Text Book Solutions All Class

Multiple Choice Question

Q1. On a map, which direction is opposite to East?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) East

Q2. If you move from the top to the bottom of a map, you are moving:
(a) East
(b) West
(c) North
(d) South

Q3. Which of these is used to show exact positions on a map?
(a) Compass
(b) Scale
(c) Grid/Coordinates
(d) Legend

Q4. The symbol on a map that shows directions is called:
(a) Key
(b) Compass
(c) Scale
(d) Grid

Q5. A map scale is used to:
(a) Show direction
(b) Show real distances in smaller form
(c) Show colors
(d) None of these

Fill in the Blanks

Q1. The four main directions are __________, __________, __________, and __________.

Q2. On a map, __________ is usually at the top.

Q3. Moving __________ on a grid means going towards East.

Q4. The __________ number in a coordinate pair shows the column.

Q5. The __________ helps in finding directions on a map.

Q6. A __________ helps to measure real distances in a smaller form.

Find out from the given map.

(i) Which of these are nearest to River Yamuna?

(ii) Which is in between the two buildings Hammam and Rang Mahal?

(iii) Which building do you pass while going from Rang Mahal to the Hammam?

(iv) Which building on this map is farthest from Meena Bazar?

Questions & Answers

(i) What is the opposite direction of NORTH?

(ii) What is the opposite direction of EAST?

(iii) What is the opposite direction of SOUTH?

(iv) Northern state is ____________

(v) Eastern state is _____________

(vi) Southern state is ____________

(vii) Distance between two states is 36 cm in the map. If 1 cm = 10 km in the map, what will be the actual distance between two states?

(viii) Distance between two states is 24 cm in the map. If 1 cm = 20 km in the map, what will be the actual distance between two states?

(ix) Distance between two states is 48 cm in the map. If 1 cm = 30 km in the map, what will be the actual distance between two states?

Multiple Choice Questions

 (i) In the given map, a 1cm square grid represents 50km. What is the approximate distance between Jaunpur and Chapra?

(a) 250 km
(b) 450 km
(c) 350 km
(d) 150 km

Ans:  (a) 250 km
To calculate the distance between Jaunpur and Chapra, we followed these steps:

• Grid Measurement: The map is divided into 1 cm grid squares, and the scale tells us that each 1 cm on the map equals 50 kilometers on the ground.
• Estimate the Distance: By counting the number of grid squares between Jaunpur and Chapra, the distance is estimated to be around 5 cm.
• Convert to Real Distance: Since each centimeter on the map represents 50 kilometers, we multiply the 5 cm by 50 kilometers:

                           5 cm × 50 km/cm = 250 km

Therefore, the approximate distance between Jaunpur and Chapra is 250 km.

(ii) There is a pentagon drawn on a 1 cm square grid. If Mohan is asked to draw the same picture on a 2cm grid. The side of the square is made two times bigger. Does the area of square grids also become two times bigger?

(a) Yes, becomes two times bigger

(b) No, it becomes 4 times bigger 

(c) No, it becomes three times bigger

(d) No, it remains the same

Ans: (b) No, it becomes 4 times bigger 
The area of a square is calculated using the formula: Area = side × side.

1. Original Grid (1 cm):
   • Area = 1×1=11cm×1cm=1 square cm
2. New Grid (2 cm):
   • Area = 2×2=4 cm

When the side of the square becomes two times bigger, the area becomes four times bigger, not two times. Therefore, the correct answer is (b) No, it becomes 4 times bigger.

c) If the tiger wants to catch the deer, in which direction he should be making the jump?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East

(d) West

Ans: (b) South
Based on the image and the compass directions provided, the tiger is positioned to the north of the deer. If the tiger wants to catch the deer, it should jump south.

So, Option b is correct.

Answer the following Questions

(i) 

Ans:   1. The Dog is located south of the Horse.

