure future availability, a reuse and recycle policy should be adopted.
  • Statement IV is incorrect — Though the USA’s reserves may last about 10 years, the statement says “just about 10 years” without context, and the focus of the question is on sustainability and average trends.


Q9: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills.
Reason (R): These are usually minerals, that are not corroded by water.  (1 Mark)
(A)
 Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  • Certain minerals occur as alluvial or placer deposits in the sands of valley floors and at the base of hills. These minerals, such as gold, silver, tin, and platinum, are not corroded by water, which explains why they accumulate in such deposits. Hence, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Therefore, option (A) is correct.


Q10: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

Hide Answer  

Ans: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

The table below shows the correct matching of atomic power plants with their states:

Thus, option (C) is correct.


Q11: Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the options given below:  (1 Mark)
This is low grade brown coal.
The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
It is soft with high moisture content.
(A)
 Pit Coal
(B) Anthracite Coal
(C) Lignite Coal
(D) Bituminous Coal

Hide Answer  

Ans: (C) Lignite Coal

According to the chapter, Lignite is a low-grade brown coal, soft in texture, and has a high moisture content. Its principal reserves are found in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu, where it is mainly used for electricity generation.


Q12: Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant? Explain any two reasons.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The conservation of conventional sources of energy is significant because:

  • They are non-renewable and exhaustible:
    Conventional sources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas take millions of years to form. Their reserves are limited and may get exhausted soon if overused.
  • They cause environmental pollution:
    Excessive use of these fuels leads to air pollution, global warming, and ecological imbalance. Conserving them reduces environmental damage and helps maintain a clean and sustainable environment.


Q13: Why is it necessary to adopt non-conventional sources of energy? Explain.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: It is necessary to adopt non-conventional sources of energy because:

  • Exhaustion of conventional resources:
    Conventional energy sources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas are limited and non-renewable. To meet the growing energy demand sustainably, we must use renewable alternatives such as solar, wind, and biogas.
  • Environment-friendly and sustainable:
    Non-conventional sources are clean and pollution-free, reducing problems like air pollution and global warming. They ensure a sustainable and eco-friendly supply of energy for the future.


Q14: Suggest any two ways for the conservation of minerals.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Two ways for the conservation of minerals are:

  • Recycling and reuse of metals:
    Scrap metals and used materials should be recycled and reused to reduce the need for new mineral extraction.
  • Use of substitutes and improved technology:
    Developing substitute materials and using improved mining technologies help in reducing wastage and allow the use of low-grade ores efficiently.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.    (CBSE 2024)
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

(A) Ferrous matches with (IV) Cobalt, as ferrous materials are related to iron and cobalt is a metal used in various alloys.

(B) Non-Ferrous matches with (III) Bauxite, since bauxite is a non-ferrous ore primarily used to produce aluminum.

(C) Non-Metallic matches with (II) Granite, because granite is a type of rock and not a metal.

(D) Energy matches with (I) Coal, as coal is a major source of energy.


Q2: (A) How is energy a basic requirement for economic development? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)
OR 
(B) How are conventional sources of energy different from non- conventional sources? Explain. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Energy is a fundamental requirement for economic development because it powers industries, transportation, communication, and daily life. 
Here’s how energy drives economic growth:

  • Industrial Growth: Industries rely on energy to operate machinery, manufacture goods, and process raw materials. Without a stable energy supply, industrial productivity declines, hindering economic growth.
  • Infrastructure Development: Energy is essential for building and maintaining infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and buildings. Construction equipment and materials production depend heavily on energy.
  • Transportation and Trade: Energy fuels transportation systems, including cars, trucks, ships, and airplanes, enabling the movement of goods and people. Efficient transportation networks are vital for trade and commerce, which are key components of economic development.
  • Technological Advancement: Modern technologies, including computers, telecommunications, and medical equipment, require energy to function. Technological innovation drives productivity and economic growth, making energy indispensable.
  • Agriculture and Food Production: Energy is crucial for agricultural activities, such as irrigation, harvesting, and food processing. It also powers the transportation and storage of food, ensuring food security and supporting rural economies.
  • Employment and Income Generation: The energy sector itself creates jobs in production, distribution, and maintenance. Additionally, reliable energy access enables the growth of other sectors, leading to increased employment opportunities and income generation.
  • Quality of Life: Energy improves the quality of life by powering homes, schools, hospitals, and public services. Access to electricity enhances education, healthcare, and overall well-being, which are essential for a productive workforce.

