Social Science for Class 8 ( Very Short Answer Questions )

Q1. What are the four main factors of production?
Answer: Land, labour, capital, and entrepreneurship.

Q2. What does “land” include in economics?
Answer: All natural resources like soil, water, forests, minerals, oil, and natural gas.

Q3. How is land usually obtained for production?
Answer: By buying it or paying rent to use it for a period.

Q4. What is “labour” in production?
Answer: The physical and mental effort people use to produce goods and services.

Q5. Give two examples of labour in different occupations.
Answer: A carpenter’s physical work and a teacher’s mental work.

Q6. What is “human capital”?
Answer: The skills, knowledge, abilities, and expertise that make labour more effective.

Q7. How is human capital different from labour?
Answer: Labour is effort; human capital is the quality (skills/knowledge) that increases productivity.

Q8. Name two facilitators of human capital.
Answer: Education/training and healthcare.

Q9. How does education help human capital?
Answer: It provides knowledge and prepares people to solve real-world problems.

Q10. How does good health support productivity?
Answer: It enables faster work, creativity, and fewer absences due to illness.

Q11. Name one cultural trait from Japan or Germany that supports productivity.
Answer: Japan’s kaizen (continuous improvement) or Germany’s punctuality and quality focus.

Q12. Mention one demographic advantage India has for human capital.
Answer: A young population with 65% under 35 (demographic dividend).

Q13. What is needed to benefit from the demographic dividend?
Answer: Quality education, health, training, and skills.

Q14. What do the Shilpa Shastras provide?
Answer: Detailed design guidelines for crafts, sculpture, architecture, and proportions.

Q15. What was unique about ancient Indian stitched shipbuilding?
Answer: Wooden planks were stitched with cords, making flexible ships for rough seas.

Q16. What does “capital” include?
Answer: Money and durable assets like machinery, tools, vehicles, shops, and factories.

Q17. Name two common ways small businesses raise capital.
Answer: Personal savings/family help and bank loans.

Q18. How do large companies raise capital?
Answer: By selling shares in the stock market and paying dividends.

Q19. What is entrepreneurship?
Answer: Identifying a problem/idea, combining factors, taking risks, and creating value.

Q20. Name two roles an entrepreneur performs.
Answer: Makes key business decisions and organizes land, labour, and capital.

Q21. Name one contribution of J.R.D. Tata.
Answer: Founded India’s first airline (Tata Airlines, 1932) and led the Tata Group’s expansion.

Q22. What is technology in production?
Answer: Application of scientific knowledge to make production easier, faster, or better.

Q23. Give two examples of modern technology enabling production or access.
Answer: UPI for payments and SWAYAM MOOCs for free online courses.

Q24. What does the National Career Service (NCS) do?
Answer: Connects people to jobs across sectors via a government portal.

Q25. What is the difference between labour-intensive and capital-intensive production?
Answer: Labour-intensive uses more human labour (e.g., agriculture); capital-intensive uses more machinery (e.g., semiconductors).

Q26. How are the factors of production connected?
Answer: They complement each other; lacking or misusing one reduces efficiency or halts production.

Q27. Give one recent example of supply chain risk mentioned in the chapter.
Answer: COVID-19 disruptions from relying on distant sources.

Q28. What responsibilities do businesses have toward natural resources and workers?
Answer: Use resources sustainably, reduce pollution, ensure fair pay and safe conditions, and invest in training.

Q29. What does India’s CSR law (2014) require?
Answer: Eligible companies invest 2% of their average profits over the past three years in social initiatives.

Q30. Why is technology considered the “fifth factor” of production in this chapter?
Answer: It improves efficiency, connects other factors, and enables higher productivity with the same or fewer resources.

Q1. What is India’s national law-making body called and how many parts does it have?
Answer: The Parliament of India; it includes the President, Lok Sabha, and Rajya Sabha.

Q2. What does “bicameral” mean in the context of Parliament?
Answer: It means the legislature has two houses or chambers.

Q3. Why was a bicameral Parliament chosen for India?
Answer: To balance national needs with state interests and strengthen federalism.

Q4. Which house represents the people directly and which represents the states?
Answer: Lok Sabha represents the people directly; Rajya Sabha represents the states.

Q5. Who presides over the Lok Sabha?
Answer: The Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Q6. Who is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha?
Answer: The Vice President of India.

