04.Carbon and its Compounds- Textbooks Solutions

 Page No: 61

Q1: What would be the electron dot structure of carbon dioxide, which has the formula CO2?
Ans:

  • A molecule of CO2 consists of one atom of carbon and two atoms of oxygen. 
  • The electronic configuration of carbon is 2,4 while that of oxygen is 2, 6. Each of the two atoms of oxygen shares two electrons with the carbon atom to complete the octet of both the elements, thereby forming a double covalent bond.
    Electron Dot Structure of CO2


Q2: What would be the electron dot structure of a molecule of sulphur, which is made up of eight atoms of sulphur? (Hint – the eight atoms of sulphur are joined together in the form of a ring.)
Ans: In S8, the atoms are joined together in the form of a ring.
Electron Dot Structure of S8

Page No. 68

Q1: How many structural isomers can you draw for pentane?
Ans: We can draw three structural isomers of pentane (C5H12).

Q2: What are the two properties of carbon which lead to the huge number of carbon compounds we see around us?
Ans: The two features of carbon that give rise to a large number of compounds are as follows:

  • Catenation: The self linking ability of carbon to form a long straight-chain, branched-chain, and closed ring structures.
  • Tetravalency: With the valency of four, carbon is capable of bonding with four other atoms.

Q3: What will be the formula and electron dot structure of cyclopentane?
Ans: The formula of cyclopentane is C5H10.

Page No. 69

Q4: Draw the structures for the following compounds.
(a) Ethanoic acid 

(b) Bromopentane
(c) Butanone 

(d) Hexanal
Are structural isomers possible for bromopentane?

Ans:

(a) 

(b) 

(c)

(d) 

Yes, the structural isomers of bromopentane are possible by changing the bromine position and branching in the parent carbon chain.

Structural Isomers of Bromopentane

Q5: How would you name the following compounds?

(i) CH3—CH2—Br

(ii)

(iii) 

Ans: 

(i) Bromoethane
(ii) Methanal (formaldehyde)
(iii) Hex-1-yne

Page No. 71

Q1: Why is the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid an oxidation reaction?
Ans: 

Since the conversion of ethanol to ethanoic acid involves the addition of oxygen to ethanol, therefore it is an oxidation reaction.

Q2: A mixture of oxygen and ethyne is burnt for welding. Can you tell why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used?
Ans:

  • 2HC ≡ CH + 5O2 → 4CO2 + 2H2O + Heat
  • When ethyne is burnt in air, it gives a sooty flame. 
  • This is due to incomplete combustion caused by a limited supply of air. 
  • However, if ethyne is burnt with oxygen, it gives a clean flame with a temperature of 3000°C because of complete combustion.
  • This oxy-acetylene flame is used for welding. It is not possible to attain such a high temperature without mixing oxygen.
  • This is the reason why a mixture of ethyne and air is not used.

Page No. 74

Q1: How would you distinguish experimentally between alcohol and carboxylic acid?
Ans:

Q2: What are oxidising agents? Give an example.
Ans: Those substances that give oxygen or replace hydrogen on reaction with other compounds are known as oxidising agents, such as potassium permanganate (KMnO4).

Page No. 76

Q1: Would you be able to check if the water is hard by using a detergent?
Ans:

  • Detergents are ammonium or sulphonate salts of long-chain carboxylic acids. Unlike soap, they do not react with calcium and magnesium ions present in hard water to form scum.
  • They give a good amount of lather irrespective of whether the water is hard or soft.
  • This means that detergents can be used in both soft and hard water. Therefore, it cannot be used to check whether the water is hard or not.

Q2: People use a variety of methods to wash clothes. Usually, after adding the soap, they ‘beat’ the clothes on a stone, or beat it with a paddle, scrub with a brush, or the mixture is agitated in a washing machine. Why is agitation necessary to get clean clothes?
Ans:

  • A soap molecule has two parts, namely hydrophobic and hydrophilic. With the help of these, it attaches to the grease or dirt particles and forms a cluster called a micelle
  • These micelles remain suspended in solution as a colloid.
  • When water is agitated, the oily dirt tends to lift off from the dirty surface and dissociates into fragments.
  • This gives an opportunity to other tails to stick to oil. This results in the formation of an emulsion in water.
  • This emulsion now contains small globules of oil surrounded by soap or detergent molecules.
  • The negatively charged heads present in water prevent the small globules from coming together and form clusters.
  • Thus, the oily dirt is removed from the object.

Exercise (Page 77)

Q1: Ethane, with the molecular formula C2H6, has
(a) 6 covalent bonds
(b) 7 covalent bonds
(c) 8 covalent bonds
(d) 9 covalent bonds

Ans: (b)

Sol:

The structural formula for ethane is:

So, it has 7 covalent bonds.

Q2: Butanone is a four-carbon compound with the functional group
(a) Carboxylic acid
(b) Aldehyde
(c) Ketone
(d) Alcohol

Ans: (c)
Sol: Butanone has the formula CH3COCH2CH3. Thus, it has ketone as a functional group. Option (c) is correct.

Q3: While cooking, if the bottom of the vessel is getting blackened on the outside, it means that
(a) The food is not cooked completely.
(b) The fuel is not burning completely.
(c) The fuel is wet.
(d) The fuel is burning completely.

Ans: (b)
Sol: This means that the fuel is not burning completely, and unburnt carbon particles get deposited on the bottom of the vessel, making it black.

Q4: Explain the nature of the covalent bond using the bond formation in CH3Cl.
Ans: Carbon can neither lose 4 electrons nor do gain four electrons as these process make the system unstable due to requirement of extra energy. Therefore CH3Cl completes its octet configuration by sharing its 4 electrons with carbon atoms or with atoms of other elements. Hence the bonding that exists in CH3Cl is a covalent bonding.

Here, carbon requires 4 electrons to complete its octet, while each hydrogen atom requires one electron to complete its duplet. Also, chlorine requires an electron to complete the octet. Therefore, all of these share the electrons and as a result, carbon forms 3 bonds with hydrogen and one with chlorine.

Q5: Draw the electron dot structures for
(i) Ethanoic acid
(ii) H2S
(iii) Propanone
(iv) F2
Ans:

Q6: What is a homologous series? Explain with an example.
Ans:

  • It is a series of organic compounds having the same general formula, same functional group, same general methods of preparation, similar chemical properties, and gradation in physical properties where the adjacent members differ by a CH2 group.
    Example: The general formula for the homologous series of alkanes is CnH2n+2. CH4 (Methane), C2H6 (Ethane), C3H8 (Propane), and C4H10 (Butane).
  • Every homologous series have a general formula.
  •  In alkane, a single bond is a functional group, an alkene double bond, and in alkyne triple bond.

Q7: How can ethanol and ethanoic acid be differentiated on the basis of their physical and chemical properties?
Ans:

(i) Difference on the physical basis

(ii) Difference on the chemical basis

Q8: Why does micelle formation take place when soap is added to water? Will a micelle be formed in other solvents such as ethanol also?
Ans:

  • A soap molecule has both a hydrophilic and a hydrophobic end. The hydrophilic end is soluble in water, whereas the hydrophobic end is insoluble in water.
  • When soap is added to water, the hydrophilic part gets dissolved in water, but the hydrocarbon tail being the hydrophobic part, forms clusters called micelles.
  • As soap is soluble in ethanol, micelle formation will not take place in it.

Q9: Why are carbon and its compounds used as fuels for most applications?
Ans: During the process of combustion of carbon and its compounds, a large amount of heat and light is released, i.e., They have high calorific value, and because of this, carbon and its compounds are used as fuels.

Q10: Explain the formation of scum when hard water is treated with soap.
Ans:

  • Soaps are sodium or potassium salts of fatty acids having cleansing action in the water.
  • Hard water contains Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions, which react with soap to form calcium and magnesium salts of fatty acids, which are insoluble and are called scum.

Q11: What change will you observe if you test soap with litmus paper (red and blue)?
Ans: As a soap solution is basic in nature, it will turn red litmus paper into blue, but it will not affect blue litmus paper.

Q12: What is hydrogenation? What is its industrial application?
Ans: 

  • Hydrogenation is a process in which Hydrogen is added in the presence of nickel or palladium as a catalyst.
  • Industrial application: The process of hydrogenation is used to prepare vegetable ghee from vegetable oil.

Q13: Which of the following hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions:
C2, H6, C3H8, C3H6, C2H2, and CH4.

Ans: Unsaturated hydrocarbons undergo addition reactions. Being unsaturated hydrocarbons, C3H6, and C2H2 will undergo addition reactions.

Q14: Give a test that can be used to differentiate chemically between butter and cooking oil.
Ans:

  • Add bromine water to each of them.
  • Cooking oil will decolourize bromine water showing that it is unsaturated, whereas butter will not decolourize bromine water showing that it is saturated.

Q15: Explain the mechanism of the cleaning action of soaps.
Ans: 

  • A soap molecule has hydrophobic and hydrophilic ends. In water, hydrophobic ends of soap, which consists of hydrocarbon chains, cluster together to form micelles.
  • The oily dirt collects in the centre of the micelle.
  • These micelles stay in solution as a colloid and will not come together to form precipitate because of ion-ion repulsion.
    Formation of Micelle
  • Thus the dirt suspended in the micelles can be easily rinsed away, and hence, soaps are effective in cleaning.

03.Metals and Non-metals- Textbooks Solutions

Page No. 40

Q1. Give an example of a metal which
(a) is a liquid at room temperature.
(b) can be easily cut with a knife.
(c) is the best conductor of heat.
(d) is a poor conductor of heat.
Ans:
(a) Metal that exists in a liquid state at room temperature is mercury.

(b) Metal that can be easily cut with a knife is sodium.

Sodium and Potassium are so soft that they can be cut with a knife.(c) Metal that is the best conductor of heat is silver.
(d) Metal that is a poor conductor of heat is lead.

Q2. Explain the meanings of Malleable and Ductile.
Ans:
Malleable

  • Substances that can be beaten into thin sheets are called malleable. Most of the metals are malleable. The most malleable metals are gold and silver.

Ductile

  • Substances that can be drawn into thin wires are called ductile. Most of the metals are ductile. Platinum, gold, and silver are the most ductile metals.

Ductility

Page No. 46

Q1. Why is sodium kept immersed in kerosene oil?
Ans:

  • Sodium is a very reactive metal and combines explosively with air(oxygen) at room temperature.
  • It also reacts violently with cold water. Hence, it catches fire if kept in open. 
  • Therefore, to prevent accidental fires and accidents, sodium is stored immersed in kerosene oil.

Q2. Write equations for the reactions of
(a) iron with steam
(b) calcium and potassium with water

Ans: 
(a) Iron reacts with steam to form a magnetic oxide of Fe with the liberation of H2.
3Fe(s) + 4H2O(g) → Fe3O4(s) + 4H2(g)
(b) Calcium reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide and hydrogen.
Ca(s) + 2H2O(I) → Ca(OH)2(aq) + H2(g) 
Potassium reacts with cold water violently immediately with evolution of H2 which catches fire.
2K(s) + 2H2O(I) → 2KOH(aq) + 2H2(g)

Q3. Samples of four metals A, B, C, and D were taken and added to the following solution one by one. The results obtained have been tabulated as follows.

Use the table above to answer the following questions about metals A, B, C, and D.
(a) Which is the most reactive metal?
(b) What would you observe if B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulfate?
(c) Arrange the metals A, B, C, and D in the order of decreasing reactivity.

Ans:

  • A + FeSO4 → No reaction, i.e., A is less reactive than iron.
  • A + CuSO4 → Displacement, i.e., A, is more reactive than copper.
  • B + FeSO4 → Displacement, i.e., B is more reactive than iron.
  • B + ZnSO4 →No reaction, i.e., B is less reactive than zinc.
  • C + FeSO4 → No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than iron.
  • C + CuSO4 → No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than copper.
  • C + ZnSO4 → No reaction, i.e., C is less reactive than zinc.
  • C + AgNO3 → Displacement, i.e., C is more reactive than silver.
  • D + FeSO4/CuSO4/ZnSO4/AgNO3 → No reaction, i.e.
  • D is less reactive than iron, copper, zinc, and silver.
  • From the above equations, we obtain:
    (a) B is the most reactive metal.
    (b) If B is added to a solution of copper (II) sulfate, then it would displace copper.
    B + CuSO4→ Displacement
    (c) The arrangement of the metals in the order of decreasing reactivity is: B > A > C > D

Q4. Which gas is produced when diluted hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal? Write the chemical reaction when iron reacts with dilute H2SO4.
Ans: When dilute hydrochloric acid is added to a reactive metal; hydrogen gas is evolved.

The reaction between iron and H2SO4 is:


Q5. What would you observe when zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulfate? Write the chemical reaction that takes place.
Ans: Zinc is more reactive than iron. Therefore, if zinc is added to a solution of iron (II) sulfate, then it would displace iron from the solution.

Page No. 49

Q1. (a) Write the electron-dot structures for sodium, oxygen, and magnesium.
(b) Show the formation of Na2O and MgO by the transfer of electrons.
(c) What are the ions present in these compounds?

Ans: 
(a)

  • The electronic configuration of sodium is 2,8,1. The electron dot structure of sodium is 
  • The electronic configuration of oxygen is 2,6. The electron dot structure of oxygen is 
  • The electronic configuration of magnesium is 2,8,2. The electron dot structure of magnesium is 

(b) Formation of Na2O and MgO

  • Na     →  Na+ e
    2,8,1        2,8
  • O    +2e → O
    2,6              2,8
  • Mg    → Mg2++ 2e
    2,8,2     2,8
  • O   +  2e  → O2
    2,6                2,8

(c) The ions present are Na+, O2- and Mg2+ in compounds sodium oxide (Na2O) and magnesium oxide (MgO).

Q2. Why do ionic compounds have high melting points?
Ans: Ionic compounds have high melting points because of the strong force of attraction between the oppositely charged ions. High energy is required to break the metallic bonds between these ions.