              2. The Cat is located southeast of the Horse.

              3. The Cow is located north of the Cat.

              4. The Horse is located northwest of the Cat.

              5. The Dog is located west of the Cat.

              6. The Cow is located east of the Horse.

              7. The Dog is located southwest of the Cow.

              8. The Cat is located south of the Cow.

(ii) Find out the scale used to draw the map using the distance information given.
Places – From Bengaluru to Lucknow
Actual distance – 1855 Km 
Distance on map – 5.3 cm
Ans: Actual distance =1855 km
Distance on map =5.3 cm
1 cm = 1855 km / 5.3 
= 1855km / 1 x 10/53 
= 18550 km/53 
∴ 1 cm = 350 km

(iii) Height of a building is 9 m and this building is represented by 9 cm on a map. What is the scale used for the map?
Ans: Given: The height of the building is 9m.
9m is represented by 9cm on the map.
We know that 1m = 100cm
therefore,
9m : 9cm ⇒ 900cm : 9cm
Scale used ⇒ 100:1

(iv) If actual distance between two places A and B is 110 km and it is represented on a map by 25 mm. Then the scale used is _____.
Ans: We know that
Scale of map = Size drawn on map / Actual size  = 25mm / 110km
25mm / 110000000mm
1/440000
So, If actual distance between two places A and B is 110 km and it is represented on a map by 25 mm. Then the scale used is 1 : 4400000

(i) Which State is surrounded by four other states?
Ans: Haryana. It is surrounded by Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Uttar Pradesh.

(ii) Which state has the largest area?
Ans: Rajasthan. It is the largest state in India by area.

(iii) Which are the places along the sea coast of South India?
Ans:

• Chennai (Tamil Nadu)
• Thiruvananthapuram (Kerala)
• Mangalore (Karnataka)
• Panaji (Goa)

(v) Mark those states which have the sea on one side.
Ans:

• Gujarat
• Maharashtra
• Karnataka
• Kerala
• Tamil Nadu
• Andhra Pradesh
• Odisha
• West Bengal
• Goa

(vi) Name one state which does not have the sea on any side.
Ans: Madhya Pradesh. It is a landlocked state with no coastline.

(vii) Name 4 Eastern states of India.
Ans:

• Arunachal Pradesh
• Assam
• Sikkim
• Mizoram

(viii) Name 4 South Indian states.
Ans:

• Tamil Nadu
• Kerala
• Karnataka
• Andhra Pradesh

(ix) Which is the capital of Tamil Nadu?
Ans: Chennai. It is the capital city of Tamil Nadu.

(x) Sai is going from Tamil Nadu to Punjab. Name the states which fall in between his route.
Ans: The states from South to North are:

• Tamil Nadu
• Karnataka
• Maharashtra
• Madhya Pradesh
• Uttar Pradesh
• Haryana
• Punjab

(xi) Harsha is travelling from Delhi to Mumbai (Maharashtra). Name the states which fall in between her route.
Ans: The states from North to West are:

• Delhi
• Haryana
• Rajasthan
• Gujarat
• Maharashtra

Multiple Choice Questions

(i) In the given map, a 1cm square grid represents 50km. What is the approximate distance between Jaunpur and Chapra?

(a) 250 km

(b) 450 km

(c) 350 km

(d) 150 km

(ii) There is a pentagon drawn on a 1 cm square grid. If Mohan is asked to draw the same picture on a 2cm grid. The side of the square is made two times bigger. Does the area of square grids also become two times bigger?

(a) Yes, becomes two times bigger

(b) No, it becomes 4 times bigger

(c) No, it becomes three times bigger

(d) No, it remains the same

c) If the tiger wants to catch the deer, in which direction he should be making the jump?

(a) North

(b) South

(c) East

(d) West

Answer the following Questions

(i) 

(ii) Find out the scale used to draw the map using the distance information given.
Places – From Bangalore to Lucknow
Actual distance – 1855 Km 
Distance on map – 5.3 cm

(iii) Height of a building is 9 m and this building is represented by 9 cm on a map. What is the scale used for the map?

(iv) If actual distance between two places A and B is 110 km and it is represented on a map by 25 mm. Then the scale used is _____.

Look at the given map of India and answer the questions that follow

(i) Which State is surrounded by four other states?

(ii) Which state has the largest area?

(iii) Which are the places along the sea coast of South India?

(iv) Mark those states which have the sea on one side.

(v) Name one state which does not have the sea on any side.

(vi) Name 4 Eastern states of India.

(vii) Name 4 South Indian states.

(viii) Which is the capital of Tamil Nadu?

(ix) Sai is going from Tamil Nadu to Punjab. Name the states which fall in between his route.

(x) Harsha is travelling from Delhi to Mumbai (Maharashtra). Name the states which fall in between her route.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1. Which of the following is a factor of 24?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9
Ans: (b) 6

• Factors are numbers that divide a number exactly.
• 6 × 4 = 24 → so, 6 is a factor of 24.