Q7. Name the four broad functions of Parliament highlighted in the chapter.
Answer: Constitutional, lawmaking, executive accountability, and financial accountability.

Q8. What does the “constitutional function” of Parliament ensure?
Answer: Protection of democracy, federalism, separation of powers, Fundamental Rights, and Directive Principles.

Q9. What is a bill and when does it become an act?
Answer: A bill is a draft law; it becomes an act after passing both houses and receiving the President’s assent.

Q10. Give one example of a law and its constitutional basis from the chapter.
Answer: The Right to Education Act, 2009, rooted in Article 21A via the 86th Amendment.

Q11. What are “clauses” in a bill?
Answer: Specific sections detailing the provisions of the proposed law.

Q12. What is the official government publication for laws and notices called?
Answer: The Gazette.

Q13. What is special about Money Bills in Parliament?
Answer: They can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha and need the President’s prior recommendation.

Q14. What is Question Hour and why is it important?
Answer: A time when MPs question ministers, ensuring executive accountability.

Q15. How else does Parliament hold ministries accountable besides Question Hour?
Answer: Through parliamentary committees that scrutinize policies and decisions.

Q16. What is Parliament’s role in financial accountability?
Answer: Approving the Budget, overseeing allocation and use of public funds, and demanding accurate information.

Q17. Who forms the Union Executive?
Answer: The President, Vice President, and Council of Ministers led by the Prime Minister.

Q18. How is the Prime Minister appointed?
Answer: The President appoints the leader of the majority party/coalition in the Lok Sabha.

Q19. To whom is the Council of Ministers collectively responsible?
Answer: The Lok Sabha.

Q20. What is the President’s role regarding bills and sessions?
Answer: Summons/adjourns Parliament, appoints the PM/Ministers, and gives assent to bills.

Q21. In what situation may the President act using personal discretion?
Answer: When no party has a clear majority in the Lok Sabha.

Q22. Who assists ministers in executing laws and running departments?
Answer: Civil servants/administrators (the bureaucracy).

Q23. What example from 1956 illustrates ministerial accountability?
Answer: Railway Minister Lal Bahadur Shastri resigned after a train accident, taking moral responsibility.

Q24. What service helps inclusivity in parliamentary debates across languages?
Answer: Simultaneous interpretation/translation in multiple Indian languages.

Q25. How does the chapter summarize the Legislature vs Executive distinction?
Answer: The Legislature makes laws and scrutinizes government; the Executive implements laws and governs under legislative oversight.

Q1. What does “universal adult franchise” mean in India?
Answer: Every citizen aged 18 and above has the right to vote, regardless of caste, religion, gender, education, or income.

Q2. Which Article of the Constitution provides for adult franchise?
Answer: Article 326.

Q3. Can anyone vote on behalf of another person?
Answer: No, each voter must cast their own vote.

Q4. What is required to vote in an election?
Answer: Registration as a voter in one’s constituency.

Q5. Name two kinds of elections in India based on universal franchise.
Answer: Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections.

Q6. What is the main benefit of universal adult franchise?
Answer: It ensures equal political voice and strengthens democracy.

Q7. What challenge does India’s size and diversity create for elections?
Answer: Reaching remote, varied geographies and managing a massive voter population.

Q8. Who organizes elections in India?
Answer: The Election Commission of India (ECI), an independent constitutional body.

Q9. Name one accessibility measure introduced recently to support voters.
Answer: Home voting for elderly voters and persons with disabilities.

Q10. Give one example of assistive technology used in elections.
Answer: Braille-enabled voter cards or app-based wheelchair/ramp requests.

Q11. What is the composition of the ECI?
Answer: A Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners.

Q12. Which bodies’ elections are conducted by the ECI?
Answer: Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Assemblies, President, and Vice President.

Q13. What is the Model Code of Conduct (MCC)?
Answer: A set of guidelines to ensure free and fair elections for parties and candidates.

Q14. What restriction does the MCC place on the ruling party during elections?
Answer: It cannot announce new schemes or use government resources to influence voters.

Q15. What is prohibited regarding inducements to voters?
Answer: Offering gifts or incentives to influence votes is punishable by law.

Q16. What is India’s basic electoral system for Lok Sabha/Assembly seats?
Answer: First-Past-the-Post: the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins.