Page No. 53

Q1. Define the following terms.
(a) Mineral 
(b) Ore 
(c) Gangue
Ans:
(a) Mineral 

  • The natural materials in which metals occur in the form of their compounds are called minerals.
  • They are mostly found in earth’s crust. Some minerals are also found in seawater.
    Example: NaCl (sodium chloride), feldspar, mica, kaolin, etc.

(b) Ore 

  • They are minerals from which metals are extracted profitably.
    Example: 
    Hematite (Fe2O3) is an ore of iron, bauxite (Al2O 3.2H2O ) is an ore of aluminium.

(c) Gangue

  • The unwanted material present in the ores mined from the earth is called gangue.
  • It needs to be removed prior to the extraction process.

Q2. Name two metals which are found in nature in the free state.
Ans: The metals at the bottom of the reactivity series are mostly found in a free state.
Example: Gold, Silver, and Platinum

Q3. What chemical process is used for obtaining a metal from its oxide?
Ans: The chemical process used for obtaining a metal from its oxide is reduction.
There are mainly three different methods of reduction:
(i) By heating
(ii) By using carbon
(iii) By using aluminium, calcium, sodium, etc., as reducing agents.

Page No. 55

Q1. Metallic oxides of zinc, magnesium, and copper were heated with the following metals.
In which cases will you find displacement reactions taking place?
Ans:

Q2. Which metals do not corrode easily?
Ans: The more reactive a metal is, more likely it is to be corroded. Therefore, less reactive metals are less likely to get corroded. This is why gold plating provides high resistance to corrosion. 
Example: Gold, Platinum.

Q3. What are alloys?
Ans: Alloys are homogeneous mixtures of two or more elements. The elements could be two metals or a metal and a non-metal. An alloy is formed by first melting the metal and then dissolving the other elements in it.
Example: Steel is an alloy of iron and carbon.

Excercise (Page 56)

Q1. Which of the following pairs will give displacement reactions?
(a) NaCl solution and copper metal.
(b) MgCl2 solution and aluminium metal.
(c) FeSOsolution and silver metal.
(d) AgNOsolution and copper metal.
Ans: 
This is decided on the basis of the activity series of metal. A metal higher on the activity series can displace a metal lower on the activity series from its salt solution. Thus
(a) No displacement
(b) No displacement
(c) No displacement
(d) Displacement reaction takes place
Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq)+ 2Ag(s)
because copper is more reactive than Ag.

Q2. Which of the following methods is suitable for preventing an iron frying pan from rusting?
(a) Applying grease
(b) Applying paint
(c) Applying a coating of zinc
(d) all of the above

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

  • Greece and paints are organic matter which can burn on heating.
  • So, we do not apply grease or paint on a frying pan to prevent it from rusting. We can prevent it from rusting by applying a coating of zinc.
  • Zinc is more reactive than iron, and hence it does not allow the iron to rust.

Q3. An element reacts with oxygen to give a compound a high melting point. This compound is also soluble in water. The element is likely to be
(a) Calcium
(b) Carbon
(c) Silicon
(d) Iron

Ans: (a)
Explanation: Calcium oxide has a high melting point as it is ionic in nature and is soluble in water.

Q4. Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because
(a) zinc is costlier than tin.
(b) zinc has a higher melting point than tin.

(c) zinc is more reactive than tin.
(d) zinc is less reactive than tin.

Ans: (c) Zinc is more reactive than tin; that is why tin is used.
Explanation: Food cans are coated with tin and not with zinc because zinc is above the tin in the reactivity series means more reactive than tin and can react with food elements preserved in it.

Q5. You are given a hammer, a battery, a bulb, wires, and a switch.
(a) How could you use them to distinguish between samples of metals and non-metals?
(b) Assess the usefulness of these tests in distinguishing between metals and non-metals
.
Ans: (a) 

  • Take the sample of metal. Hammer it for a long time. Observe the metal after some time.
  • Take the sample of non-metal and hammer it a little. You will observe that metal changes into sheets on hammering, i.e., it is malleable, whereas non-metal is brittle, and it breaks on hammering.
  • Set the apparatus, as shown in the figure above.
  • Take the sample of metal and put it between the clips. Switch on the current and observe the bulb.
  • Now take the sample of non-metal and insert it between clips. Switch on the current and observe the bulb.
  • You will observe that the bulb glows when current is switched on in the case of metal sample. 
  • The bulb does not glow in case of non-metal sample.
  • This shows metals are good conductors of electricity, whereas non-metals are bad conductors of electricity.

(b) 

  • These two tests can be used to distinguish between metals and non-metals.
  • Hammering can be used in most metals except in the case of sodium, potassium, and lithium.
  • Conduction of electricity can be used in the classification of most of the metals and non-metals except in graphite, which is a non-metallic conductor.


Q6. What are amphoteric oxides? Give two examples of amphoteric oxides.
Ans:

  • The oxides which act as both acidic as well as basic are called amphoteric oxides.
    Example: Al2O3 and ZnO are amphoteric oxides

Q7. Name two metals which will displace hydrogen from dilute acids, and two metals which will not.
Ans: Zn and Al will displace hydrogen from dilute acids because they are more reactive than hydrogen, whereas Cu and Ag cannot displace hydrogen from dilute acids because they are less reactive than hydrogen.
Zn(s) + 2HCl(dil) → ZnCl2(aq) + H2(g)
2Al(s) + 6HCl(dil) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3H2(g)

Page No. 57

Q8. In the electrolytic refining of a metal M, what would you take as the anode, the cathode, and the electrolyte?
Ans: Impure metal acts as an anode, and pure metal acts as a cathode. Soluble salt of metal acts as an electrolyte.

  • When current is passed through the electrolyte, the impure metal from the anode is dissolved in the electrolyte and an equal amount of pure metal from the electrolyte is deposited on the cathode.

Q9. Pratyush took a sulphur powder on a spatula and heated it. He collected the gas evolved by inverting a test tube over it, as shown in the figure below.

(a) What will be the action of gas on:
(i) dry litmus paper?
(ii) moist litmus paper?

(b) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction taking place.
Ans: (a) 
(i) There will be no action on dry litmus paper.
(ii) The colour of litmus paper will turn red because sulfur is non-metal, and the oxides of non-metal are acidic in nature.
(b) Chemical Equation for the reaction taking place.
S + O2   → SO2
(Sulphur)              Sulphur dioxide
SO2     +   H2O → H2SO3
(Sulphurous acid)

Q10. State two ways to prevent the rusting of iron.
Ans: Two ways to prevent the rusting of iron are:
(i) Painting

  • Iron articles are painted so that surface does not come in contact with air and water, and it does not get rusted.

(ii) Galvanisation

  • It is a process in which iron particles are coated with zinc metal so as to prevent them from rusting. 
  • Zinc is more reactive than iron; therefore, it loses electrons more readily and prevents iron from rusting.


Q11. What type of oxides are formed when non-metals combine with oxygen?
Ans: Mostly acidic oxides are formed when non-metal combines with oxygen.

Q12. Give reasons.
(a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery.
(b) Sodium, potassium, and lithium are stored under oil.
(c) Aluminium is a highly reactive metal, yet it is used to make utensils for cooking.
(d) Carbonate and sulfide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction.

Ans:

(a) Platinum, gold, and silver are used to make jewellery because they are:

  • Very lustrous
  • Also, they are very less reactive and do not corrode easily.

(b) Sodium, potassium, and lithium are:

  • Very reactive metals and react very vigorously with air as well as water.
  • Therefore, they are kept immersed in kerosene oil in order to prevent their contact with air and moisture.

(c) Though aluminium is a highly reactive metal, it is resistant to corrosion. 

This is because:

  •  Aluminium reacts with oxygen present in the air to form a thin layer of aluminium oxide. 
  • This oxide layer is very stable and prevents further reaction of aluminium with oxygen. 
  • Also, it is light in weight and a good conductor of heat. Hence, it is used to make cooking utensils.

(d) Carbonate and sulfide ores are usually converted into oxides during the process of extraction because metals can be easily extracted from their oxides rather than from their carbonates and sulfides.

Q13. You must have seen tarnished copper vessels being cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice. Explain why these sour substances are effective in cleaning the vessels.
Ans:

  • Copper reacts with moist carbon dioxide in the air to form copper carbonate, and as a result, the copper vessel loses its shiny brown surface forming a green layer of copper carbonate.
  • The citric acid present in the lemon or tamarind neutralises the basic copper carbonate and dissolves the layer.
  • That is why tarnished copper vessels are cleaned with lemon or tamarind juice to give the surface of the copper vessel its characteristic lustre.

Q14. Differentiate between metal and non-metal on the basis of their chemical properties.
Ans:

Q15. A man went door to door posing as a goldsmith. He promised to bring back the glitter of old and dull gold ornaments. An unsuspecting lady gave a set of gold bangles to him, which he dipped in a particular solution. The bangles sparkled like new, but their weight was reduced drastically. The lady was upset, but after a futile argument, the man beat a hasty retreat. Can you play the detective to find out the nature of the solution he had used?
Ans:

  • The solution he had used was aqua regia, which is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1.
  • Aqua regia is one of the few reagents that are able to dissolve gold.
  • When the person claimed to be a goldsmith dipped bangles in aqua regia, some of the gold got dissolved, and hence the weight of the bangles got reduced.

Q16. Give reasons why copper is used to making hot water tanks and not steel (an alloy of iron).
Ans: Copper is used for making hot water tanks because it has excellent thermal conductivity, allowing efficient heat transfer. It is also highly resistant to corrosion, unlike steel, which rusts easily when exposed to water.

02.Acids, Bases and Salts- Textbooks Solutions

Page No. 18

Q1. You have been provided with three test tubes. One of them contains distilled water, and the other two contain an acidic solution and a basic solution, respectively. If you are given only red litmus paper, how will you identify the contents of each test tube?
Ans: 

(i) Put the red litmus paper in all the test tubes, turn by turn. The solution which turns red litmus to blue will be a basic solution. The blue litmus paper formed here can now be used to test the acidic solution.

(ii) Put the blue litmus paper obtained above in the remaining two test-tubes, turn-by-turn. The solution which turns the blue litmus paper to red will be the acidic solution.

(iii) The solution which has no effect on any litmus paper will be neutral and hence it will be distilled water.

Page No. 22

Q1. Why should curd and sour substances not be kept in brass and copper vessels?
Ans: 
Curd and sour substances should not be kept in brass and copper vessels because these and other sour food-stuffs contain acids which can react with the metal of the vessel to form poisonous metal compounds which can cause food poisoning and affect our health adversely. 


Q2. Which gas is usually liberated when an acid reacts with a metal? Illustrate with an example. How will you test for the presence of this gas?
Ans: 
Usually, hydrogen gas is liberated when an acid reacts with a metal. For example, let us take the reaction between zinc and sulphuric acid.

The reaction of zinc granules with dil. H2SO4 to liberate hydrogen gas which burns with a ‘pop’ sound
(i) Take 5 g of zinc granules in a test tube.
(ii) Set the apparatus, as shown in the diagram.
(iii) Add 20 mL of dil. H2SO4 with the help of a thistle funnel.
(iv) Collect the gas evolved in a gas jar, as shown in the figure.
(v) Observe the colour and odour of the gas.
(vi) Bring a burning matchstick near the gas jar and record your observations.

Observation: A colourless, odourless gas is evolved. It burns explosively with a ‘pop’ sound when a burning matchstick is brought near it, indicating the presence of hydrogen gas. 

The pop sound is because whenever we bring hydrogen in contact with heat it expands , it is so fast that it breaks the sound barrier.

Chemical Reaction: Zn(s) + H2SO4(dil) → ZnSO4(aq) + H2(g)

Q3. Metal compound A reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid to produce effervescence. The gas evolved extinguishes a burning candle. Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction if one of the compounds formed is calcium chloride.
Ans: 
Calcium carbonate (A), when reacts with hydrochloric acid, produces carbon dioxide gas with effervescence. Carbon dioxide gas is used as a fire extinguisher. Therefore, it extinguishes a burning candle. Hence, the metal compound A is calcium carbonate.

Chemical Reaction: CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(aq) → CaCl2(s)+ CO2 (g) + H2O(l)

Page No. 25

Q1. Why do HCl, HNO3, etc., show acidic characters in aqueous solutions while solutions of compounds like alcohol and glucose do not show acidic character?
Ans: 
Release of H+ ion in water will make a compound acidic or non-acidic. Acids are substances which, upon dissociating with water, resulting in the production of Hydrogen ions.  HCI, HNO3, etc. dissociate into their ions in the presence of water. They form hydrogen ions (H+). These hydrogen ions combine with H2O to form hydronium ions (H3O+). 
The reaction can be given as follows:
HCl → H+ + Cl
H+ + H2O → H3O+
Similarly, HNO3 → H+ + NO3
H+ + H2O →  H3O+

  • Due to this property, HCl and HNO3 show acidic character in aqueous solutions. On the other hand, alcohol and glucose cannot dissociate in water to form hydrogen ions. Hence, they do not show acidic character.

Q2. Why does an aqueous solution of an acid conduct electricity?
Ans: 
An aqueous solution of acid conducts electricity because of the presence of charged particles called ions in it. When dissolved in water, acids dissociate to form ions. 
Example:
HCl + H2O → Cl + H3O+
These ions are responsible for conducting electricity.

Q3. Why does dry HCl gas not change the colour of the dry litmus paper?
Ans: 
Dry HCl gas do not change the colour of dry litmus paper because:

  • We know that H+ ions of acid change the colour of the litmus. 
  • Dry HCI does not dissociate to give H+ ions. 
  • Acids dissociate to give ions only in the aqueous medium. 
  • Since in this case, neither HCI is in the aqueous form nor is the litmus paper wet, so the colour of the litmus paper does not change.

Q4. While diluting an acid, why is it recommended that the acid should be added to water and not water to the acid?
Ans: 
The process of dissolving an acid in water is highly exothermic. The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant stirring. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause severe burns. The glass container may also break due to excessive heating.

Q5. How is the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) affected when a solution of an acid is diluted?
Ans: 

  • When a given amount of acid is added to water, there is a fixed number of hydronium ions per unit volume of the solution.
  • On dilution number of hydronium ions per unit volume decreases and the concentration of hydronium ions (H3O+) decreases and becomes weak.