In summary, energy is a cornerstone of economic development as it supports industrial activities, infrastructure, transportation, technology, agriculture, employment, and quality of life. Without adequate and reliable energy, economic progress would be severely constrained.
OR
(B) 
Conventional sources of energy and non-conventional sources of energy are different in the following ways:
1. Source:

  • Conventional Sources: These are traditional sources of energy that have been used for a long time, such as coal, petroleum (oil), natural gas, and hydropower.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These are newer or alternative sources of energy that are not widely used yet, like solar energy, wind energy, biomass, tidal energy, and geothermal energy.

2. Renewability:

  • Conventional Sources: These sources are mostly non-renewable, meaning they are finite and can run out over time. For example, coal and petroleum are limited and take millions of years to form.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These are usually renewable, meaning they can be replenished naturally and are not likely to run out, like solar and wind energy.

3. Environmental Impact:

  • Conventional Sources: They often cause pollution and harm the environment. Burning fossil fuels like coal and petroleum releases harmful gases, contributing to air pollution and climate change.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These sources are generally cleaner and have less impact on the environment. Solar and wind energy, for example, produce little to no pollution.

4. Availability:

  • Conventional Sources: These sources are available in specific regions. For example, coal is found in large quantities in some countries, while oil is concentrated in others.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These sources can be found anywhere, as long as the natural conditions are right, like sunlight for solar energy or wind for wind energy.

5. Cost:

  • Conventional Sources: They tend to be cheaper initially but can lead to higher long-term costs due to pollution, health effects, and resource depletion.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: They may be expensive to set up initially (like installing solar panels or wind turbines), but they have lower operational costs and are more sustainable in the long run.

In summary, conventional sources are traditional, non-renewable, and polluting, while non-conventional sources are modern, renewable, and environmentally friendly.

Sustainable Energy

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Which one of the following is an example of the Ferrous Metal?       (CBSE 2023)
(a) 
Copper
(b) 
Tin
(c) 
Bauxite
(d
) Nickel

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Nickel is considered a ferrous metal because it is often used in the production of alloys with iron, which enhances the strength and resistance of steel. In contrast, copper and tin are non-ferrous metals, and bauxite is an ore of aluminum, not a metal itself.


Q4: Read the given case and answer the questions that follow:       (2023)
CONSERVATION OF ENERGY RESOURCES
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy In all forms has been steadily rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy-efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens, we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”.
(i) Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development?
(ii) Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?
(iii) Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) Sustainable energy is a key to sustainable development, as sustainability demands that resource reserves including exhaustible, natural and environmental resources, be maintained.
(ii) After getting independence development of all sectors like agriculture, industry, transport, domestic needs etc. necessarily required to remain in operation, hence consumption of energy in all forms has increased all over India.
(iii) Energy saved is energy produced. We cannot keep on producing non-renewable energy like petrol, diesel and electricity. So the need of the hour is the better utilisation of existing resources. We have to adopt cautions approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q5: Classify metallic minerals with an example of each. (2020 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Ferrous minerals: Iron ore, manganese
  • Non-ferrous minerals: Copper, lead, bauxite
  • Precious minerals: Gold, silver, platinum


Q6: “Minerals occur in various forms”. Support this statement with examples. (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Minerals can occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks as veins and lodes. Examples include tin, copper, zinc, and lead.
  • Minerals can also occur in sedimentary rocks as beds or layers. Examples include gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt.
  • Some minerals are formed through the decomposition of surface rocks, leaving behind residual material. Bauxite is an example.
  • Alluvial deposits in sands can also contain minerals. Gold, silver, tin, and platinum are examples.