Q2. The smallest multiple of any number is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) The number itself
(d) 2
Ans: (c) The number itself

• Multiples are obtained by multiplying the number with whole numbers (0,1,2,3,…).
• The smallest multiple is the number itself (not 0, because 0 is a multiple of all numbers but not considered here in such questions).

Q3. Which of the following is a multiple of 7?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25
Ans: (a) 21

• Multiples of 7 → 7, 14, 21, 28, …
• 21 is in the list.

Q4. How many factors does 12 have?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 5
Ans: (b) 6

• Factors of 12 → 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
• Total = 6 factors.

Q5. Which of the following numbers is a common factor of 18 and 24?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7
Ans: (a) 3

• Factors of 18 → 1, 2, 3, 6, 9, 18
• Factors of 24 → 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 8, 12, 24
• Common factors → 1, 2, 3, 6
• From the options, (a) is correct.

Q6. Which of the following numbers is NOT a multiple of 9?
(a) 18
(b) 27
(c) 35
(d) 36
Ans: (c) 35

• Multiples of 9 → 9, 18, 27, 36, …
• 35 is not in this list.

Q7. A number that has exactly two factors is called a:
(a) Prime number
(b) Composite number
(c) Even number
(d) Odd number
Ans: (a) Prime number

• Prime numbers have exactly 2 factors: 1 and the number itself.
• Composite numbers have more than 2 factors.

Q8. What is the greatest common factor (GCF) of 12 and 16?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6
Ans: (c) 4

• Factors of 12 → 1, 2, 3, 4, 6, 12
• Factors of 16 → 1, 2, 4, 8, 16
• Common factors → 1, 2, 4
• Greatest = 4

Q9. The least common multiple (LCM) of 4 and 6 is:
(a)12
(b) 24
(c) 10
(d) 8
Ans: (a) 12

• Multiples of 4 → 4, 8, 12, 16, 20, 24…
• Multiples of 6 → 6, 12, 18, 24…
• Smallest common multiple = 12

Q10. Which of the following is a factor of every number?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) The number itself
Ans: (b) 1

• 1 divides every number exactly.
• 0 is not a factor of any number.

Fill in the Blanks

Q1. Factors of 20 are ________, ________, ________, ________, ________.
Ans: 1, 2, 4, 5, 10, 20

Q2. Multiples of 5 are ________, ________, ________, ________.
Ans: 5, 10, 15, 20

Q3. The smallest prime number is ________.
Ans: 2

Q4. Common factors of 12 and 18 are ________, ________, ________.
Ans: 1, 2, 3, 6

Q5. LCM of 3 and 4 is ________.
Ans: 12

Q6. 1 is a factor of every ________.
Ans: number

Q7. The number 15 has ________ factors.
Ans: 4 (1, 3, 5, 15)

Q8. Multiples of 7 up to 50 are ________, ________, ________, ________, ________, ________.
Ans: 7, 14, 21, 28, 35, 42, 49

Answer the Following 

Q1: In a sports day event, students are lined up in rows of 6, 9, or 18. What is the smallest number of students that can be arranged in this way?

Sol: To determine the smallest number of students that can be arranged in rows of 6, 9, or 18, we need to calculate the Least Common Multiple (LCM) of the numbers 6, 9, and 18.
Prime factors:

• 6 = 2 × 3
• 9 = 3 × 3
• 18 = 2 × 3 × 3

Common factors and multiplication:

• Common factors = 2, 3 × 3
• Multiply all common factors: 2 × 3 × 3 = 18

Therefore, the smallest number of students is 18.

Q2: A baker has cookies that he wants to pack in boxes of 7, 14, or 21 cookies. What is the least number of cookies he needs to ensure there are no cookies left out?

Sol: To ensure no cookies are left out when packed in boxes of 7, 14, or 21, we find the LCM of these numbers.
Prime factors:

• 7 = 7
• 14 = 2 × 7
• 21 = 3 × 7

Common factors and multiplication:

The LCM takes the highest powers of all prime numbers involved: 2 × 3 × 7 = 42

Therefore, the baker needs at least 42 cookies.

Q3: At a community picnic, the organizers want to divide the attendees into groups of 4, 6, or 8 evenly. What is the minimum number of attendees needed?