Q17. How many Lok Sabha constituencies are there?
Answer: 543.

Q18. What are MPs and MLAs?
Answer: MPs are Members of Parliament (Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha); MLAs are Members of Legislative Assembly (states).

Q19. How are Rajya Sabha members chosen?
Answer: Indirectly—most are elected by state MLAs; some are nominated by the President.

Q20. Why is the Rajya Sabha called a “Permanent House”?
Answer: It never dissolves; one-third of members retire every two years.

Q21. How is the President of India elected?
Answer: Indirectly by an Electoral College of elected MPs and MLAs from states/UTs (Delhi, Puducherry).

Q22. Who does not vote in the President’s election among legislators?
Answer: Nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies, and members of Legislative Councils.

Q23. Who elects the Vice President of India?
Answer: An Electoral College of both Houses of Parliament (elected and nominated members).

Q24. What is one major challenge to elections mentioned in this chapter?
Answer: Money power, criminalization of politics, or voter apathy.

Q25. How can democracy be strengthened according to the chapter?
Answer: Through voter awareness, responsible choices, and informed participation by citizens, especially youth.

Q1. What does “colonialism” mean?
Answer: When a powerful country controls another region, imposing its political, economic, and cultural systems.

Q2. Which European powers were most active in colonising parts of India?
Answer: The Portuguese, Dutch, French, and British.

Q3. Why was India attractive to European powers before colonisation?
Answer: Its wealth in spices, textiles, metals, and thriving trade networks made it highly profitable.

Q4. Who first reached India by sea from Europe and when?
Answer: Vasco da Gama in 1498 at Kappad near Kozhikode.

Q5. Which city became the Portuguese capital in India, and when was it captured?
Answer: Goa, captured in 1510.

Q6. What was the Portuguese “cartaz” system?
Answer: A pass system forcing ships to buy permits or risk seizure.

Q7. What was the Goa Inquisition?
Answer: A tribunal (from 1560) that persecuted religious communities and forced conversions.

Q8. Where did the Dutch set up early posts in India?
Answer: Surat, Bharuch, Cochin, Nagapattinam, and Masulipatnam.

Q9. Which 1741 battle weakened Dutch power in India?
Answer: The Battle of Colachel, where Travancore defeated the Dutch.

Q10. Where did the French establish major posts?
Answer: Surat (1668) and Pondicherry (1674).

Q11. Who was the French Governor-General who trained sepoys and used indirect rule?
Answer: Dupleix (1742–1754).

Q12. What were the Carnatic Wars mainly about?
Answer: Anglo-French rivalry for control in South India (1746–1763).

Q13. How did the British East India Company begin rule in India?
Answer: It started as traders with a royal charter, then used military and political strategies to seize control.

Q14. Name three early British trading centers in India.
Answer: Surat, Madras, and Bombay (later also Calcutta).

Q15. What was “divide and rule”?
Answer: Exploiting rivalries among Indian rulers and communities to gain power.

Q16. What happened at the Battle of Plassey (1757)?
Answer: Clive defeated Siraj-ud-daulah with Mir Jafar’s betrayal, giving the British control of Bengal.

Q17. What was the Doctrine of Lapse?
Answer: Annexation policy for states without a natural male heir.

Q18. What was the “subsidiary alliance”?
Answer: Indian rulers accepted British troops and Residents, losing control over external affairs.

Q19. What rights did the Company gain after Plassey that boosted revenue?
Answer: Diwani (revenue collection) in Bengal, Bihar, and Odisha.

Q20. What caused the Bengal Famine of 1770–1772 to worsen?
Answer: Harsh cash tax demands and neglect during crop failure.

Q21. Name one 19th-century famine that caused massive deaths.
Answer: The Great Famine of 1876–1878.

Q22. What British policy worsened famines by avoiding market intervention?
Answer: “Free market” non-interference in food prices.

Q23. What is meant by the “drain of wealth”?
Answer: Systematic transfer of India’s wealth to Britain via taxation, trade, and state expenses.

Q24. Name two Indian thinkers who wrote on the drain of wealth.
Answer: Dadabhai Naoroji and R.C. Dutt.

Q25. How did British policies affect India’s textile industry?
Answer: Heavy tariffs on Indian exports and free entry for British goods led to collapse of Indian textiles.