Q7: “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives”. Support this statement with examples. (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Minerals are used in the construction of buildings and infrastructure, such as iron ore for steel.
  • Minerals are used in transportation systems, such as copper for electrical wiring.
  • Minerals are used in electronic devices, such as lithium for batteries.
  • Minerals are used in everyday items, such as gold and silver for jewelry.

Minerals
Q8: Differentiate between anthracite and bituminous coal on the basis of quality. (2020 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Anthracite coal is of higher quality, while bituminous coal is comparatively lower grade in quality.
  • Anthracite coal has a higher carbon content, causing less pollution compared to bituminous coal.
  • Anthracite coal is available in small quantities in India, while bituminous coal is available in abundance.


Q9: In which of the following states is Kalpakkam nuclear power plant located ?      (2020)
(a) 
Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Kalpakkam nuclear power plant is located in Tamil Nadu, near the town of Kalpakkam, which is close to Chennai. This plant is significant as it contributes to India’s energy needs by generating electricity through nuclear power.


Q10: In which of the following States is Narora Nuclear Power Plant located?     (2020)
(a) 
Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located in Uttar Pradesh, near the town of Narora, which is about 200 kilometers from Delhi. This plant plays an important role in generating nuclear energy to meet the electricity demands of the region.


Q11: Fill in the blank: ________ is well known for effective use of wind energy in Rajasthan.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Jaisalmer is well known for the effective use of wind energy in Rajasthan.


Q12: Suggest any one way to enhance the use of natural gas in India.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Use of natural gas:
Making people aware about the importance of using this clean energy resources because this gas is considered environment friendly.


Q13:  Fill in the blanks: ‘Gobar gas plants’ provide twin benefits to the farmers in the form of_______and________     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: ‘Gobar gas plants’ provide twin benefits to the farmers in the form of energy and manure.


Q14: Suggest any one way to maximize the use of nuclear energy in the field of medicine.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Nuclear medicine use radio-active substances, mostly to diagnose cancer as well as cardiac and other diseases.

Also read: Infographics: Rocks and Minerals

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q15: In which of the following state is the Narora Nuclear Power Plant located ? 
(a) Karnataka 
(b) Kerala 
(c) Tamil Nadu 
(d) Uttar Pradesh (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh in India. It is situated on the banks of the Ganges River in the Bulandshahr district. This plant is one of India’s key nuclear power facilities, generating electricity through nuclear energy.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) Uttar Pradesh.


Q16: “India has fairly rich and varied mineral resources across different regions”. Support the statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)
OR
“Minerals occur in various forms.” Support this statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (1) Minerals occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints in igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks in the form of small occurrences of veins and large occurrences called lodes. Tin and zinc are obtained from veins and lodes. 
(2) Sedimentary Rocks are found in nodes and layers. Minerals like gypsum, coal, iron ore are formed. 
(3) Minerals are also formed by decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores. For example, bauxite


Q17: ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Assess the statement. (CBSE 2019, 17)

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Ans: This statement can be supported in the following ways: 
(1) Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources is an important measure to save resources for the upcoming generations. 
(2) A judicious use in using our limited energy resources is of utmost significance to encourage development without any threat to survival in the future generations. 
(3) Public transport systems can help save fuel and other important energy resources. Fuel will last for a longer time. 
(4) Using power-saving devices and using nonconventional sources of energy helps in preventing excessive usage of conventional energy resources.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q18: Describe any three characteristics of the Ballari-Chitradurga, Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru iron-ore belt in India. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Ballari-Chitradurga, Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru iron-ore belt is located in Karnataka.
  • The Kudremukh mines in this belt, located in the Western Ghats, are a 100% export unit.
  • The Kudremukh deposits are known to be one of the largest in the world.
  • The ore from these mines is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangaluru.