Sol: To find the minimum number of attendees that can be divided evenly into groups of 4, 6, or 8, we calculate the LCM of these numbers.
Prime factors:

• 4 = 2 × 2
• 6 = 2 × 3
• 8 = 2 × 2 × 2

Common factors and multiplication:

Use the highest powers: 2³ and 3¹ → LCM = 8 × 3 = 24

Therefore, at least 24 attendees are needed.

Q4: A classroom has students who need to be arranged in rows of 10, 20, or 25 for a group photo. What is the least number of students that should be present?

Sol: To find the least number of students that can be arranged in rows of 10, 20, or 25, we look for the LCM.
Prime factors:

• 10 = 2 × 5
• 20 = 2 × 2 × 5
• 25 = 5 × 5

Common factors and multiplication:

Highest powers: 2² (from 20), 5² (from 25)
 →  LCM = 100

Therefore, at least 100 students should be present.

Q5: A musical concert is organized where the audience must be seated in sections of 15, 30, or 45. How many minimum seats should be available?

Sol: To find the minimum number of seats, calculate the LCM of 15, 30, and 45.
Prime factors:

• 15 = 3 × 5
• 30 = 2 × 3 × 5
• 45 = 3 × 3 × 5

Common factors and multiplication:

Highest powers of all primes: 2¹, 3², 5¹ → LCM = 90

Therefore, at least 90 seats should be available. These solutions use the factorization method to find the LCM, ensuring that students can understand the process through basic multiplication of common prime factors.

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1. Which of the following is a factor of 24?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 9

Q2. The smallest multiple of any number is:
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) The number itself
(d) 2

Q3. Which of the following is a multiple of 7?
(a) 21
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 25

Q4. How many factors does 12 have?
(a) 4
(b) 6
(c) 8
(d) 5

Q5. Which of the following numbers is a common factor of 18 and 24?
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 7

Q6. Which of the following numbers is NOT a multiple of 9?
(a) 18
(b) 27
(c) 35
(d) 36

Q7. A number that has exactly two factors is called a:
(a) Prime number
(b) Composite number
(c) Even number
(d) Odd number

Q8. What is the greatest common factor (GCF) of 12 and 16?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Q9. The least common multiple (LCM) of 4 and 6 is:
(a)12
(b) 24
(c) 10
(d) 8

Q10. Which of the following is a factor of every number?
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) 2
(d) The number itself

Fill in the Blanks

Q1. Factors of 20 are ________.

Q2. Multiples of 5 are ________, ________, ________, ________.

Q3. The smallest prime number is ________.

Q4. Common factors of 12 and 18 are ________, ________, ________.

Q5. LCM of 3 and 4 is ________.

Q6. 1 is a factor of every ________.

Q7. The number 15 has ________ factors.

Q8. Multiples of 7 up to 50 are ________, ________, ________, ________, ________, ________.

Answer the Following 

Q1: In a sports day event, students are lined up in rows of 6, 9, or 18. What is the smallest number of students that can be arranged in this way?

Q2: A baker has cookies that he wants to pack in boxes of 7, 14, or 21 cookies. What is the least number of cookies he needs to ensure there are no cookies left out?

Q3: At a community picnic, the organizers want to divide the attendees into groups of 4, 6, or 8 evenly. What is the minimum number of attendees needed?

Q4: A classroom has students who need to be arranged in rows of 10, 20, or 25 for a group photo. What is the least number of students that should be present?

Q5: A musical concert is organized where the audience must be seated in sections of 15, 30, or 45. How many minimum seats should be available?

Q1: Check it is a leap year or not?
(i) 2012
Ans:

2012 is divisible by 4, so it is a leap year. 

(ii) 2009
Ans:

2009 is not divisible by 4, so it is not a leap year.

Q2: Draw the hands of the clocks to show the time:

(i) 10:05

Ans:

(ii) 5:15
Ans:

(iii) 11:40
Ans:

(iv) 1:40
Ans:

(v) 4:45
Ans:

Q3: Write down the time shown by each of the following clocks:
(i) 1:15
Ans:

(ii) 10:25
Ans:

(iii) 4:00
Ans:

Q4: Write the time using a.m. or p.m. :

(i) 10 minutes after midnight

Ans: 12:10 A.M.

(ii) 5:45 in the evening
Ans: 5:45 P.M.