Q6. How is the concentration of hydroxide ions (OH) affected when excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide?
Ans:

  • The concentration of hydroxide ions (OH) increases when the excess base is dissolved in a solution of sodium hydroxide.
  • The concentration of (OH) Hydroxide ions increases when the excessive base is added to the solution of Sodium Hydroxide as the base itself dissociates to give out OH ions which increase their concentration per unit volume.

Page No. 28

Q1. You have two solutions, A and B. The pH of solution A is 6, and the pH of solution B is 8. Which solution has more hydrogen ion concentration? Which of these is acidic, and which one is basic?
Ans: 
Solution A has more H+ ion concentration. A pH value of less than 7 indicates the acidic nature, while greater than 7 indicates the basic nature of a solution. So, solution A is acidic, and solution B is basic.

Q2. What effect does the concentration of H+(aq) ions have on the nature of the solution?
Ans: 
The concentration of H+(aq) can have a varied effect on the nature of the solution. With an increase in H+ ion concentration, the solution becomes more acidic, while a decrease in H+ ion causes an increase in the basicity of the solution.

Q3. Do basic solutions also have H+(aq)  ions? If yes, then why are these basic?
Ans: 
Yes, the basic solution also has H+(aq) ions. However, their concentration is less as compared to the concentration of OH ions that makes the solution basic.

Q4. Under what soil conditions do you think a farmer would treat the soil of his fields with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate)?
Ans: 
If the farmer finds his soil to be more acidic, then to increase the basicity of the soil, he should treat the soil of his field with quick lime (calcium oxide) or slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) or chalk (calcium carbonate).

Page No. 33

Q1. What is the common name of the compound Ca(OCl)2?
Ans: 
Bleaching Powder
Explanation: The compound Ca(OCl)2 is commonly known as bleaching powder. The reason for this common name is due to the compound’s primary use. It is often used as a disinfecting agent and to bleach cotton and linen in the textile industry. The chemical name for this compound is calcium hypochlorite, but it is more widely recognized and referred to as bleaching powder.
Bleaching powder structural formula

Q2. Name the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder?
Ans: 
Dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2].

Explanation: Bleaching powder, also known as Calcium hypochlorite [Ca(OCl)2], is produced by the action of chlorine on dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2]. This reaction can be represented by the following chemical equation:

2Ca(OH)2 + 2Cl2 → Ca(OCl)2 + CaCl2 + 2H2O

In this reaction, chlorine (Cl2) is added to dry slaked lime (Ca(OH)2) to produce bleaching powder (Ca(OCl)2), calcium chloride (CaCl2), and water (H2O). The chlorine oxidizes the calcium hydroxide to produce the calcium hypochlorite, which is the main component of bleaching powder. The calcium chloride is a byproduct of this reaction.

So, the substance which on treatment with chlorine yields bleaching powder is dry slaked lime [Ca(OH)2].


Q3. Name the sodium compound which is used for softening hard water.
Ans: 
Washing soda (Na2CO3.10H2O)

Explanation: Hard water contains minerals like calcium and magnesium that can cause a buildup in plumbing and appliances, and make it difficult for soap to lather. Sodium carbonate, also known as washing soda or soda ash, is used to soften hard water. When added to water, it reacts with the calcium and magnesium ions, forming insoluble precipitates that can be removed from the water. This reduces the mineral content of the water, effectively “softening” it. The formula Na2CO3.10H2O represents washing soda, which means it is a hydrated salt with 10 molecules of water of crystallization.

Q4. What will happen if a solution of sodium hydro carbonate is heated? Give the equation of the reaction involved.
Ans: 
When sodium hydrogen carbonate is heated, then sodium carbonate and water are formed along with carbon dioxide gas evolution.


Q5. Write an equation to show the reaction between Plaster of Paris and water.
Ans: 

Exercises (Page No. 34 & 35) 

Q1. A solution turns red litmus blue, its pH is likely to be
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 5
(d) 10

Ans: (d) 
Solution: pH = 10, bases turn red litmus blue, and their pH is more than 7.

Q2. A solution reacts with crushed egg-shells to give a gas that turns lime-water milky. The solution contains
(a) NaCl
(b) HCl 
(c) LiCl 
(d) KCl
Ans: (b)
Solution:
Eggshells are made up of CaCO3 which reacts with HCl to form CO2, and this CO2 turns lime water milky.
Example:
CaCO3(s) + 2HCl(dil)→ CaCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + CO2(g)
Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)

Q3. 10 mL of a solution of NaOH is found to be completely neutralised by 8 ml of a given solution of HCl. If we take 20 ml of the same solution of NaOH, the amount of HCl solution (the same solution as before) required to neutralise it will be
(a) 4 mL
(b) 8mL
(c) 12 mL 
(d) 16 mL
Ans: (d) 
Solution:
∴ 10 mL of NaOH will neutralise
= 8 mL of HCI.
= 20 mL of NaOH will neutralise
= 8/10 x 20 = 16 mL.

Q4. Which one of the following types of medicines are used for treating indigestion?
(a) Antibiotic
(b) Analgesic
(c) Antacid
(d) Antiseptic

Ans: (c) 
Solution:

  • Antacids are used to neutralise hyperacidity in the stomach due to excess of HCI which causes indigestion. 
  • Antibiotics are used to fight infections. 
  • Analgesics are pain killer while antiseptics prevent the growth of bacteria and other micro-organisms on wounds.

Q5. Write word equations and then balanced equations for the reaction taking place when:
(a) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with zinc granules.
(b) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with magnesium ribbon.
(c) Dilute sulphuric acid reacts with aluminium powder.
(d) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with iron filings.

Ans:
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)


Q6. Compounds such as alcohols and glucose also contain hydrogen but are not categorized as acids. Describe an activity to prove it.
Ans:

  • Fix two iron nails on a cork and place this cork in a beaker.
  • Connect the nails to the two terminals of a 6-volt battery through a switch and a bulb, as shown in the figure.
  • Now add some dilute hydrochloric acid in the beaker and switch on the current. Take the observation.
  • Repeat the experiment separately with alcohol and glucose solution.

Observation: You will observe that in the case of dilute hydrochloric acid bulb glows, but when glucose or alcohol solution is taken in the beaker, the bulb does not glow.
Conclusion: The aqueous solution of hydrochloric acid conducts electricity due to the presence of types of charged particles: Hydrogen ions and chloride ions. Unlike acids glucose and ethanol do not ionise in an aqueous solution, i.e. they do not give H+ ions; therefore, they cannot conduct electricity. Thus, glucose and ethanol are not categorized as acids.

Q7. Why does distilled water not conduct electricity, whereas rainwater does? 

Ans: 

  • Distilled water does not conduct electricity because it does not contain any ionic compound (like acids, bases or salts) dissolved in it.
  • Rainwater, while falling to the earth through the atmosphere, dissolves an acidic gas carbon dioxide from the air and forms carbonic acid (H2CO3). 
  • Carbonic acid provides hydrogen ions, H+ (aq) and carbonate ions, CO(aq)32to rainwater. 
  • Hence, due to the presence of carbonic acid which provides ions to rainwater, the rainwater conducts electricity.

Q8. Why do acids not show acidic behaviour in the absence of water?
Ans: 
It is because acids do not dissociate into ions in the absence of water. But when an acid is dissolved in water, it forms hydrogen ions and hence, shows acidic behaviour.

Q9. Five solutions A, B, C, D and E when tested with universal indicator showed pH as 4, 1, 11, 7 and 9, respectively. Which solution is
(a) Neutral?
(b) Strongly alkaline?
(c) Strongly acidic?
(d) Weakly acidic?
(e) Weakly alkaline?
Arrange the pH in increasing order of hydrogen-ion concentration.

Ans:pH level from acidic to basic

(a) Neutral → Solution D with pH 7
(b) Strongly alkaline → Solution C with pH 11
(c) Strongly acidic → Solution B with pH 1
(d) Weakly acidic → Solution A with pH 4
(e) Weakly alkaline → Solution E with pH 9

  • The pH can be arranged in the increasing order of the concentration of hydrogen ions as: 11 < 9 < 7 < 4 < 1.

Q10. Equal lengths of magnesium ribbons are taken in test tubes A and B. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is added to test tube A, while acetic acid (CH3COOH) is added to test tube B. In which test tube will the fizzing occur more vigorously and why?
Ans: 
Fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A. Hydrochloric acid (HCl) is a strong acid whereas acetic acid (CH3COOH) is a weak acid. Being strong acid, the hydrochloric acid solution contains a much greater amount of hydrogen ions in it due to which the fizzing will occur more vigorously in test tube A (containing hydrochloric acid). The fizzing is due to the evolution of hydrogen gas which is formed by the action of acid on the magnesium metal of magnesium ribbon.

Q11. Fresh milk has a pH of 6. How do you think the pH will change as it turns into curd? Explain your answer.
Ans: 
Milk contains carbohydrate lactose. When milk sets into curd, lactose gets converted into an acid called lactic acid. Due to the formation of lactic acid, the pH of milk falls below 6.

Q12. A milkman adds a very small amount of baking soda to fresh milk.
(a) Why does he shift the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline?
(b) Why does this milk take a long time to set as curd?

Ans: 
(a) The milkman shifts the pH of the fresh milk from 6 to slightly alkaline because, in alkaline conditions, milk does not set as curd easily.
(b) Since this milk is slightly basic than usual milk, acids produced to set the curd are neutralized by the base. Therefore, it takes a longer time for the curd to set.

Q13. Plaster of Paris should be stored in a moisture-proof container. Explain why?
Ans: 
It will absorb water to form gypsum which sets into a hard solid mass. This will make Plaster of Paris useless after some time.
Example:

Q14. What is a neutralization reaction? Give two examples.
Ans: 
A reaction in which an acid and base react with each other to give salt and water is termed as neutralization reaction.
Example:
NaOH(aq) + HCl(aq) → NaCl(aq) +H2O(l)
H2SO4(aq) + 2NH4OH(aq) → (NH4)2SO4(aq) + 2H2O

Q15. Give two important uses of washing soda and baking soda.
Ans:

Uses of Washing Soda
(i) It is used in the manufacture of glass, soap, paper, and other sodium compounds like borax, etc.
(ii) It is used in softening hard water.

Uses of Baking Soda
(i) It is used as an antacid to neutralise the excess of acidity (hyper-acidity) in the stomach.
(ii) It is an ingredient of baking powder that contains NaHCO3 and tartaric acid.
(iii) It is used in making soda acid fire extinguishers.

01. Chemical Reactions and Equations- Textbooks Solutions

Page No. 6

Q.1. Why should a magnesium ribbon be cleaned before burning in air?
Ans: When magnesium ribbon is exposed to air, it forms a layer of magnesium oxide on its surface. This layer of magnesium oxide, being a stable compound, prevents further reaction of magnesium with oxygen. Hence, it should be cleaned before burning in air to remove this layer so that the metal can be exposed to air properly (the oxide layer may prevent or slow down the burning of magnesium.

Burning of Magnesium Ribbon


Q.2. Write the balanced equation for the following chemical reactions.
(a) Hydrogen + Chlorine → Hydrogen chloride
(b) Barium chloride + Aluminium sulphate → Barium sulphate + Aluminium chloride
(c) Sodium + Water → Sodium hydroxide + Hydrogen
Ans:
(a) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
(b) 
3BaCl​2(aq)+Al​2(SO​4)​3(aq)→3BaSO​4(s)+2AlCl3(aq)
(c) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + H2(g)

Q.3. Write a balanced chemical equation with state symbols for the following reactions.
(a) Solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate in water react to give insoluble barium sulphate and the solution of sodium chloride.
(b) Sodium hydroxide solution (in water) reacts with a hydrochloric acid solution (in water) to produce sodium chloride solution and water.

Ans: 

a) Barium chloride reacts with sodium sulphate to form barium sulphate (insoluble) and sodium chloride:

BaCl2(aq)+Na2SO4(aq)→BaSO4(s)+2NaCl(aq)

(b) Sodium hydroxide solution reacts with hydrochloric acid solution to produce sodium chloride solution and water:

NaOH(aq)+ HCl(aq)→NaCl(aq)+H2O(l)


Page No. 10

Q.1. A solution of a substance ‘X’ is used for whitewashing.
(a) Name the substance ‘X’ and write its formula.
(b) Write the reaction of the substance ‘X’ named in (i) above with water.

Ans: 
(a) The substance ‘X’ is calcium oxide. Its chemical formula is CaO. 
(b) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to form calcium hydroxide (slaked lime).

CaO(s)+ H2O(l)→Ca(OH)2(aq)
Calcium oxide + water → Calcium Hydroxide

Q.2. Why is the amount of gas collected in one of the test tubes in Activity 1.7 double the amount collected in the other? Name this gas. 
Ans:

Electrolysis of Water

In Activity 1.7, gas collected in one of the test tubes is double of the amount collected in the other. This can be explained with the help of the chemical reaction that takes place.

2H2O (l)→ 2H2(g) + O2(g)

The volume of the gas is proportional to the number of molecules of the gas as indicated in the balanced equation. There are two molecules of hydrogen and one molecule of oxygen in the balanced equation. Hence the amount of Hydrogen collected would be double than that of oxygen.

Page No. 13

Q.1. Why does the colour of copper sulphate solution change when an iron nail is dipped in it?
Ans: Iron is more reactive than copper. So, When an iron nail is dipped in a copper sulphate solution, iron displaces copper from its solution to form iron sulphate, which is green in colour.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Hence, the blue colour of copper sulphate solution changes into green colour because of this displacement reaction.

Iron nail dipped in copper sulphate solution


Q.2. Give an example of a double displacement reaction other than the one given in Activity 1.10
Ans: Sodium carbonate and calcium chloride exchange ions to form two new compounds calcium carbonate and sodium chloride.
Na2CO3(aq) + CaCl2(aq) → CaCO3(s) + 2NaCl(aq)

Q.3. Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions.
(a) 4Na (s)+ O2 (g) → 2Na2O (s)
(b) CuO (s) +H2 (g) → Cu (s)+ H2O (g)

Ans: 
(a) Sodium (Na) is oxidised as it gains oxygen and oxygen gets reduced.
(b) Copper oxide (CuO) is reduced to copper (Cu) while hydrogen (H2) gets oxidised to water (H2O).