Q19: Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-ore belt in India. (AI 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-ore belt is located in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
  • It provides very high-grade hematite iron ore from the famous Bailadila range of hills in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.
  • The iron ore deposits in this belt have the best physical properties needed for steel making.
  • Iron ore from these mines is exported to Japan and South Korea via Vishakhapatnam port.


Q20: Describe any three characteristics of the ‘Odisha-Jharkhand belt’ of iron ore in India. (Delhi 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Odisha-Jharkhand belt is known for high-grade haematite ore.
  • In Odisha, the iron ore is found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts.
  • In Jharkhand, haematite iron ore is mined in Gua and Noamundi.
  • These mines supply iron ore to the steel industry in the eastern and other parts of India.


Q21: Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Explain any four ways to conserve mineral resources.  (AI2017)

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Ans: It is necessary to conserve mineral resources because they are limited in availability and the process of mineral formation is slow. Additionally, minerals are non-renewable and exhaustible.
Four ways to conserve mineral resources are:
1. Using minerals in a planned and sustainable manner.
2. Evolving improved technology to allow the use of low-grade ore at a low cost.
3. Practicing recycling of minerals.
4. Using alternative renewable substitutes.


Q22: ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Assess the statement. (2017)

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Ans: The statement “Energy saved is energy produced” emphasizes the importance of conserving energy. By reducing energy wastage and using energy-efficient practices, we can save energy and reduce the need for additional energy production. This approach is beneficial for the environment as it reduces the consumption of fossil fuels and decreases greenhouse gas emissions.


Q23: Why should we use renewable energy resources? Explain with arguments. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans: There are several reasons why we should use renewable energy resources:
1. Non-renewable resources are limited and will eventually get exhausted. In contrast, renewable energy resources such as solar power and wind energy are inexhaustible, making them a sustainable choice for long-term energy needs.
2. The depletion of non-renewable resources like coal and petroleum has taken millions of years to occur. By using renewable energy resources, we can avoid further depletion and preserve these non-renewable resources for future generations.
3. Fossil fuels, which are non-renewable resources, contribute to pollution and environmental degradation. Renewable energy sources, on the other hand, are cleaner and emit fewer greenhouse gases, thus mitigating the impact of climate change.
4. The cost of extracting and using non-renewable resources is increasing as these resources become harder to find. In contrast, the cost of renewable energy technologies, such as solar panels and wind turbines, has been decreasing over time. Investing in renewable energy can help reduce energy costs in the long run.


Q24: Why is energy needed? Write one reason. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Energy is required for all kinds of activities like cooking, lighting and heating, propelling vehicles and enabling smooth working of machinery in industries.


Q25: “Natural gas is an important source of energy.” Support the statement. (CBSE 2017)

Ans: Natural gas is an important source of energy because: 
(1) It is an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry.
(2) It helps build fertiliser plants and encourages the use of fertilisers. It can boost agricultural production. 
(3) It can be easily transported through pipelines


Q26: Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India? Mention any two uses of manganese. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The nation’s top producer of manganese is Madhya Pradesh. 
(1) Manganese manufactures steel and ferro-manganese alloy. Nearly 10 kgs of manganese is used in manufacturing one tonne of steel. 
(2) It is used in the production of bleaching powder, insecticides and paints


Q27: “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.” Support the statement with examples.  (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: (1) Minerals are used to create or produce almost everything we use everyday. This includes our technology, equipment etc., which are made of steel, silicon, aluminium, copper, gold, silver. Needles, Utensils, Clothes, Jewellery, and containers are all made of minerals. 
(2) Transportation was made possible because of minerals. The railway lines and tarmac (paving) of the roads, cars, buses, trains, airplanes are manufactured from minerals. 
(3) Even the food that we eat contains minerals. Minerals are produced when we digest it and even when we excrete it.