(iii) 12:10 in the afternoon
Ans: 12:10 P.M.

(iv) 11:50 in the morning
Ans: 11:50 A.M.

(v) 5:35 in the morning
Ans: 5:35 A.M.

(vi) 12:05 during the night
Ans: 12:05 A.M.

(vii) 8:15 in the morning
Ans: 8:15 A.M.

(viii) 4:10 in the evening
Ans: 4:10 P.M.

Q5: Write a.m. or p.m. in the given blank spaces to make the sentences correct:
(i) Piyush comes back from school at 2:00
Ans: P.M.

(ii) Shilpa cleans her teeth at 6:30
Ans: A.M.

(iii) You take your lunch at 1:00
Ans: P.M.

(iv) Divya goes to school at 7:30
Ans: A.M.

Q6: What time will it be:

(i) 3 hours after 11:10 p.m.?
Ans: 2:10 A.M.

Calculation: 11:10 p.m. + 3 hours = 11:10 + 1 h → 12:10 a.m., +1 h → 1:10 a.m., +1 h → 2:10 a.m.

(ii) 2 hours after 10:00 p.m.?
Ans: 12:00 A.M.

Calculation: 10:00 p.m. + 2 hours = 12:00 a.m. (midnight).

(iii) 2 hours before 1:30 p.m.?
Ans: 11:30 A.M.

Calculation: 1:30 p.m. – 2 hours = 11:30 a.m.

(iv) 2 hours after 7:35 a.m.?
Ans: 9:35 A.M.

Calculation: 7:35 a.m. + 2 hours = 9:35 a.m. (correcting the earlier p.m. mention).

(v) 4 hours before 3:00 a.m.?
Ans: 11:00 P.M.

Calculation: 3:00 a.m. – 4 hours = 11:00 p.m. (the previous night).

Q7: Convert the following into seconds:

Note: 1 hour = 60 minutes and 1 minute = 60 seconds

(i) 32 minutes
Work: 32 × 60 = 1920
Ans: 1920 seconds

(ii) 12 minutes
Work: 12 × 60 = 720
Ans: 720 seconds

Q8: Answer the following questions:
(i) Manvar started dreaming at 11:50 p.m. His dream lasted for 40 minutes. When did his dream end?
Ans: 12:30 A.M.

Calculation: 11:50 p.m. + 10 minutes = 12:00 a.m.; remaining 30 minutes → 12:30 a.m. So the dream ended at 12:30 A.M.

(ii) Shinde started playing volleyball at 4:45 p.m. He played for 1 hour 15 minutes. When did he stop playing?
Ans: 6:00 P.M.

Calculation: 4:45 p.m. + 1 hour = 5:45 p.m.; + 15 minutes = 6:00 p.m.

(iii) A ferry boat started to sail at 11:30 a.m. It completed the journey at 3:10 p.m. How long did it sail?

Ans: 3 hours 40 minutes

Calculation: 11:30 a.m. to 2:30 p.m. = 3 hours; 2:30 p.m. to 3:10 p.m. = 40 minutes; total = 3 hours 40 minutes.

(iv) Ragini started her dance practice at 5:40 p.m. and stopped it at 7:10 p.m. How long did she practice?

Ans: 1 hour 30 minutes

Calculation: 5:40 p.m. to 6:40 p.m. = 1 hour; 6:40 p.m. to 7:10 p.m. = 30 minutes; total = 1 hour 30 minutes.

Q9: How many minutes are in 1 hour?
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 50
(d) 30
Ans: (a)
Explanation: There are 60 minutes in 1 hour because 1 minute is 1/60th of an hour. Therefore, 60 minutes make one whole hour.

Q1: Check it is a leap year or not?
(i) 2012

(ii) 2009

Q2: Draw the hands of the clocks to show the time:

(i) 10:05

(ii) 5:15

(iii) 11:40

(iv) 1:40

(v) 4:45

Q3: Write down the time shown by each of the following clocks:
(i) 1:15

(ii) 10:25

(iii) 4:00

Q4: Write the time using a.m. or p.m. :
(i) 10 minutes after midnight

(ii) 5:45 in the evening

(iii) 12:10 in the afternoon

(iv) 11:50 in the morning

(v) 5:35 in the morning

(vi) 12:05 during the night

(vii) 8:15 in the morning

(viii) 4:10  in the evening

Q5: Write a.m. or p.m. in the given blank spaces to make the sentences correct:
(i) Piyush comes back from school at 2:00

(ii) Shilpa cleans her teeth at 6:30

(iii) You take your lunch at 1: 00

(iv) Divya goes to school at 7:30

Q6: What time will it be:
(i) 3 hours after 11:10 p.m.?