Page No. 14 – 16

Exercise Questions
Q.1. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO (s) + C (s) → 2Pb (s) + CO2 (g)
(a) Lead is getting reduced.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised.
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced.

(i) (a) and (b)
(ii) (a) and (c)
(iii) (a), (b) and (c)
(iv) all 
Ans: 
(a) Lead is getting reduced is an incorrect answer.
(b) Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised is an incorrect answer.
(c) Carbon is getting oxidised is an correct answer because the removed oxygen from lead is added to the elemental Carbon.
(d) Lead oxide is getting reduced is correct answer because oxygen is being removed.
As statements (a) and (b) are incorrect, answer (i) is correct.

Q.2. Fe2O3 + 2Al → Al2O + 2Fe
The above reaction is an example of a
(a) combination reaction.
(b) double displacement reaction.
(c) decomposition reaction.
(d) displacement reaction.
 
Ans: (d)
In this reaction Aluminum is more reactive metal than Fe. The Oxygen from the Ferrous oxide is getting displaced to the Aluminium metal to form Aluminium Oxide. Therefore Al will displace Fe from its oxide. Since one-time displacement is occurring, therefore, it is called a single displacement reaction. 

Q.3. What happens when dilute hydrochloric acid is added to iron filings? Tick the correct answer.
(a) Hydrogen gas and iron chloride are produced.
(b) Chlorine gas and iron hydroxide are produced.
(c) No reaction takes place.
(d) Iron salt and water are produced.
 
Ans: (a)
Fe(s) + 2HCl(dil.) → FeCl2(aq) + H2(g) 
Hydrogen gas and Iron (II) chloride are produced.

Q.4. What is a balanced chemical equation? Why should chemical equations be balanced?
Ans: Balanced chemical equation means total number of atoms of each element should be equal on both sides of the reaction.
For example, magnesium and oxygen combine, when heated to form a single compound magnesium oxide.
2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s)
The reaction should be balanced because matter can neither be created nor be destroyed. The total mass of reactants should be equal to the total mass of products.

Q.5. Translate the following statements into chemical equations and then balance them.
(a) Hydrogen gas combines with nitrogen to form ammonia.
(b) Hydrogen sulphide gas burns in air to give water and sulphur dioxide.
(c) Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and a precipitate of barium sulphate.
 
(d) Potassium metal reacts with water to give potassium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. 
Ans:
(a) Unbalanced equation: H2(g) + N2(g) → NH3(g)
Balanced equation: 3H2(g) + N2(g) → 2NH3(g) 
(b) Unbalanced equation: H2S + O→ H2O + SO2
Balanced equation: 2H2S (g) + 3O2(g) → 2H2O(g) + 2SO2(g)   
(c) Unbalanced equation: BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq)  → AlCl3(aq) + BaSO4(s)
Balanced equation: 3BaCl2(aq) + Al2(SO4)3(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3BaSO4(s)
(d) Unbalanced equation: K(s) + H2O(l) → KOH (aq) + H2(g)
Balanced equation: 2K(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2KOH(aq) + H2(g)

Q.6. Balance the following chemical equations.
(a) HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O
(b) NaOH + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O
(c) NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3
(d) BaCl2 + H2SO4 → BaSO4 + HCl

Ans: Balanced chemical equations are given as under :
(a) 2HNO3(aq) + Ca(OH)2(aq) → Ca(NO3)2(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(b) 2NaOH(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → Na2SO4(aq) + 2H2O(l)
(c) NaCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
(d) BaCl2(aq) + H2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2HCl(aq)

Q.7. Write the balanced chemical equations for the following reactions.
(a) Calcium hydroxide + Carbon dioxide → Calcium carbonate + Water
(b) Zinc + Silver nitrate → Zinc nitrate + Silver
(c) Aluminium + Copper chloride → Aluminium chloride + Copper
(d) Barium chloride + Potassium sulphate → Barium sulphate  + Potassium chloride

Ans: Balanced chemical equations for the reactions are given as under:
(a) Ca(OH)2(aq) + CO2(g) → CaCO3(s) + H2O(l)
(b) Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(c) 2Al(s) + 3CuCl2(aq) → 2AlCl3(aq) + 3Cu(s)
(d) BaCl2(aq) + K2SO4(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2KCl(aq)

Q.8. Write the balanced chemical equation for the following and identify the type of reaction in each case.
(a)Potassium bromide (aq) + Barium iodide (aq)­ → Potassium iodide (aq) + Barium bromide(s) 
(b) Zinc carbonate (s) → Zinc oxide (s)  + Carbon dioxide (g) 
(c) Hydrogen (g) + Chlorine (g) → Hydrogen chloride (g)
(d) Magnesium (s) + Hydrochloric acid (aq) → Magnesium chloride(aq) + Hydrogen (g)

Ans:
(a) 2KBr(aq) + BaI2(aq) → 2KI(aq) + BaBr2(s)
Double displacement reaction
(b) ZnCO3(s) →  ZnO(s) + CO2(g)
Decomposition reaction
(c) H2(g) + Cl2(g) → 2HCl(g)
Combination reaction
(d) Mg(s) + 2HCl(aq) → MgCl2(aq) + H2(g)
Displacement Reaction 

Q.9. What does one mean by exothermic and endothermic reactions? Give examples. 
Ans: Endothermic Reaction: An endothermic reaction occurs when energy is absorbed from the surroundings in the form of heat. 
Examples: Photosynthesis, melting of ice, evaporation.
Exothermic Reaction: Conversely, an exothermic reaction is one in which energy is released from the system into the surroundings. 
Examples: Explosions, concrete setting, nuclear fission and fusion. 

Q.10. Why is respiration considered an exothermic reaction? Explain. 
Ans: During respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in the cells of our body and provides energy. As energy is released during respiration, therefore, respiration is regarded as an exothermic reaction.
C6H12O(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) + Energy

Q.11. Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions? Write equations for these reactions.
Ans: Decomposition reactions are those in which a compound breaks down to form two or more substances. These reactions require a source of energy to proceed. Thus, they are the exact opposite of combination reactions in which two or more substances combine to give a new substance with the release of energy. For Example of decomposition Reactions are:
ZnCO3 → ZnO + CO2
CaCO3 + Energy → CaO + CO2
2HgO → 2Hg + O2

Q.12. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity. 
Ans:
(a) Thermal decomposition reaction (Thermolysis): When decomposition is carried out by heating, it is called thermal decomposition. On heating, Calcium carbonate decomposes to calcium oxide and carbon dioxide as shown below:
CaCO3(s) → CaO(s) + CO2(g) 
(b) Photodecomposition reaction (Photolysis): When decomposition is carried out by light, it is called photolysis. The below reaction is used in black and white photography.
2AgCl(s) →  2Ag(s)  + Cl2 (g) 
(c) Electrolytic decomposition reaction (Electrolysis): When decomposition is carried out by electricity, it is called electrolysis. On passing electricity, water decomposes to hydrogen and oxygen.
2H2O (l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)

Q.13. What is the difference between displacement and double displacement reactions? Write equations for these reactions. 
Ans: Displacement reaction: Those reactions in which more reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its salt solution is called displacement reactions.
Fe(s) + CuSO4(aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Double displacement reaction: Those reactions in which two compounds exchange their ions to form two new compounds are called double displacement reactions.
HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) → NaCl(aq) + H2O(l)

Q.14. In the refining of silver, the recovery of silver from silver nitrate solution involved displacement by copper metal. Write down the reaction involved.
Ans: Cu(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Cu(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)

Q.15. What do you mean by a precipitation reaction? Explain by giving examples.
Ans: When two solutions containing soluble salts are combined, a double displacement reaction takes place in which the ions are exchanged between the compounds. When one of such compounds is formed  in solid form (that is insoluble in aqua) then it settles down at the bottom of the container. This solid is known as the precipitate and the respective reaction is termed as the precipitation reaction. Few examples of precipitation reactions are:
When solutions of silver nitrate and sodium chloride are mixed, white precipitate of silver chloride is formed.
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)

On adding dilute hydrochloric acid to the aqueous solution of lead nitrate, precipitate of lead chloride is formed.
Pb(NO3)2 + 2HCl → PbCl2 + 2HNO3

Q.16. Explain the following in terms of gain or loss of oxygen with two examples each.
(a) Oxidation
(b) Reduction

Ans: (a) Oxidation: It is a process in which gain of oxygen takes place
Examples:
2Mg(s) + O2(g) → 2MgO(s) (Burning)
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s) (Heat)

(b) Reduction: It is a process in which removal of oxygen takes place.
Examples:

CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g) (Heat)
Fe2O3(s) + 2Al(s) → Al2O3(s) + 2Fe(s)


Q.17. A shiny brown-coloured element ‘X’ on heating in air becomes black in colour. Name the element ‘X’ and the black coloured compound formed.
Ans: ‘X’ is Copper.
Copper gets oxidised to copper oxide which is black in colour.
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s) (Heat)

Q.18. Why do we apply paint on iron articles? 
Ans: Painting is done so as to prevent iron from rusting. When the surface of iron is coated with paint, its surface does not come in contact with oxygen and moisture and therefore, rusting does not take place.

Q.19. Oil and fat containing food items are flushed with nitrogen. Why?
Ans: The main purpose of flushing Nitrogen into food packets that contain oil and fat items is to prevent Rancidity which occurs when the oil or fat reacts with the oxygen letting out an unpleasant smell and taste. Therefore by flushing Nitrogen, an unreactive surrounding is created thus preventing rancidity.
Variety of Oils

Q.20. Explain the following terms with one example each.
(a) Corrosion
(b) Rancidity

Ans: (a) Corrosion: It is the process in which metals are slowly eaten up by the action of air moisture or chemicals. For example rusting is a form of corrosion in which iron is eaten up by the action of air and moisture and a reddish brown coating of iron oxide is formed as shown in the following chemical reaction.
2Fe + 3H2O → Fe2O3 + 3H2
(b) Rancidity: When the substance containing oils and fats are exposed to air they get oxidised and become rancid due to which their smell, taste and colour change. This process is known as rancidity. For example when a when butter is kept open for a long time then its smell and taste gets changed.

14. Probability- Textbooks Solutions

Exercise 14.1

Q1. Complete the following statements.
(i) Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not E’ =  ________
(ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is  ________. Such an event is called  ________.
(iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is  ________ Such an event is called  ________.
(iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is  ________.
(v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to  ________ and less than or equal to  ________.

Ans:
(i) Probability of an event E + Probability of the event ‘not E’ = 1.
(ii) The probability of an event that cannot happen is 0. Such an event is called an impossible event.
(iii) The probability of an event that is certain to happen is 1. Such an event is called a sure or certain event.
(iv) The sum of the probabilities of all the elementary events of an experiment is 1.
(v) The probability of an event is greater than or equal to 0 and less than or equal to 1.

Q2. Which of the following experiments have equally likely outcomes? Explain. 
(i) A driver attempts to start a car. The car starts or does not start.
(ii) A player attempts to shoot a basketball. She/he shoots or misses the shot.
(iii) A trial is made to answer a true-false question. The answer is right or wrong.
(iv) A baby is born. It is a boy or a girl.

Ans:
(i) Since the car may or may not start, thus the outcomes are not equally likely.
(ii) The player may shoot or miss the shot.
∴ The outcomes are not equally likely.
(iii) In advance, it is known that the answer is to be either right or wrong.
 The outcomes right or wrong are equally likely to occur.
(iv) In advance, it is known the newly born baby has to be either a boy or a girl.
∴ The outcomes, either a boy or a girl are equally likely to occur.

Q3. Why is tossing a coin considered to be a fair way of deciding which team should get the ball at the beginning of a football game?
Ans: Since on tossing a coin, the outcomes ‘head’ and ‘tail’ are equally likely, the result of tossing a coin is completely unpredictable and so it is a fairway.

Q4. Which of the following cannot be the probability of an event?
(a) 2/3 
(b) − 1.5 
(c) 15% 
(d) 0.7

Ans: (b)
Solution: Since the probability of an event cannot be negative.
 Option (b) −1.5 cannot be the probability of an event.

Q5. If P(E) = 0.05, what is the probability of ‘not E’?
Ans: We know that,

P(E) + P(not E) = 1
∴ 0.05 + P(not E) = 1 ⇒ P(not E) = 1 − 0.05
= 0.95
Thus, the probability of ‘not E’ = 0.95.

Q6. A bag contains lemon flavoured candies only. Malini takes out one candy without looking into the bag. What is the probability that she takes out
(i) an orange flavoured candy?
(ii) a lemon flavoured candy?

Ans: 
(i) Since, there are lemon flavoured candies only in the bag,
∴ Taking out any orange flavoured candy is not possible.
⇒ Probability of taking out an orange flavoured candy = 0.
(ii) Also, the probability of taking out a lemon flavoured candy = 1.

Q7. It is given that in a group of 3 students, the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday is 0.992. What is the probability that the 2 students have the same birthday?
Ans: ∴ Let the probability of 2 students having same birthday = P(SB) And the probability of 2 students not having the same birthday = P(nSB)
∴ P(SB) + P(nSB)=1
⇒ P(SB) + 0.992 = 1
⇒ P(SB)=1 − 0.992 = 0.008
So, the required probability of 2 boys having the same birthday = 0.008.