Q26. What did Charles Metcalfe call Indian village communities and why?
Answer: “Little republics,” for their resilience and self-governance.

Q27. What was Macaulay’s 1835 education policy aimed at creating?
Answer: English-educated Indians to serve colonial administration.

Q28. What social division did colonial education intensify?
Answer: A gap between English-educated elites and the masses.

Q29. What was the main colonial purpose of railways in India?
Answer: To move raw materials to ports, distribute British goods, and deploy troops quickly.

Q30. What was the Sanyasi-Fakir rebellion linked to?
Answer: The post-1770 famine distress and restrictions on ascetics.

Q31. Name two major tribal uprisings before 1857.
Answer: The Kol Uprising (1831–1832) and the Santhal Rebellion (1855–1856).

Q32. What was the Indigo Revolt (1859–1862) about?
Answer: Peasants resisted forced indigo cultivation, low payments, and planter coercion.

Q33. What sparked the 1857 Rebellion among sepoys?
Answer: Rumours of greased cartridges were offensive to Hindu and Muslim beliefs, along with wider grievances about British policies.

Q34. Name two women leaders associated with the 1857 Rebellion and one major change after it.
Answer: Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi and Begum Hazrat Mahal of Awadh; after 1857, the British Crown took direct control from the East India Company.

Q35. Name one unintended cultural effect of colonial rule.
Answer: Growth of archaeology, mapping, and translations that also increased European awareness of Indian heritage.

Q1. Who were the Marathas and where did they primarily live?
Answer: The Marathas were people of the Deccan plateau, mainly Maharashtra, who spoke Marathi and shared a rich cultural heritage.

Q2. Which movement helped unite Maratha society culturally?
Answer: The Bhakti movement, through saints and devotional poetry.

Q3. Name two Bhakti saints who inspired Maratha unity.
Answer: Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram.

Q4. Which dynasty ruled Maharashtra before the Sultanates and where was its capital?
Answer: The Yadava dynasty, with Devagiri (Daulatabad) as its capital.

Q5. What was Shivaji’s central political ideal called?
Answer: Swarajya, meaning self-rule.

Q6. At what age did Shivaji begin capturing forts, and what tactic did he use?
Answer: Around 16, using guerrilla warfare with swift surprise attacks.

Q7. Which Bijapur general did Shivaji defeat at Pratapgad in 1659?
Answer: Afzal Khan.

Q8. Why is the attack on Shaista Khan famous?
Answer: Shivaji’s night raid forced him to flee after losing fingers, showing daring precision.

Q9. What was notable about Shivaji’s navy?
Answer: He built a coastal navy when other Indian powers had weak or no navies, protecting the west coast.

Q10. What did Shivaji achieve in his raids on Surat, and what was noteworthy about his conduct?
Answer: He seized great wealth but spared religious places and kind citizens like Mohandas Parekh.

Q11. Where and when was Shivaji crowned, and what era did he start?
Answer: At Raigad in 1674; he began the Rajyabhisheka Shaka.

Q12. Who succeeded Shivaji and what happened to him?
Answer: Sambhaji; he was captured and executed by Aurangzeb after the fall of Raigad.

Q13. Which Maratha ruler shifted to Gingee and spread the war southward?
Answer: Rajaram.

Q14. Who led the Marathas after Rajaram and launched invasions into Mughal lands?
Answer: Tarabai.

Q15. How did the Maratha state’s power structure change in the 18th century?
Answer: It became a confederacy with rising Peshwa authority over a less centralized state.

Q16. Which Peshwa expanded Maratha influence to Lahore, Attock, and Peshawar?
Answer: Peshwa Bajirao I (with expansion continued under Nanasaheb).

Q17. What was the outcome of the Third Battle of Panipat (1761) for the Marathas?
Answer: A major defeat by the Afghans, followed by recovery under Peshwa Madhavrao I.

Q18. Which leader recaptured Delhi for the Marathas in 1771?
Answer: Mahadji Shinde (Scindia).

Q19. Name the two key Maratha exactions and their rates.
Answer: Chauth at 25% and Sardeshmukhi at an extra 10%.

Q20. What was the Ashta Pradhana Mandala?
Answer: Shivaji’s council of eight ministers for efficient governance.