(ii) 2 hours after 10:00 p.m.?

(iii) 2 hours before 1:30 p.m.?

(iv) 2 hours after 7:35 a.m.?

(v) 4 hours before 3:00 a.m.?

Q7: Convert the following into seconds:

Note: 1 hour = 60 minutes and 1 minute = 60 seconds

(i) 32 minutes

(ii) 12 minutes

Q8: Answer the following questions:
(i) Manvar started dreaming at 11:50 p.m. His dream lasted for 40 minutes. When did his dream end?

(ii) Shinde started playing volleyball at 4:45 p.m. He played for 1 hour 15 minutes. When did he stop playing?

(iii) A ferry boat started to sail at 11:30 a.m. It completed the journey at 3:10 p.m. How long did it sail?

(iv) Ragini started her dance practice at 5:40 p.m. and stopped it at 7:10 p.m. How long did she practice?

Q9: How many minutes are in 1 hour?
(a) 60
(b) 120
(c) 50
(d) 30

Q1: Find the perimeter of each of the following figures:
(i) Perimeter of the triangle is ______ cm.
Ans: Perimeter = 5 + 3 + 6 = 14 cm

(ii) Perimeter of the square is ______ cm.
Ans: Perimeter = 4 × 4 = 16 cm

(iii) Perimeter of the square is ______ cm.

Ans: Perimeter = 4 × 7 = 28 cm

(iv) Perimeter of the rectangle is ______ cm.

Ans: Perimeter =2 × (8 + 5) = 2 × 13 = 26 cm

(v) Perimeter of the triangle is ______ cm.

Ans: Perimeter = 5 + 5 + 9 = 19 cm

(vi) The perimeter of the rectangle is ______ cm.

Ans: Perimeter =2 × (8 + 2) = 20 cm

Q2: In the following figures, assume that each small square is 1 sq cm. Count the squares and find the area:
(i) Area = ______ sq cm.

Ans: 18

(ii) Area = ______ sq cm.
Ans: 8

(iii) Area = ______ sq cm.
Ans: 8

(iv) Area = ______ sq cm.

Ans: 49

(v) Area = ______ sq cm.

Ans: 16

Q3: Find the area of the rectangle, whose:
(i) length = 5 m 8 cm, breadth = 3 m 75 cm
Ans: First convert to cm:

• 5 m 8 cm = 500 + 8 = 508 cm
• 3 m 75 cm = 300 + 75 = 375 cm

Now, Area = 508 × 375 = 1,90,500 cm²

(ii) length = 4 m 50 cm, breadth = 2 m 7 cm
Ans: Convert to cm:

• 4 m 50 cm = 400 + 50 = 450 cm
• 2 m 7 cm = 200 + 7 = 207 cm

Area = 450 × 207 = 93,150 cm

(iii) length = 1 m 5 cm, breadth = 90 cm
Ans: Convert to cm:

• 1 m 5 cm = 100 + 5 = 105 cm
• Breadth = 90 cm

Area = 105 × 90 = 9,450 cm²

(iv) length = 125 m, breadth = 84 m
Ans: Area = 125 x 84 = 10500 m²

(v) length = 80 cm, breadth = 24 cm
Ans: Area = 80 x 24 = 1920 cm²

Q4: Find the perimeter of:
(i) The triangle whose sides are 8 cm, 9 cm, and 12 cm.
Ans: Perimeter = 8 + 9 + 12 = 29 cm

(ii) The square whose side is 14 cm.
Ans: Perimeter = 4(14) = 56 cm

Q5: Find the area of the following rectangles:
(i) 

Ans: Area of rectangle = l x b
= 10 x 15 = 150  cm²

(ii)
Ans: Area of rectangle = l x b= 2 x 5 = 10 cm²

Q6: Find the area of the square, whose:
(i) side = 256 dm
Ans: 256 x 256 = 65536 dm²