Q8. A bag contains 3 red balls and 5 black balls. A ball is drawn at random from the bag. What is the probability that the ball drawn is (i) red? (ii) not red?
Ans:
Total number of balls = 3 + 5 = 8
∴ Number of all possible outcomes = 8
(i) For red balls
There are 3 red balls.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 3

(ii) For not red balls

Q9. A box contains 5 red marbles, 8 white marbles and 4 green marbles. One marble is taken out of the box at random. What is the probability that the marble taken out will be (i) red? and (ii) white? (iii) not green?
Ans:
Total number of marbles = 5 + 8 + 4 = 17
(i) For red marbles
∵ Number of red marbles = 5
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 5
∴ Probability of red marbles, P(red) = 5/17
(ii) For white balls
∵ Number of white balls = 8
∴ Probability of white balls,
∴ P(white)= 8/17
(iii) For not green balls 
∵ Number of white balls = 4
∴ Number of ‘not green’ balls = 17 − 4 = 13
i.e., Favourable outcomes = 13
P(not green) = 13/17
OR
Number of green marbles = 4
∴ Number of ‘not green balls’ = 17 − 4 = 13
⇒ Favourable outcomes = 13
∴ P(not green) = 13/17

Q10. A piggy bank contains hundred 50p coins, fifty Rs 1 coins, twenty Rs 2 coins and ten Rs 5 coins. If it is equally likely that one of the coins will fall out when the bank is turned upside down, what is the probability that the coin (i) will be a 50p coin? and (ii) will not be Rs 5 coin?
Ans: 
Number of:
50 p coins = 100
Re 1 coins = 50
Rs 2 coins = 20
Rs 5 coins = 10
Total number of coins = 100 + 50 + 20 + 10 = 180
(i) For a 50 p coin:
Favourable events = 100
∴ P(50 p) = 100/180 = 5/9
(ii) For not a Rs 5 coin:
a Number of Rs 5 coins = 10
∴ Number of ‘not Rs 5’ coins = 180 − 10 = 170
⇒ Favourable outcomes = 170
∴ P(not 5 rupee coin) = 170/180 = 17/18.

Q11. Gopi buys a fish from a shop for his aquarium. The shopkeeper takes out one fish at random from a tank containing 5 male fish and 8 female fish (see Fig.). What is the probability that the fish taken out is a male fish?

Ans: 
Number of:
Male fishes = 5
Female fishes = 8
∴ Total number of fishes = 5 + 8 = 13
⇒ Total number of outcomes = 13
For a male fish:
Number of favourable outcomes = 5
∴ P(male fish) = 5/13.

Q12. A game of chance consists of spinning an arrow which comes to rest pointing at one of the numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8 (see figure), and these are equally likely outcomes. What is the probability that it will point at 
(i) 8?
(ii) an odd number?
(iii) a number greater than 2?
(iv) a number less than 9?

Ans: Total numbers marked = 8
(i) When pointer points at 8
Total number of outcomes = 8
Number of favourable outcomes = 1
∴ P(8)

= 1/8

(ii) When pointer points at an odd number
Number of odd numbers from 1 to 8 = 4
[∵ Odd numbers are 1, 3, 5 and 7]
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 4
∴ P(odd) = 

(iii) When pointer points at a number greater than 2 
Number of numbers greater than 2 = 6
[∴ The numbers 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are greater than 2]
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 6

∴ P(greater than 2) = 

(iv) When pointer points a number less than 9: 
Number of numbers less than 9 = 8
[a The numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 and 8 are less than 9]
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 8

P(greater than 9)

Q13. A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting
(i) a prime number.
(ii) a number lying between 2 and 6.
(iii) an odd number.

Ans: Since, numbers on a die are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.
∴ Number of total outcomes = 6
(i) For prime numbers
Since 2, 3, and 5 are prime numbers,
∴ Favourable outcomes = 3
P(prime) =

(ii) For a number lying between 2 and 6 
Since the numbers between 2 and 6 are 3, 4 and 5
∴ Favourable outcomes = 3

(iii) For an odd number
Since 1, 3 and 5 are odd numbers.
⇒ Favourable outcomes = 3

Q14. One card is drawn from a well-shuffled deck of 52 cards. Find the probability of getting
(i) a king of red colour
(ii) a face card
(iii) a red face card
(iv) the jack of hearts
(v) a spade
(vi) the queen of diamonds 

Ans: Number of cards in deck = 52
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 52
(i) For a king of red colour
∵ Number of red colour kings = 2
[∵ Kings of diamond and heart are red]
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 2
E(red king)

(ii) For a face card 
∵ 4 kings, 4 queens and 4 jacks are face cards
∴ Number of face cards = 12
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 12
∴ P(face)

(iii) For a red face card
Since cards of diamond and heart are red
∴ There are [2 kings, 2 queens, 2 jacks] 6 cards are red
⇒ Favourable outcomes = 6
∴ P(red face)

 
(iv) For a jack of hearts 
Since there is only 1 jack of hearts.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 1
P(jack of hearts)

(v) For a spade
∵There are 13 spades in a pack of 52 cards:
∴ Favourable outcomes are 13.
P(spade)

(vi) For the queen of diamonds
∵ There is only one queen of a diamond.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 1
P(queen of diamonds)

Q 15: Five cards—the ten, jack, queen, king and ace of diamonds, are well-shuffled with their face downwards. One card is then picked up at random.
(i) What is the probability that the card is the queen?
(ii) If the queen is drawn and put aside, what is the probability that the second card picked up is (a) an ace? and (b) a queen?
Sol: We have five cards.
∴ All possible outcomes = 5
(i) For a queen:
∵ Number of queens = 1

(ii) The queen is drawn and put aside,
∴ Only 5 − 1 = 4 cards are left,
⇒ All possible outcomes = 4
(a) For an ace:
∵ There is only one ace
∴ Number favourable outcomes = 1

(b) For a queen:
Since, the only queen has already been put aside.
∴ Number of possible outcomes = 0


Q 16: 12 defective pens are accidentally mixed with 132 good ones. It is not possible to just look at a pen and tell whether or not it is defective. One pen is taken out at random from this lot. Determine the probability that the pen taken out is a good one.
Sol: We have
Number of good pens = 132
Number of defective pens = 1 2
∴ Total number of pens = 132 + 12 = 144
For good pens:
∵ There are 132 good pens
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 132

Q 17: (i) A lot of 20 bulbs contain 4 defective ones. One bulb is drawn at random from the lot. What is the probability that this bulb is defective?
(ii) Suppose the bulb drawn in (i) is not defective and is not replaced. Now one bulb is drawn at random from the rest. What is the probability that this bulb is not defective?
Sol: Since, there are 20 bulbs in the lot.
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 20
(i) ∵ Number defective bulbs = 4
i.e., Favourable outcomes = 4

(ii) ∵ The bulb drawn above is not included in the lot.
∴ Remaining number of bulbs = 20 − 1 = 19.
⇒ Total number of possible outcomes = 19.
∵ Number of bulbs which are not defective = 19 − 4 = 15
⇒ Favourable number of outcomes = 15


Q 18: A box contains 90 discs which are numbered from 1 to 90. If one disc is drawn at random from the box, find the probability that it bears (i) a two-digit number, (ii) a perfect square number and (iii) a number divisible by 5.

Sol: We have:
Total number of discs = 90
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 90
(i) For a two-digit number:
Since the two-digit numbers are 10, 11, 12, ….., 90.
∴ Number of two-digit numbers = 90 − 9 = 81
[∵ 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, and 9 are 1-digit numbers]
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 81

(ii) For a perfect square:
Perfect squares from 1 to 90 are 1, 4, 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 64, and 81
∴ Number of perfect numbers = 9
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 9

(iii) For a number divisible by 5:
Numbers divisible by 5 [from 1 to 90] are: 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30, 35, 40, 45, 50, 55, 60, 65, 70, 75, 80, 85, 90
i.e. There are 18 number (1 to 90) which are divisible by 5.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 18


Q 19: A child has a die whose six faces show the letters as given below:

The die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting (i) A? and (ii) D?
Sol: Since there are six faces of the given die and these faces are marked with letters

∴ Total number of letters = 6
⇒ Number of possible outcomes = 6
(i) For the letter A 
∵ Two faces are having the letter A.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 2

(ii) For the letter D:
∵ Number of D’s = 1
∴ Number of possible outcomes = 1


Q 20: Suppose you drop a die at random on the rectangular region shown in figure. What is the probability that it will land inside the circle with diameter 1 m?

Sol: Here, Area of the rectangle = 3 m × 2 m = 6 m2
And, the area of the circle = πr2

∴ Probability for the die to fall inside the circle


Q 21: A lot consists of 144 ball pens of which 20 are defective and the others are good. Nuri will buy a pen if it is good, but will not buy if it is defective. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random and gives it to her. What is the probability that (i) She will buy it? (ii) She will not buy it?
Sol: Total number of ball pens = 144
⇒ All possible outcomes = 144
(i) Since there are 20 defective pens
∴ Number of good pens 144 − 20 = 124
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 124
∴ Probability that she will buy it

(ii) Probability that she will not buy it
=1 − [Probability that she will buy it]


Q 22: Two dice one blue and one grey, are thrown at the same time. Now Complete the following table:

(ii) A student argues that there are 11 possible outcomes 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9, 10, 11 and 12. Therefore, each of them has a probability 1/11. Do you agree with this argument? Justify your answer.
Sol: 

∵ The two dice are thrown together.
∴ Following are the possible outcomes:
(1, 1); (1, 2); (1, 3); (1, 4); (1, 5); (1, 6).
(2, 1); (2, 2); (2, 3); (2, 4); (2, 5); (2, 6).
(3, 1); (3, 2); (3, 3); (3, 4); (3, 5); (3, 6).
(4, 1); (4, 2); (4, 3); (4, 4); (4, 5); (4, 6).
(5, 1); (5, 2); (5, 3); (5, 4); (5, 5); (5, 6).
(6, 1); (6, 2); (6, 3); (6, 4); (6, 5); (6, 6).
⇒ Number of all possible outcomes is 6 × 6 = 36.
(i) Let the required probability be P(E).
(a) ∵ The sum on two dice is 3 for: (1, 2) and (2, 1)
∴ Favourable outcomes = 2

(b) a The sum on two dice is 4 for: (1, 3), (2, 2) and (3, 1).
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 3

(c) ∵ The sum on two dice is 5 for:
(1, 4), (2, 3), (3, 2) and (4, 1)
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 4

(d) The sum on two dice is 6 for:
(1, 5), (2, 4), (3, 3), (4, 2) and (5, 1)
∴ Number favourable outcomes = 5

(e) The sum on two dice is 7 for:
(1, 6), (2, 5), (3, 4), (4, 3), (5, 2) and (6, 1)
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 6

(f) The sum on two dice is 9 for:
(3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4) and (6, 3)
∴ Number of favourable outcome = 4

(g) The sum on two dice is 10 for:
(4, 6), (5, 5), (6, 4)
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 3

(h) The sum on two dice is 11 for:
(5, 6) and (6, 5)
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 2

Thus, the complete table is as under:

(ii) No. The number of all possible outcomes is 36 and not 11.
∴ The argument is not correct.

Q 23: A game consists of tossing a one rupee coin 3 times and noting its outcome each time. Hanif wins if all the tosses give the same result i.e., three heads or three tails, and loses otherwise. Calculate the probability that Hanif will lose the game.
Sol: Let T denotes the tail and H denotes the head.
∴ All the possible outcomes are:
HHH, HHT, HTT, TTT, TTH, THT, TTH, HTH
∴ Number of all possible outcomes = 8
Let the event that Hanif will lose the game be denoted by E.
∴ Favourable events are:
HHT, HTH, THH, THT , TTH, HTT
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = 6


Q 24: A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that
(i) 5 will not come up either time?
(ii) 5 will come up at least once? 
[Hint: Throwing a die twice and throwing two dice simultaneously are treated as the same experiment.]
Sol: Since, throwing a die twice or throwing two dice simultaneously is the same.
∴ All possible outcomes are:
(1, 1); (1, 2); (1, 3); (1, 4); (1, 5); (1, 6)
(2, 1); (2, 2); (2, 3); (2, 4); (2, 5); (2, 6)
(3, 1); (3, 2); (3, 3); (3, 4); (3, 5); (3, 6)
(4, 1); (4, 2); (4, 3); (4, 4); (4, 5); (4, 6)
(5, 1); (5, 2); (5, 3); (5, 4); (5, 5); (5, 6)
(6, 1); (6, 2); (6, 3); (6, 4); (6, 5); (6, 6)
∴ All possible outcomes = 36
(i) Let E be the event that 5 does not come up either time, then
The favourable outcomes are [36 − (5 + 6)] = 25

(ii) Let N be the event that 5 will come up at least once, then Number of favourable outcomes = 5 + 6 = 11


Q 25: Which of the following arguments are correct and which are not correct? Give reasons for your answer. (i) If two coins are tossed simultaneously there are three possible outcomes—two heads, two tails or one of each. Therefore, for each of these outcomes, the probability is 1/3.
(ii) If a die is thrown, there are two possible outcomes—an odd number or an even number.
Therefore, the probability of getting an odd number is 1/2.

Sol: (i) Argument is incorrect.
The possible outcomes are- (HH), (HT), (TH), (TT)
∴ 

(ii) Argument is correct.
Possible outcomes = 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
Odd numbers are = 1, 3, 5,
Hence P (an odd number) = 3/6 = 1/2
Even numbers are = 2, 4, 6,
Hence P (an even number) = 3/6 = 1/2

13. Statistics- Textbooks Solutions (Exercise 13.1, 13.2 & 13.3)

Exercise 13.1

Q1. A survey was conducted by a group of students as a part of their environment awareness programme, in which they collected the following data regarding the number of plants in 20 houses in a locality. Find the mean number of plants per house.

Which method did you use for finding the mean, and why?
Sol. We can calculate the mean as:


⇒ 
Thus, the mean number of plants per house is 8.1.
Since values of xi and fi are small
∴ We have used the direct method.

Q2. Consider the following distribution of daily wages of 50 workers of a factory. 

Find the mean daily wages of the workers of the factory by using an appropriate method.
Sol. 
To find the class mark for each interval, the following relation is used.

Class size (h) of this data = 20
taking 550 as assured mean (a), di, uj and fiuj can be calculated as follows.

From the table, it can be observed that

Therefore, the mean daily wage of the workers of the factory is Rs 545.20

Q3. The following distribution shows the daily pocket allowance of children of a locality. The mean pocket allowance is Rs 18. Find the missing frequency f.