Q28: “There is a pressing need for using renewable energy sources in India.” Justify the statement.  (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources because: 
(1) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas.
(2) The rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future. 
(3) It has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy. 
(4) The increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems. 
(5) Non-renewable energy resources take millions of years to regenerate.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q29: Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals?   (Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The varied colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre, and density found in minerals are due to their chemical composition and the parameters such as temperature, pressure, rate of cooling, etc., present during their formation.


Q30: How is iron-ore transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangaluru?  (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Iron ore is transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangaluru as slurry through pipelines.


Q31: Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?   (Al 2016)

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Ans: The use of cattle cake as fuel should be discouraged because it creates pollution and by burning it, a valuable manure resource is destroyed, which could otherwise improve soil fertility.


Q32: How are ‘Gobar Gas Plants’ beneficial to the farmers?   (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: ‘Gobar Gas Plants’ are beneficial to the farmers in two ways. Firstly, they provide a clean fuel for domestic cooking and lighting. Secondly, they produce high-quality manure that can be used to enhance soil fertility.


Q33: “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able to perform to our full potential.” Suggest and explain any three measures to reach our full potential. (Foreign 2016)

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Ans:

  • Modernizing technology and machinery in the iron and steel industry to improve efficiency and productivity.
  • Streamlining the supply of inputs such as iron ore and coke to ensure a steady and sufficient availability.
  • Developing a supportive infrastructure, such as adequate electricity capacity, to meet the demands of the industry.
  • Implementing effective customer demand and supply management strategies to optimize production and distribution.


Q34: ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.’ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this burning problem. (AI 2016)

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Ans:

  • Increase the use of renewable energy resources like solar power, wind power, biogas, tidal energy, and geothermal energy. This will reduce dependence on non-renewable sources and promote sustainable energy development.
  • Promote energy conservation by encouraging the judicious use of energy resources. This can be achieved through awareness campaigns, energy-efficient practices, and the use of power-saving devices.
  • Improve energy efficiency in industries, transportation, and buildings by adopting energy-saving technologies and practices. This can be done through government regulations, incentives, and public-private partnerships.


Q35: “There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. (AI 2016)

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Ans:

  • The growing consumption of energy has led to increased dependence on fossil fuels like coal, oil, and gas, which are finite resources. The use of renewable energy resources can help reduce this dependence and ensure a sustainable energy future.
  • Rising prices and potential shortages of fossil fuels have raised concerns about the security of energy supply. Renewable energy resources are more abundant and can provide a more reliable and secure source of energy.
  • The use of renewable energy resources can help mitigate the adverse environmental impacts of fossil fuel use, such as air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. Renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydroelectric power are cleaner and have a lower carbon footprint.
  • Investing in renewable energy technologies can stimulate economic growth and create jobs in sectors like manufacturing, installation, and maintenance.


Q36: Which minerals are used to obtain nuclear energy? Name all the six nuclear power stations of India. (AI 2016)

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Ans:

  • The minerals used to obtain nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
  • The six nuclear power stations in India are: Narora Nuclear Power Station, Kakrapara Nuclear Power Station, Tarapur Nuclear Power Station, Kaiga Nuclear Power Station, Rawat Bhata Nuclear Power Station, and Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Station.


Q37: Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them. (AI2016)

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Ans: Conservation of minerals is important for the following reasons:
1. Minerals are the backbone of the economy and are essential for various industries.
2. The total volume of workable mineral deposits is very limited, representing only 1% of the Earth’s crust.
3. Mineral resources are being consumed at a rapid rate, while the geological processes of mineral formation are slow. This means that the rate of consumption far exceeds the rate of replenishment.
Three measures to conserve minerals are:
1. Using minerals in a sustainable manner by planning their extraction and usage.
2. Developing improved technologies that allow the use of low-grade ore at a lower cost.
3. Promoting recycling and reuse of minerals to reduce the demand for new extraction.