(ii) side = 92 dm
Ans: 92 x 92 = 8464 dm²

(iii) side = 18m
Ans: 18 x 18 = 324 m²

(iv) side = 7 cm
Ans: 7 x 7 = 49 cm²

(v) side = 20 cm
Ans: 20 x 20 = 400 cm²

Q7: Find the area of the following squares:
Area of square = side x side
(i)

Ans: 20 x 20 = 400 cm²

(ii)
Ans: 6 x 6 = 36 cm²

Q8: Find the area of a square whose perimeter is 4 cm.
Ans: Area = 4 x 4 = 16 cm²

Q9: Area of a rectangle = ______ x ______.
Ans: Length x breadth

Q10: Area of a square of side 1 cm = ______.
Ans: 1 x 1 = 1cm²

Q11: Area of a rectangle of dimensions 1 m and 2 m is ______ sq m.
Ans: 2

Q12: Area of a square = ______.
Ans: side x side.

Q1: Find the perimeter of each of the following figures:
(i) Perimeter of the triangle is ______ cm.
(ii) Perimeter of the square is ______ cm.
(iii) Perimeter of the square is ______ cm.

(iv) Perimeter of the rectangle is ______ cm.

(v) Perimeter of the triangle is ______ cm.

(vi) The perimeter of the rectangle is ______ cm.

Q2: In the following figures, assume that each small square is 1 sq cm. Count the squares and find the area:
(i) Area = ______ sq cm.

(ii) Area = ______ sq cm.
(iii) Area = ______ sq cm.
(iv) Area = ______ sq cm.

(v) Area = ______ sq cm.

Q3: Find the area of the rectangle, whose:
(i) length = 5 m 8 cm, breadth = 3 m 75 cm
(ii) length = 4 m 50 cm, breadth = 2 m 7 cm
(iii) length = 1 m 5 cm, breadth = 90 cm
(iv) length = 125 m, breadth = 84 m
(v) length = 80 cm, breadth = 24 cm

Q4: Find the perimeter of:
(i) The triangle whose sides are 8 cm, 9 cm, and 12 cm.
(ii) The square whose side is 14 cm.

Q5: Find the area of the following rectangles:
(i)

(ii)


Q6: Find the area of the square, whose:
(i) side = 256 dm
(ii) side = 92 dm
(iii) side = 18m
(iv) side = 7 cm
(v) side = 20 cm

Q7: Find the area of the following squares:
Area of square = side x side
(i)

(ii)


Q8: Find the area of a square whose perimeter is 4 cm.

Q9: Area of a rectangle = ______ x ______.

Q10: Area of a square of side 1 cm = ______.

Q11: Area of a rectangle of dimensions 1 m and 2 m is ______ sq m.

Q12: Area of a square = ______.

Q1. A figure is said to have symmetry if it can be divided into:
a) Equal halves
b) Unequal parts
c) Only straight lines
d) Circles only
Answer: a) Equal halves

Q2. How many lines of symmetry does a square have?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
Answer: c) 4

Q3. Which of the following shapes has only one line of symmetry?
a) Circle
b) Equilateral triangle
c) Rectangle
d) Isosceles triangle
Answer: d) Isosceles triangle

Q4. How many lines of symmetry does a circle have?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 4
d) Infinite
Answer: d) Infinite

Q5. Which alphabet has 2 lines of symmetry?
a) A
b) H
c) C
d) F
Answer: b) H

Q6: A rectangle has how many lines of symmetry?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
Answer: b) 2

Q7: Which of the shapes is divided into two mirror halves by a dotted line?

(a) A and B
(b) A and C
(c) B and C
(d) All of these
Ans: (c)

• Shape A: A symmetric star, but the given dotted line may not create perfect mirror halves.
• Shape B: A butterfly, which has clear bilateral symmetry along the dotted line.
• Shape C: A hexagonal shape that appears symmetric along the given dotted line.

Since B and C are properly divided into two equal mirror halves by the dotted line, the correct answer is:

Answer: (c) B and C

Q8: In the following figures, l is the line of symmetry. Complete the diagram to make it symmetric.

Ans. 

Q9: Draw the line (s) of symmetry for each of the following figures :

Ans. 

Q10: Is the dotted line on each shape a line of symmetry? Write yes or no.

(i)
Ans: Yes

(ii)
Ans: No

(iii)
Ans: No

(iv)
Ans: Yes

(v)
Ans: No

(vi)

Ans: Yes

(vii)

Ans: Yes

(viii) 

Ans: No