Sol. Let the assumed mean, a = 16
∵ Class interval h = 2

Now, we have the following table:

Since 
∴ 

Thus, the missing frequency is  84.

Q4. Thirty women were examined in a hospital by a doctor and the number of heartbeats per minute were recorded and summarised as follows. Find the mean heartbeats per minute for these women, choosing a suitable method.

Sol. Let the assumed mean a = 75.5

∴ Class interval h = 3

Now, we have the following table:


Thus, the mean heartbeat per minute is 75.9.

Q5. In a retail market, fruit vendors were selling mangoes kept in packing boxes. These boxes contained varying number of mangoes. The following was the distribution of mangoes according to the number of boxes.

Find the mean number of mangoes kept in a packing box. Which method of finding the mean did you choose?
Sol. Let the assumed mean a = 60
Here, Class interval h = 3

Now, we have the following table:


Thus, the average number of mangoes per box = 57.19.

Q6. The table below shows the daily expenditure on food of 25 households in a locality.

Find the mean daily expenditure on food by a suitable method.
Sol. Let the assumed mean, a = 225
And class interval h = 50

∴ We have the following table:


Thus, the mean daily expenditure of food is Rs 211.

Q7. To find out the concentration of SO2 in the air (in parts per million, i.e., ppm), the data was collected for 30 localities in a certain city and is presented below:

Find the mean concentration of SO2 in the air.
Sol. Let the assumed mean a = 0.14
Here, class interval h = 0.04

∴ We have the following table:


Thus, mean concentration of SO2 in air is 0.099 ppm.

Q8. A class teacher has the following absentee record of 40 students of a class for the whole term. Find the mean number of days a student was absent.

Sol. Using the direct method, we have the following table:


Thus, mean number of days a student remained absent = 12.48 (Approx.)

Q9. The following table gives the literacy rate (in percentage) of 35 cities. Find the mean literacy rate.

Sol. Let  assumed mean a =70
∴ Class interval h =10

Now, we have the following table:


Thus, the mean literacy rate is 69.43%.


Exercise 13.2

Q1: The following table shows the ages of the patients admitted in a hospital during a year:

Find the mode and the mean of the data given above. Compare and interpret the two measures of central tendency.
Sol: Mode:
Here, the highest frequency is 23.
The frequency 23 corresponds to the class interval 35 − 45.
∴ The modal class is 35 − 45
Now, Class size (h) = 10
Lower limit (l) = 35 Frequency of the modal class (f1) = 23
Frequency of the class preceding the modal class f0 = 21
Frequency of the class succeeding the modal class f2 = 14

Mean
Let assumed mean a = 40
∵  h = 10


∴ Required mean = 35.37 years.

Q2: The following data gives the information on the observed lifetimes (in hours) of 225 electrical components:

Determine the modal lifetimes of the components.
Sol: Here, the highest frequency = 61.
∵ The frequency 61 corresponds to class 60 − 80
∴ The modal class = 60 − 80
∴ We have: l = 60
h = 20
f1 = 61
f0 = 52
f2 = 38

Thus, the required modal life times of the components are 65.625 hours.

Q3: The following data gives the distribution of total monthly household expenditure of 200 families of a village. Find the modal monthly expenditure of the families. Also, find the mean monthly expenditure:

Sol: Mode: 
∵ The maximum number of families 40 have their total monthly expenditure is in interval 1500−2000.
∴ Modal class is 1500−2000.
l = 1500, h = 500
f1 = 40,   f0 = 24
f2 = 33

Thus, the required modal monthly expenditure of the families is Rs 1847.83.
Mean: Let assumed mean (a) = 3250
∵ h = 500
∴ We have the following table:


Thus, the mean monthly expenditure = Rs 2662.50.

Q4: The following distribution gives the state-wise teacher-student ratio in higher secondary schools of India. Find the mode and mean of this data. Interpret the two measures.

Sol: Mode: 
Since the class 30 − 35 has the greatest frequency and h = 5
l = 30
f1 = 10
f0 = 9
f2 = 3

Mean:
Let the assumed mean (a) = 37.5
Since, h = 5
∴ We have the following table:


Thus ,the required mean is 29.2

Q5: The given distribution shows the number of runs scored by some top batsmen of the world in one-day international cricket matches.

Find the mode of the data.
Sol: The class 4000−5000 has the highest frequency i.e., 18
∴ h = 1000
l = 4000
f1 = 18
f0 = 4
f2 = 9
Now,

Thus, the required mode is 4608.7.

Q6: A student noted the number of cars passing through a spot on a road for 100 periods each of 3 minutes and summarised it in the table given below. Find the mode of the data:

Sol: ∵ The class 40 − 50 has the maximum frequency i.e., 20
∴ f1 = 20,
f0 = 12,
f2 = 11 and h = 10
Also
l = 40

= 40 + 4.7 = 44.7
Thus, the required mode is 44.7


Exercise 13.3

Q1: The following frequency distribution gives the monthly consumption of electricity of 68 consumers of a locality. Find the median, mean and mode of the data and compare them.

Sol: 
Median 
Let us prepare a cumulative frequency table:

Now, we have  
∵ This observation lies in the class 125−145.
∴ 125−145 is the median class.
∴ l = 125, cf = 22
f = 20 and h = 20
Using the formula,

Mean Assumed mean (a) = 135
∵ Class interval (h) = 20

Now, we have the following table:


Mode 
∵ Class 125−145 has the highest frequency.
∴ This is the modal class.
We have:
h = 20
l = 125
f1 = 20
f0 = 13
f2 = 14

We observe that the three measures are approximately equal in this case.

Q2: If the median of the distribution given below is 28.5, find the values of x and y.

Sol: Here, we have n = 60 [∵ ∑fi = 60]
Now, cumulative frequency table is:

Since, median = 28.5
∴ Median class is 20 − 30
We have: l = 20
h = 10
f = 20
cf = 5 + x

⇒ 57 = 40 + 25 − x
⇒ x = 40 + 25 − 57 = 8
Also 45 + x + y = 60
⇒ 45 + 8 + y = 60
⇒ y = 60 − 45 − 8 = 7
Thus, x = 8
y = 7

Q3: A life insurance agent found the following data for distribution of ages of 100 policy holders. Calculate the median age, if policies are given only to persons having age 18 years on wards but less than 60 years.

Sol: The given table is cumulative frequency distribution. We write the frequency distribution as given below:


∵ The cumulative frequency just greater than n/2 i.e., just greater than 50 is 78.
∴ The median class is 78.
Now n/2 = 50, l = 35, cf = 45, f = 33 and h = 5


Thus, the median age = 35.76 years.

Q4: The lengths of 40 leaves of a plant are measured correct to the nearest millimetre, and the data obtained is represented in the following table:

Find the median length of the leaves.
[Hint: The data needs to be converted to continuous classes for finding the median, since the formula assumes continuous classes. The classes then change to 117.5−126.5, 126.5−135.5, …, 171.5−180.5]

Sol: After changing the given table as continuous classes we prepare the cumulative frequency table:

∑ fi =40 ⇒ n = 40
Now,

The cumulative frequency just above n/2 i.e., 20 is 29 and it corresponds to the class 144.5−153.5.
So, 144.5−153.5 is the median class.
We have:
n/2 = 20, l = 144.5, f = 12, cf = 17 and h = 9


Q5: The following table gives the distribution of the life time of 400 neon lamps:

Find the median life time of a lamp

Sol: To compute the median, let us write the cumulative frequency distribution as given below:

∑ fi = 400 ⇒ n = 400

Since, the cumulative frequency just greater than n/2 i.e., greater than 200 is 216.
∴ The median class is 3000−3500
∴ l = 3000, cf = 130, f = 86, h = 500 and n/2 = 200


Thus, median life = 3406.98 hours.

Q6: 100 surnames were randomly picked up from a local telephone directory and the frequency distribution of the number of letters in the English alphabets in the surnames was obtained as follows:

Determine the median number of letters in the surnames. Find the mean number of letters in the surnames? Also, find the modal size of the surnames.
Sol: Median


Since, the cumulative frequency just greater than n/2 i.e., greater than 50 is 76.
∴ The class 7 − 10 is the median class,
We have 
l = 7
cf = 36
f = 40 and  h = 3


Mode
Since the class 7−10 has the maximum frequency.
∴ The modal class is 7−10
So, we have
l = 7, h = 3
f1 = 40,
f0 = 30
f2 = 16


Thus, the required Median = 8.05,
Mean = 8.32 and Mode = 7.88.

Q7: The distribution below gives the weights of 30 students of a class. Find the median weight of the students.

Sol: We have

Weight (in kg)

Frequency

(f)

Cumulative

frequency

40-45

2

2 + 0= 2

45-50

3

2 + 3= 5

50-55

8

5 + 8 = 13

55-60

6

13 + 6 = 19

60-65

6

19 + 6 = 25

65-70

3

25 + 3 = 28

70-75

2

28 + 2 = 30

Total

If  = 30

n = 30


The cumulative frequency just more than n/2 i.e., more than 15 is 19, which corresponds to the class 55−60.
n/2 = 15.
l = 55
5f = 6
cf = 13 and h = 5

Thus, the required median weight = 56.67 kg.

12. Surface Areas and Volumes- Textbooks Solutions (12.1 & 12.2)

Exercise 12.1

Q1. 2 cubes each of volume 64 cm3 are joined end to end. Find the surface area of the resulting cuboid.
Sol.  Volume of each cube = 64 cm3
∴ Total volume of the two cubes = 2 × 64 cm3 = 128 cm3
Let the edge of each cube = x
∴ x3 = 64 = 43
⇒ x =4 cm
⇒ Now, the Length of the resulting cuboid ‘l’ = 2x cm = 8cm
⇒ Breadth of the resulting cuboid ‘b’ = x cm = 4 cm
⇒ Height of the resulting cuboid ‘h’ = x cm = 4 cm
∴ Surface area of the cuboid = 2 (lb + bh + hl)
= 2 [(8 × 4) + (4 × 4) + (4 × 8)]
= 2 [32 + 16 + 32] cm2 = 2 [80] cm2 = 160 cm2.

Q2. A vessel is in the form of a hollow hemisphere mounted by a hollow cylinder. The diameter of the hemisphere is 14 cm and the total height of the vessel is 13 cm. Find the inner surface area of the vessel.
Sol.  For the cylindrical part
 Radius (r) = 7 cm
 Height (h) = 6 cm
∴ Curved surface area
= 2πrh
= 2 × 227 × 7 × 6 cm2 = 264 cm2

For hemispherical part
  Radius (r) = 7 cm
∴ Surface area = 2πr2
= 2 × 227 × 7 × 7 cm2 = 308 cm2
∴ Total surface area = CSA of cylinder + CSA of hemisphere
= (264 + 308) cm2 = 572 cm2.

Q3. A toy is in the form of a cone of radius 3.5 cm mounted on a hemisphere of the same radius. The total height of the toy is 15.5 cm. Find the total surface area of the toy.
Sol. Here, r = 3.5 cm
∴ h = (15.5 − 3.5) cm = 12.0 cm
⇒ Surface area of the conical part = πrl
⇒ Surface area of the hemispherical part = 2πr2

∴ l2 = (12)2 + (3.5)2
l2 = 144 + 12.25 = 156.25
⇒ l = 12.5 cm

∴ Total surface area of the toy
= πr2 + 2πr2 = πr (l + 2r) cm2
= 227 × 3510 (12.5 + 2 × 3.5) cm2
= 11 × (12.5 + 7) cm2
= 11 × 19.5 cm2 = 214.5 cm2


Q4. A cubical block of side 7 cm is surmounted by a hemisphere. What is the greatest diameter the hemisphere can have? Find the surface area of the solid.
Sol. Side of the block = 7 cm
⇒ The greatest diameter of the hemisphere = 7 cm
Surface area of the solid:
= [Total S.A. of the cubical block] + [S.A. of the hemisphere] − [Base area of the hemisphere]
= (6 × l2) + 2πr2 − πr2

= [6(7)]2 + 2π(3.5)2 − π(3.5)2 cm2
= 6(7)2 + π(3.5)2
= 6 × 497 + 22 × 7 × 72 × 2 cm2
= 294 + 777 cm2 
= 332.5 cm2

 
Q5. A hemispherical depression is cut out from one face of a cubical wooden block such that the diameter l of the hemisphere is equal to the edge of the cube. Determine the surface area of the remaining solid.
Sol. Let ‘l’ be the side of the cube.

Now, the diameter of the hemisphere = Edge of the cube = l

So, the radius of the hemisphere = l/2

∴ The total surface area of solid = surface area of cube + CSA of the hemisphere – Area of the base of the hemisphere

The surface area of the remaining solid = 6 (edge)2+2πr2-πr2

= 6l2 + πr2

= 6l2+π(l/2)2

= 6l2+πl2/4

= l2/4 (24+π) sq. units

Q6. A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends (see Fig.). The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 5 mm. Find its surface area.

Sol. Radius of the hemispherical part

= 5/2 mm = 2.5 mm

∴ Surface area of one hemispherical part = 2πr2

⇒ Surface area of both hemispherical parts
= 2 (2πr2) = 4 × 227 × 2510 2 mm2
= 4 × 227 × 2510 × 2510 mm2
Area of cylindrical part = 2πrh = 2 × 227 × 2.5 × 9 mm2 = 2 × 227 × 2510 × 9 mm2
.∴ Total surface area
= 2 × 22 × 25 × 10 × 97 + 4 × 22 × 25 × 25 × 107 mm2
= 2 × 22 × 25 × 107 × 9 + 5070 mm2 = 44 × 2510 mm2 = 44 × 52 cm2 
= 220 mm2


Q7. A tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of the cylindrical part are 2.1 m and 4 m respectively, and the slant height of the top is 2.8 m, find the area of the canvas used for making the tent. Also, find the cost of the canvas of the tent at the rate of Rs 500 per m2. (Note that the base of the tent will not be covered with canvas.)
Sol. 