Q38: Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India. (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: The importance of petroleum can be highlighted as follows:
1. Petroleum is a major source of energy in India, providing fuel for heat, lighting, and transportation.
2. It serves as a lubricant for machinery, ensuring their smooth operation.
3. Petroleum is a crucial raw material for various manufacturing industries.
4. Petroleum refineries play a significant role in supporting industries such as synthetic, textile, fertilizer, and chemical industries.
In India, petroleum occurs in the following ways:
1. Most petroleum reserves in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps.
2. In regions of folding anticlines or domes, petroleum is trapped in the crust of the upfold.
3. Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.


Q39: Suggest and explain any three measures through which every citizen can help to conserve energy resources. (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Three ways in which citizens can help conserve energy resources are: 
(1) Reduction in usage of individual vehicles. 
(2) Minimisation of electricity usage.
(3) Reduction in usage of water resources

Also read: Infographics: Rocks and Minerals

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q40: Why does aluminium metal have great importance?  (2015)

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Ans: Aluminium metal has great importance because it combines the properties of great strength, lightness, malleability, and conductivity.


Q41: “Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel.” Explain the statement in two points. (AI 2015)

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Ans:

  • Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel because it causes less pollution compared to other fossil fuels like coal and oil. It has a lower carbon content and emits fewer greenhouse gases when burned, reducing the impact on climate change.
  • Natural gas is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer air pollutants such as sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter. This improves air quality and reduces the health risks associated with pollution.


Q42: How is geothermal energy produced? Explain. (AI 2015)

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Ans:

  • Geothermal energy is produced by harnessing the heat from the Earth’s interior.
  • In areas with high geothermal gradients, where temperatures increase with depth, groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
  • This hot water or steam rises to the Earth’s surface and can be used to drive turbines and generate electricity.


Q43: How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestions. (AI 2015)

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Ans:

  • Biogas can solve the energy problem in rural India by providing a renewable source of energy that is readily available.
  • The raw materials for biogas production, such as agricultural waste, animal manure, and kitchen waste, are abundant in rural areas.
  • By promoting the use of biogas plants, rural communities can generate their own energy for cooking, lighting, and other domestic uses, reducing their dependence on traditional sources like firewood and kerosene.
  • Biogas production also has environmental benefits, as it helps in waste management by converting organic waste into a useful energy resource and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Biogas Energy


Q44: Describe any three features of ferrous minerals found in India. (Foreign 2015)

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Ans:

  • Ferrous minerals in India account for approximately three-fourths of the total value of metallic mineral production.
  • They provide a strong foundation for the expansion of metallurgical industries in the country.
  • India is a leading exporter of ferrous minerals, with magnetite and hematite being some of the common ferrous minerals.
  • States like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Maharashtra are rich in ferrous mineral deposits.


Q45: How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and the environment? Explain. (Delhi 2015)

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Ans:

  • Mining activities can lead to respiratory diseases and other health issues for miners due to the inhalation of dust and toxic fumes.
  • The roofs and walls of mines can pose a risk of collapsing, leading to accidents and injuries.
  • Flooding and fire hazards are common risks in mining operations.
  • Mining can result in the contamination of water bodies with mineral dust, affecting aquatic life and human consumption.
  • The dumping of waste and slurry from mining operations can degrade the land and contribute to environmental pollution.


Q46: How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Solar energy can contribute to solving the energy problem in India in the following ways:
1. India receives abundant sunlight throughout the year, especially in rural and remote areas. Harnessing solar energy through solar panels and solar power plants can provide a reliable source of electricity in these areas.
2. Establishing solar plants in rural and remote areas can help minimize the dependence on traditional sources of energy such as firewood and dung cakes. This, in turn, contributes to environmental conservation and reduces indoor air pollution.
3. Solar energy can provide electricity for various applications, including lighting, cooking, and powering electronic devices. By utilizing solar energy, India can reduce its reliance on fossil fuels and decrease greenhouse gas emissions, thereby mitigating climate change.