Q21. What roles did Bargirs and Shiledars play?
Answer: They were cavalry types—Bargirs state-mounted, Shiledars self-mounted.

Q22. Why were forts central to Maratha strategy?
Answer: They anchored control and enabled endurance in guerrilla warfare, as emphasized in the Adnyapatra.

Q23. Who led the Maratha navy to prominence in the 18th century and how did Europeans view him?
Answer: Kanhoji Angre; Europeans labeled him a “pirate” due to pass (cartaz) confrontations.

Q24. What was Shivaji’s cultural stance toward language and religion?
Answer: He promoted Marathi and Sanskrit, used a Sanskrit seal, respected other faiths, and rebuilt damaged temples.

Q25. Name two notable Maratha-era women and one contribution each.
Answer: Tarabai—led campaigns safeguarding the empire; Ahilyabai Holkar—rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath and promoted welfare.

Q1. What time span does the “medieval period” in Indian history generally cover?
Answer: Roughly the 11th to 17th centuries, marked by frequent invasions, shifting borders, and cultural blending.

Q2. When did the Delhi Sultanate begin, and with whose defeat?
Answer: In 1192, after Prithviraj Chauhan’s defeat.

Q3. Name the five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer: Mamluks (Slave), Khiljis, Tughlaqs, Sayyids, Lodis.

Q4. Which regions notably resisted the Sultanate’s expansion in the south and east?
Answer: The Hoysalas in the south and the Eastern Ganga kingdom in the east.

Q5. What trend shows political instability among the Sultans?
Answer: About two-thirds rose to power by killing predecessors, with average reigns around nine years.

Q6. Which Sultan repelled repeated Mongol invasions?
Answer: Ala-ud-din Khilji.

Q7. Who led Khilji’s southern raids and what did they fund?
Answer: Malik Kafur; the plunder funded a large army.

Q8. Name two failed policies of Muhammad bin Tughlaq.
Answer: Shifting the capital to Daulatabad and introducing token copper currency.

Q9. Who invaded Delhi in the late 14th century, and what was the impact?
Answer: Timur; mass killings, enslavement, and heavy plunder devastated Delhi.

Q10. Who built the Konark Sun Temple and why?
Answer: Narasimhadeva I of the Eastern Ganga to commemorate victories over the Sultanate.

Q11. Which Rajput ruler built Kumbhalgarh Fort?
Answer: Rana Kumbha of Mewar.

Q12. Who founded the Vijayanagara Empire and in which century?
Answer: Harihara and Bukka in the 14th century.

Q13. Which state was Vijayanagara’s principal northern rival?
Answer: The Bahmani Sultanate (later split into five Deccan Sultanates).

Q14. Name the five Deccan Sultanates formed from Bahmani disintegration.
Answer: Bijapur, Golconda, Berar, Ahmednagar, Bidar.

Q15. Who was Vijayanagara’s most famous ruler and one of his literary works?
Answer: Krishnadevaraya; he wrote the Telugu epic Āmuktamālyada.

Q16. Which battle led to Vijayanagara’s downfall and when?
Answer: The Battle of Talikota in 1565.

Q17. Who founded the Mughal Empire and after which battle?
Answer: Babur, after the First Battle of Panipat (1526).

Q18. What new military technologies did Babur use in India?
Answer: Gunpowder, field artillery, and matchlock guns.

Q19. Which Afghan ruler displaced Humayun and what was his empire called?
Answer: Sher Shah Suri; the Sur Empire.

Q20. Who was Himu and which battle led to his defeat?
Answer: A Suri commander who briefly ruled Delhi; defeated by Akbar at the Second Battle of Panipat.

Q21. Which Rajput fort’s fall saw jauhar during Akbar’s reign?
Answer: Chittorgarh Fort.

Q22. Name two of Akbar’s policies that promoted stability.
Answer: Abolishing jizya and promoting sulh-i-kul (peace with all).

Q23. Which Mughal emperor built the Taj Mahal and Red Forts?
Answer: Shah Jahan.

Q24. Under whom did the Mughal Empire reach its greatest territorial extent?
Answer: Aurangzeb.

Q25. Name two religious policies associated with Aurangzeb.
Answer: Reimposing jizya and ordering temple demolitions.