For cylindrical part:
 Radius (r) = 4/2 m = 2 m
 Height (h) = 2.1 m
∴ Curved surface area = 2πrh = 2 × 227 × 2 × 2110 m2
For conical part:
Slant height (l) = 2.8 m
Base radius (r) = 2 m
.∴ Curved surface area = πrl = 227 × 2 × 2810 m2
.∴ Total surface area
= [Surface area of the cylindrical part] + [Surface area of conical part]
= 2 × 22 × 2 × 217 × 10 + 22 × 2 × 287 × 10 m2
= 2 × 22 × 2 × 217 × 10 × 42 + 2810 m2
= 2 × 22 × 257 × 10 m2 = 22 × 7010 m2 = 44 m2

Cost of the canvas used 
Cost of 1 m2 of canvas = Rs 500
∴ Cost of 44 m2 of canvas = Rs 500 × 44 = Rs. 22000

Q8. From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm2.
Sol. 

For cylindrical part:
 Height = 2.4 cm
 Diameter = 1.4 cm
⇒ Radius (r) = 0.7 cm
For conical part:
 Base area (r) = 0.7 cm
 Height (h) = 2.4 cm
∴ Slant height (l) = √r2 + h2√(0.7)2 + (2.4)2 = √(0.49 + 5.76) = √6.25 = 2.5 cm
∴ Curved surface area of the conical part = πrl = 227 × 0.7 × 2.5 cm2 = 22 × 7 × 25100 cm2 = 550100 cm2
Base area of the conical part = πr2 = 227 × 7102 cm2 = 22 × 7100 cm2 = 154100 cm2
∴ Total surface area of the remaining solid:
= [Total SA of cylindrical part] + [Curved surface area of conical part] − [Base area of conical part]
= 1364 + 550100 + 154100 cm2
= 1914100 − 154100 = 1760100 cm2 = 17.6 cm2

Q9. A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in Fig. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm, and its base is of radius 3.5 cm, find the total surface area of the article.

Sol. Radius of the cylinder (r) = 3.5 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 10 cm
∴ Total surface area = 2πrh + 2πr2 = 2πr (h + r)

= 2 × 227 × 3510 (10 + 3510) cm2
= 22 × 13510 cm2 = 297 cm2

Curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr2
.∴ Curved surface area of both hemispheres
= 2 × 2πr2 = 4 × 227 × 3510 × 3510 cm2 = 154 cm2

Base area of a hemisphere = πr2
.∴ Base area of both hemispheres = 2πr2
= 2 × 227 × (3.5)2 = 2 × 22 × 35 × 357 × 100 cm2 = 77 cm2

∴ Total surface area of the remaining solid
= 297 cm2 + 154 cm2 − 77 cm2
= (451 − 77) cm2 = 374 cm2.

Exercise 12.2

[Unless stated otherwise, take π = 22/7]
Q1. A solid is in the shape of a cone standing on a hemisphere with both their radii being equal to 1 cm and the height of the cone is equal to its radius. Find the volume of the solid in terms of π.
Sol. Here, r = 1 cm and h = 1 cm.
∵ Volume of the conical part = 1/3 πr2h
Volume of the hemispherical part =2/3 πr3
∴ Volume of the solid shape
= 13 πr2h + 23 πr3 = 13 πr2 [h + 2r]
= 13 π (1)2 [1 + 2 (1)] cm3 = 13 π × 1 × [3] cm3
= 3π3 cm3 = π cm3

Q2. Rachel, an engineering student, was asked to make a model shaped like a cylinder with two cones attached at its two ends by using a thin aluminium sheet. The diameter of the model is 3 cm and its length is 12 cm. If each cone has a height of 2 cm, find the volume of air contained in the model that Rachel made. (Assume the outer and inner dimensions of the model to be nearly the same.)
Sol. Here, diameter = 3 cm
⇒ Radius (r)= 3/2 cm
Total height = 12 cm
Height of a cone (h1) = 2 cm
∴ Height of both cones = 2 × 2 = 4 cm
⇒ Height of the cylinder (h2) = (12 − 4) cm = 8 cm.
Now, volume of the cylindrical part = πr2h2
Volume of both conical parts = 2 [ 13 πr2h1]
.∴ Volume of the whole model
= πr2h2 + 23 πr2h1 = π2 [h2 + 23 h1]
= 227 × (3/2)3 × 8 + 23 cm3 = 227 × 94 × 24 + 43 cm3
= 227 × 34 × 28 cm3 = 223 cm3 = 66 cm3

Q3. A gulab jamun contains sugar syrup up to about 30% of its volume. Find approximately how much syrup would be found in 45 gulab jamuns, each shaped like a cylinder with two hemispherical ends with length 5 cm and diameter 2.8 cm (see figure).

Sol. Since a gulab jamun is like a cylinder with hemispherical ends.
Total height of the gulab jamun = 5 cm.
Diameter = 2.8 cm
⇒ Radius = 1.4 cm
∴ Length (height) of the cylindrical part = 5 cm − (1.4 + 1.4) cm
= 5 cm − 2.8 cm = 2.2 cm
Now, volume of the cylindrical part
= πr2h
Volume of a hemispherical end = 2/3 πr3
Volume of both the hemispherical ends 

∴ Volume of a gulab jamun

= πr2h + 43 πr3
= πr2 [h + 43]
= 227 × (1.4)2 [2.2 + 43 (1.4)] cm3
= 227 × 1.96 [2.2 + 43 (1.4)] cm3
= 22 × 2 × 147 × 10 [66 + 56] cm3
= 44 × 14100 cm3 = 122 cm3

⇒ Volume of 45 gulab jamuns = 45 × 44 × 14 × 14 × 122100 × 30 cm3 = 15 × 44 × 14 × 14 × 1221000 cm3
Since the quantity of syrup in gulab jamuns
= 30% of [volume] = 30% of 15 × 44 × 14 × 14 × 1221000 cm3 = 338.184 cm3
= 338 cm3 (approx.)


Q4. A pen stand made of wood is in the shape of a cuboid with four conical depressions to hold pens. The dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm by 10 cm by 3.5 cm. The radius of each of the depressions is 0.5 cm and the depth is 1.4 cm. Find the volume of wood in the entire stand (see Fig.).

Sol. Dimensions of the cuboid are 15 cm, 10 cm and 3.5 cm.
∴ Volume of the cuboid = 15 × 10 × 3510 cm3 = 525 cm3
Since each depression is conical with base radius (r) = 0.5 cm and depth (h) = 1.4 cm,
.∴ Volume of each depression (cone)
= 13 πr2h = 13 × 227 × 5102 × 1410 cm3
Since there are 4 depressions,
.∴ Total volume of 4 depressions
= 4 × 1 × 22 × 5 × 5 × 143 × 7 × 10 × 10 × 10 cm3
= 4 × 1130 cm3 = 4430 cm3
Now, volume of the wood in the entire stand
= [Volume of the wooden cuboid] − [Volume of 4 depressions]
= 525 − 4430 cm3
= 15750 − 4430 cm3 = 1570630 cm3
= 523.53 cm3

Q5. A vessel is in the form of an inverted cone. Its height is 8 cm and the radius of its top, which is open, is 5 cm. It is filled with water up to the brim. When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.5 cm are dropped into the vessel, one-fourth of the water flows out. Find the number of lead shots dropped in the vessel.

Sol. Height of the conical vessel (h) = 8 cm
Base radius (r) = 5 cm
∴ Volume of the cone = 1/3 πr2h
= 13 × 227 × (5)2 × 8 cm3
= 440021 cm3
Since Volume of the cone = [Volume of water in the cone]
.∴ [Volume of water in the cone] = 440021 cm3
Now, Total volume of lead shots = 14 of [Volume of water in the cone]
= 14 × 440021 cm3 = 110021 cm3
Since, radius of a lead shot (sphere) (r) = 0.5 cm,
.∴ Volume of 1 lead shot = 43 πr3 = 43 × 227 × 510 × 510 × 510 cm3
.∴ Number of lead shots = Total volume of lead shotsVolume of 1 lead shot
= 110021 ÷ 4 × 22 × 5 × 5 × 53 × 7 × 1000
= 100
Thus, the required number of lead shots = 100.

Q6. A solid iron pole consists of a cylinder of height 220 cm and base diameter 24 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height 60 cm and radius 8 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of iron has approximately 8 g mass. (Use π = 3.14) 

Sol. Height of the big cylinder (h) = 220 cm
Base radius (r) = 24/2 cm = = 12 cm
∴ Volume of the big cylinder = πr2h = π (12)2 × 220 cm3
Also, height of smaller cylinder (h1) = 60 cm
Base radius (r1) = 8 cm
∴ Volume of the smaller cylinder πr12h1 = π (8)2 × 60 cm3
∴ Volume of iron
= [Volume of big cylinder] + [Volume of the smaller cylinder]
= π × 220 × 122 + π × 60 × 82 cm3
= 3.14 [220 × 12 × 12 + 60 × 8 × 8] cm3 = 314/100 [20 × 144 + 60 × 64] cm3

= 314100 × [31680 + 3840] cm3 = 314100 × 35520 cm3
Mass of iron = 8 × 314 × 35520100 g = 89226240100 g = 892262410000 g
= 892.2624 kg 
= 892.26 kg.

Q7. A solid consisting of a right circular cone of height 120 cm and radius 60 cm standing on a hemisphere of radius 60 cm is placed upright in a right circular cylinder full of water such that it touches the bottom. Find the volume of water left in the cylinder, if the radius of the cylinder is 60 cm and its height is 180 cm.
Sol. Height of the conical part = 120 cm.
Base radius of the conical part = 60 cm.
∴ Volume of the conical part = 13 × 227 × 602 × 120 cm3
Radius of the hemispherical part = 60 cm.
.∴ Volume of the hemispherical part = 23 × 227 × 603 cm3
.∴ Volume of the solid
= [Volume of conical part] + [Volume of hemispherical part]
= 13 × 227 × 602 × 120 + 23 × 227 × 603 cm3
= 2 × 22 × 60 × 60 × 407 cm3 = 63360007 cm3
Volume of the cylinder = πr2h
= 227 × 602 × 180 cm3 = 22 × 60 × 60 × 1807 cm3
= 142560007 cm3


⇒ Volume of water in the cylinder = 142560007 cm3
.∴ Volume of the water left in the cylinder
= 142560007 − 63360007 cm3
= 79200007 cm3
= 1131428.57142 cm3
= 1131428.571421000000 m3 [∵ 1000000 cm3 = 1 m3]
= 1.13142857142 m3 = 1.131 m3 (approx.)


Q8. A spherical glass vessel has a cylindrical neck 8 cm long, 2 cm in diameter; the diameter of the spherical part is 8.5 cm. By measuring the amount of water it holds, a child finds its volume to be 345 cm3. Check whether she is correct, taking the above as the inside measurements, and π = 3.14.
Sol. Volume of the cylindrical part
= πr2h = 3.14 × 12 × 8 cm3 [∵ Radius = 2/3 = 1 cm, height (h) = 8 cm]
= 314100 × 8 cm3
Volume of the spherical part
= 43 πr13   | Here r1 = 8.52 cm
= 43 × 314100 × 8520 × 8520 × 8520 cm3
Total volume of the glass-vessel
= 314100 × 8 + 314100 × 43 × 85 × 85 × 858000
= 314100 [8 + 4 × 85 × 85 × 8524000] cm3
= 314100 [8 + 6141256000] cm3
= 314100 × 48000 + 6141256000 cm3
= 314100 × 6621256000 cm3
= 314100 × 529724 cm3
= 157100 × 529724 cm3 = 8316292400 cm3
≈ 346.51 cm3 (approx.)
⇒ Volume of water in the vessel = 346.51 cm3

Since the child finds the volume as 345 cm3
∴ The child’s answer is not correct
⇒ The correct answer is 346.51 cm3.

11.Areas Related to Circles- Textbooks Solutions (Exercise 11.1)

Page No 158

Use π = 22/7 (unless stated otherwise)
Q1: Find the area of a sector of a circle with radius 6 cm if angle of the sector is 60°.
Sol: Here,
r = 6 cm
θ = 60°

∴ Using, the Area of a sector =  
We have,
Area of the sector with r  = 6 cm and θ = 60°


Q2: Find the area of a quadrant of a circle whose circumference is 22 cm.
Sol: Let the radius of the circle = r
∴ 2πr = 22

⇒  
Here θ = 90°

∴ Area of the quadrant  of the circle,


Q3: The length of the minute hand of a clock is 14 cm. Find the area swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes.
Sol: [Length of minute hand] = [radius of the circle]
⇒ r = 14 cm
∵ Angle swept by the minute hand in 60 minutes = 360°
∴ Angle swept by the minute hand in 5 minutes =  
Now, area of the sector with r = 14 cm and θ = 30°

Thus, the required area swept by the minute hand by 5 minutes = 154/3 cm2.

Q4: A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding (i) minor segment (ii) major sector. (Use π = 3.14)
Sol: Given the radius of the circle = 10 cm
Angle subtend by chord at centre = 90° …(i)
(i) Area of the minor segment = (Area of the sector OAB) – (Area of ΔAOB formed with radius and chord)


= 3.14 x 25 – 50 = 78.5 – 50 = 28.5 cm2 
(ii) Area of major sector = Area of the circle – Area of the minor sector

=(1- 1/4) πr²

=3/4 πr²

=3/4 x π(10)2

= (3.14×102)-78.5

= 235.5 cm2

Q5: In a circle of radius 21 cm, an arc subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find:
 (i) the length of the arc
 (ii) area of the sector formed by the arc
 (iii) area of the segment formed by the corresponding 

Sol:
 
Here, radius = 21 cm and θ = 60°

(i) Circumference of the circle = 2πr


(ii) Area of the sector with sector angle 60°

(iii)  Area of the segment formed by the corresponding chord – area of the sector – area of the Δ formed between chord and radius of the circle


Q6:  A chord of a circle of radius 15 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the areas of the corresponding minor and major segments of the circle.  (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Sol:  


 Radius of the circle = 15 cm
Central angle subtends by chord = 600
Area of sector = 
= 117.75 cm2

Area of the triangle formed by radii and chord

Area of the minor segment = Area of the sector -Area of the triangle formed by radii and chord
= 117.75-97.31 =20.44 cm2 
Area of the circle = πr2 
= 3.14 x 15 x 15 = 706.5 cm2 
Area of the major segment = Area of the circle – Area of the minor segment
= 706.5 – 20.44 = 686.06 cm2

Q7: A chord of a circle of radius 12 cm subtends an angle of 120° at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding segment of the circle. (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)
Sol:  Here, θ = 120° and r = 12 cm





In Δ OAB, ∠O = 120°
⇒∠A + ∠B = 180° − 120 = 60°
∵ OB = OA = 12 cm ⇒∠A = ∠B = 30°
So,  
⇒  

In right Δ AMO, 122 − 62 = AM2
⇒ 144 − 36 = AM2
⇒ 108 = AM2
⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒ 

Now, from (2),

= 36 × 1.73 cm2 = 62.28 cm2     …(3)
From (1) and (3)
Area of the minor segment = [Area of minor segment] − [Area of Δ AOB]
= [150.72 cm2] − [62.28 cm2] = 88.44 cm2.