Q26. Which Gond queen resisted the Mughals and how did her life end?
Answer: Rani Durgavati; she chose death in battle in 1564 to avoid capture.

Q27. Name two Rajput leaders known for resisting the Mughals.
Answer: Rana Sanga and Maharana Pratap.

Q28. Who led the Ahoms to victory at Saraighat and against whom?
Answer: Lachit Borphukan; he defeated a larger Mughal force in 1671.

Q29. Which Sikh Gurus mark the turn to armed resistance and identity formation?
Answer: Guru Hargobind (militarization) and Guru Gobind Singh (Khalsa, 1699).

Q30. What were two key administrative systems under the Sultans and Mughals?
Answer: The iqta system (Sultanate tax grants) and Akbar’s mansabdari-jagirdari framework with Todar Mal’s revenue reforms.

Q1. What is meant by ‘Nature’?
Answer: Nature includes all living things and non-living things in the environment that are not made by humans, like trees, rivers, and coal.

Q2. When does nature become a resource?
Answer: It becomes a resource when humans use elements from nature for living or making things, such as cutting trees for furniture or using water for farming.

Q3. What are the three conditions for something to be considered a resource?
Answer: It must be technologically accessible, economically feasible, and culturally acceptable.

Q4. Give two examples of obvious natural resources.
Answer: Water and soil.

Q5. What does ‘exploitation’ mean in this chapter?
Answer: It means taking, using, and consuming natural resources.

Q6. Name the three categories of resources based on their use.
Answer: Essential for life, resources for materials, and resources for energy.

Q7. Give two examples of resources essential for life.
Answer: Air and water.

Q8. Name two examples of resources for energy.
Answer: Coal and solar energy.

Q9. What are renewable resources?
Answer: Resources that can be naturally replenished in a short period, like solar energy and forests.

Q10. State one condition for renewable resources to remain renewable.
Answer: The natural cycles of restoration and regeneration must not be disturbed.

Q11. Give two examples of renewable resources.
Answer: Wind energy and timber.

Q12. Mention two main human actions disturbing natural cycles.
Answer: Industrialisation using fossil fuels and deforestation.

Q13. What is meant by ‘ecosystem services’?
Answer: Natural actions of ecosystems that benefit people, like trees producing oxygen and cleaning water.

Q14. How much oxygen does one mature tree produce daily?
Answer: About 275 litres.

Q15. What are non-renewable resources?
Answer: Resources that take millions of years to form and cannot be replenished quickly, like coal and petroleum.

Q16. How many years may India’s coal reserves last at current usage?
Answer: About 50 years.

Q17. Give two examples of non-renewable resources.
Answer: Iron and gold.

Q18. What is meant by uneven distribution of resources?
Answer: Resources are not found equally everywhere.

Q19. Give one example of conflict caused by resource sharing.
Answer: The Kaveri River water dispute between Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, and Puducherry.

Q20. What is the Natural Resource Curse?
Answer: When resource-rich countries stay poor because they rely on selling raw materials instead of making high-value products.

Q21. What does ‘stewardship’ of resources mean?
Answer: Using resources wisely to help them restore and regrow or last longer.

Q22. Name two traditional soil care methods.
Answer: Mulching and multi-cropping.

Q23. What was the main cause of groundwater overuse in Punjab during the 1960s?
Answer: Growing high-yielding crops that need more water and free electricity for pumping.

Q24. Name one pollution problem caused by cement production.
Answer: Cement dust harms lungs and reduces plant growth.

Q25. What is Vṛkṣāyurveda?
Answer: An ancient Indian science of plant care focusing on sustainable agriculture and plant health.

Q26. Name one irrigation method mentioned in Vṛkṣāyurveda.
Answer: Tailored watering methods for different plants and seasons.

Q27. When did Sikkim become 100% organic, and name one benefit of the change?
Answer: In 2016, it increased biodiversity or raised farmers’ incomes.

Q28. What is Bhadla Solar Park, and when was the International Solar Alliance launched?
Answer: Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan is one of the world’s largest solar parks; the International Solar Alliance was launched in 2015 by India and France.

Q29. What is the main aim of the International Solar Alliance?
Answer: To promote solar energy use among sunshine-rich countries.

Q30. What does the Bhagavad Gita’s concept of lokasangraha mean?
Answer: Working for the good of all, encouraging thoughtful use of resources.