Q8:  A horse is tied to a peg at one corner of a square shaped grass field of side 15 m by means of a 5 m long rope (see figure). 
Find:
(i) the area of that part of the field in which the horse can graze.
(ii) the increase in the grazing area if the rope were 10 m long instead of 5 m. (Use π = 3.14)


Sol: Here, Length of the rope = 5 m
∴ Radius of the circular region grazed by the horse = 5 m

(i) Area of the circular portion grazed
     [∵ θ = 90° for a square field.]

(ii) When length of the rope is increased to 10 m,
∴ r = 10 m
⇒ Area of the circular region where θ = 90°.

∴ Increase in the grazing area = 78.5 − 19.625 m2 = 58.875 m2.

Page  No 159
Q9:  A brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter 35 mm. The wire is also used in making 5 diameters which divide the circle into 10 equal sectors as shown in Fig. 
Find: 
(i) the total length of the silver wire required. 
(ii) the area of each sector of the brooch.

Sol: Diameter of the circle = 35 mm

∴  
(i) Diameter (D) = 35 mm

Total number of diameters to be considered= 5

Now, the total length of 5 diameters that would be required = 35×5 = 175

Circumference of the circle = 2πr

Or, C = πD 

= 22/7×35 = 110
∴ Total length of the silver wire = 110 + 175 mm = 285 mm

(ii) Since the circle is divided into 10 equal sectors,
∴ Sector angle 
⇒ Area of each sector  


Q10: An umbrella has 8 ribs which are equally spaced (see figure). Assuming umbrella to be a flat circle of radius 45 cm, find the area between the two consecutive ribs of the umbrella.

Sol: Here, radius (r) = 45 cm
Since circle is divided in 8 equal parts,
∴ Sector angle corresponding to each part

⇒ Area of a sector (part)

∴ The required area between the two ribs  

Q 11: A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 25 cm sweeping through an angle of 115°. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades.
Sol:  Here, radius (r) = 25 cm
Sector angle (θ) = 115°
∴ Area cleaned by each sweep of the blades
   [∵ Each sweep will have to and fro movement]



Q12: To warn ships for underwater rocks, a lighthouse spreads a red coloured light over a sector of angle 80° to a distance of 16.5 km. 
Find the area of the sea over which the ships are warned. (Use π = 3.14)
Sol: Here, Radius (r) = 16.5 km
Sector angle (θ) = 80°
∴ Area of the sea surface over which the ships are warned


Q13: A round table cover has six equal designs as shown in Fig. If the radius of the cover is 28 cm, find the cost of making the designs at the rate of Rs 0.35 per cm2. (Use √3 = 1.7)

Sol:  Here,    r = 28 cm
Since, the circle is divided into six equal sectors.
∴ Sector angle  
∴ Area of the sector with θ = 60° and r = 28 cm


Now, area of 1 design
= Area of segment APB
= Area of sector − Area of ΔAOB  …(2)
In ΔAOB, ∠AOB = 60°, OA = OB = 28 cm
∴   ∠OAB = 60° and ∠OBA = 60°
⇒ ΔAOB is an equilateral triangle.
⇒ AB = AO = BO
⇒ AB = 28 cm

Draw OM ⊥ AB
∴ In right ΔAOM, we have

⇒ 
⇒ 

       …(3)

Now, from (1), (2) and (3), we have:
Area of segment APQ = 410.67 cm2 − 333.2 cm2 = 77.47 cm2
⇒ Area of 1 design = 77.47 cm2
∴ Area of the 6 equal designs = 6 × (77.47) cm2
= 464.82 cm2
Cost of making the design at the rate of Rs 0.35 per cm2,
= Rs 0.35 × 464.82
= Rs 162.68.

Q14: Tick the correct answer in the following: Area of a sector of angle p (in degrees) of a circle with radius R is




Sol: Here, radius (r)= R
Angle of sector (θ)= p°
∴ Area of the sector  
Thus, the option is correct.

10. Circles- Textbooks Solutions (Exercise 10.2)

In Q.1 to 3, choose the correct option and give justification.

Q1. From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 24 cm and the distance of Q from the centre is 25 cm. The radius of the circle is 
(A) 7 cm 
(B) 12 cm 
(C) 15 cm 
(D) 24.5 cm
Sol. From figure
 
OQ2 = OP2 + PQ2
(25)2 = OP+ (24)2
⇒ 625 – 576 = OP2
⇒ 49 = OP2
⇒ 
OP = 7cm
Radius of the circle = 7cm.
Hence, correct option is (a).

Q2. In figure, if TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°, then ∠PTQ is equal to 
(A) 60° 
(B) 70° 
(C) 80° 
(D) 90°


Sol. ∠OPT = 90°; ∠OQT = 90°; ∠POQ = 1100
TPOQ is a quadrilateral
⇒ ∠PTQ + ∠POQ = 180°
⇒ ∠PTQ + 1100 = 1800
⇒ ∠PTQ  = 1800 – 1000 = 700

Hence, correct option is (b).

Q3. Choose the correct option: If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80°, then ∠POA is equal to
(A) 50° 
(B) 60° 
(C) 70° 
(D) 80°
Sol. In ΔOAP and ΔOBP
OA = OB    [Radii]
PA = PB
[Length of tangents from an external point are equal]
OP = OP     [common]



Hence, Option (a) is correct

Q4. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
Sol. AB is the diameter of the circle, p and q are two tangents
OA ⊥ p and OB ⊥ q and ∠1 = ∠2 = 900
⇒ p q    [∠1 and ∠2 are alternate angles]

Q5. Prove that the perpendicular at the point of contact to the tangent to a circle passes through the centre.
Sol. XY tangent to the circle C(O, r) at B and AB ⊥ XY

Join OB
∠ABY = 90º   
∠OBY = 90º
[Radius through the point of contact is ⊥ to the tangent]
∴ ∠ABY + ∠OBY = 1800
⇒ ABO is collinear.
∴ AB passes through the centre of the circle.

Q6. The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the centre of the circle is 4 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Sol. OP = Radius of the circle
OA = 5 cm; AP = 4 cm

∠OPA = 90°   [Radius and tangent are ⊥ar]
OA2 = AP2 + OP2    [By Pythagoras theorem]
52 = 42 + OP2 
⇒ 25 = 16 + OP2
⇒ 25 – 16 = OP2
⇒ 9 = OP2
⇒ OP = √ 9 = 3
Radius = 3 cm

Q7. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.
Sol. The radius of larger circle = 5 cm and the radius of a smaller circle = 3 cm
OP ⊥ AB    [Radius of the circle is perpendicular to the tangent]
AB is a chord of the larger circle
∴ OP bisect  AB   AP = BP
In ΔOAP     OA2 =    AP2 + OP2
⇒    (5)2 =   AP2 + (3)2
⇒    AP2 =   25 – 9 = 16
⇒  
AB = 2AP =   2 x 4 = 8 cm

Q8. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle (see figure). Prove that: AB + CD = AD + BC

Sol. 
AP = AS    …(i)    [Lengths of tangents from an external point are equal]
BP = BQ    …(ii)
CR = CQ …(iii)
DR = DS   …(iv)
Adding equations (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
⇒ (AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) +(BQ + CQ
⇒ AB + CD = AD + BC

Q9. In the figure, XY and X′ Y′ are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB with point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X′Y′ at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°.


Sol. Given: Two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O. Tangent AB with point of contact C intersects XY at A and X’Y’ at B
To Prove: ∠AOB = 90°
Construction: Join OA, OB and OC
Proof: In ΔAOP and ΔAOC
AP = AC [Lengths of tangents]
OP = OC [Radii]
OA = OA
⇒ ΔAOP ≅ ΔAOC   [SSS congruence rule]
⇒ ∠PAO = ∠CAO    [C.P.C.T]
∠PAC = 2 ∠OAC    …(i)
Similarly ∠QBC = 2 ∠OBC    …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
∠PAC + ∠QBC = 2      [∠OAC + ∠OBC]
∠PAC + ∠QBC = 180°
[interior consecutive angle on same side of transversal]
2 = 180° [∠OAC + ∠OBC]
⇒ ∠OAC + ∠OBC = 90°
In ΔAOB, ∠AOB + [∠OAC + ∠OBC] = 180°
⇒ ∠AOB + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠AOB = 90°

Q10. Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line-segment joining the points of contact at the centre.
Sol. PA and PB are two tangents, and A and B are the points of contact of the tangents.
OA ⊥ AP and OB ⊥ BP
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
[Radius and tangent are perpendicular to each other]
In quadrilateral OAPB
(∠OAP + ∠OBP) + ∠APB + ∠AOB = 3600

⇒ 180° + ∠APB + ∠AOB = 360°
∠APB + ∠AOB = 360° – 180° = 180°

Q11. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. 
Sol. Parallelogram ABCD circumscribing a circle with centre O.

OP⊥ AB and OS ⊥ AD
In ΔOPB and ΔOSD, ∠OPB = ∠OSD [Each 90°]
OB = OD
[Diagonals of ║gm bisect each other]
OP = OS    [Radii]
⇒  ΔOPB ≅ ΔOSD [RHS congruence rule]
PB = SD     [C.P.C.T] ...(i)
AP = AS [Lengths of tangents]... (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii)
AP + PB = AS + DS
⇒   AB AD
Similarly  AB = BC = CD = DA
∴ ║gm ABCD is a rhombus

Q12. A triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that the segments BD and DC into which BC is divided by the point of contact D are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm respectively (see figure). Find the sides AB and AC.

Sol. BD = 8 cm and DC = 6 cm
BE = BD = 8 cm; CD= CF = 6 cm;

Let AE=AF = x cm
In ΔABC   a = 6 + 8 = 14 cm;
b = (x + 6) cm;
c = (x +8)


ar ΔABC = ar ΔOBC + ar ΔOCA + ar ΔOAB

From (i) and (ii)

⇒ 3x(x+14) = (x + 14)2 
⇒ 3x2 + 42x = x2 + 196 + 28x
⇒ 2x2 + 14x – 196 = 0
⇒ x2 + 7x – 98 = 0
⇒ x2 + 14x – 7x – 98 = 0
⇒ x(x + 14) – 7(x + 14) = 0
⇒ (x – 7)(x + 14) = 0 ⇒ x = 7
AB = x + 8 = 7 + 8 = 15 cm
AC = x + 6 = 7 + 6 = 13 cm

Q13. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.
Sol. 

AB touches P and BC, and CD and DA touch the circle at Q, R and S.
Construction: Join OA, OB, OC, OD and OP, OO, OR, OS
∴ ∠1 = ∠2    [OA bisects ∠POS]
Similarly


Similarly ∠AOB + ∠COD = 180°
Hence, opposite sides of quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of a circle.

10. Circles- Textbooks Solutions (Exercise 10.1 & 10.2)

Exercise 10.1

Q1. How many tangents can a circle have?
Sol. 
A circle can have an infinite number of tangents.

Q2. Fill in the blanks 
(i) A tangent to a circle intersects it in ………. point(s).
(ii) A line intersecting a circle in two points is called a ………..
(iii) A circle can have ………. parallel tangents at the most.
(iv) The common point of a tangent to a circle and the circle is called ………..

Sol. 
(i) Exactly one
(ii) secant
(iii) two
(iv) point of contact.

Q3. A tangent PQ at a point P of a circle of radius 5 cm meets a line through the centre O at a point Q so that OQ = 12 cm. Length of PQ is:
(a) 12 cm
(b) 13 cm
(c) 8.5 cm

(d) √119 cm

Ans. (d)
Sol. 

Radius of the circle = 5 cm
OQ = 12 cm
∠OPQ = 900
[The tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact]
PQ2 = OQ2 – OP[By Pythagoras theorem]
PQ= 12– 5= 144 – 25 = 119
PQ = √119 cm
Hence correct option is (d)


Q4. Draw a circle and two lines parallel to a given line such that one is a tangent and the other a secant to the circle.
Sol. A line ‘m’ is parallel to the given line ‘n’ and a line ‘l’ which is secant is parallel to the given line ‘n’.

Exercise 10.2

In Q.1 to 3, choose the correct option and give justification.

Q1. From a point Q, the length of the tangent to a circle is 24 cm and the distance of Q from the centre is 25 cm. The radius of the circle is 
(A) 7 cm 
(B) 12 cm 
(C) 15 cm 
(D) 24.5 cm
Sol. From figure
 
OQ2 = OP2 + PQ2
(25)2 = OP+ (24)2
⇒ 625 – 576 = OP2
⇒ 49 = OP2
⇒ 
OP = 7cm
Radius of the circle = 7cm.
Hence, correct option is (a).

Q2. In figure, if TP and TQ are the two tangents to a circle with centre O so that ∠POQ = 110°, then ∠PTQ is equal to 
(A) 60° 
(B) 70° 
(C) 80° 
(D) 90°


Sol. ∠OPT = 90°; ∠OQT = 90°; ∠POQ = 1100
TPOQ is a quadrilateral
⇒ ∠PTQ + ∠POQ = 180°
⇒ ∠PTQ + 1100 = 1800
⇒ ∠PTQ  = 1800 – 1000 = 700

Hence, correct option is (b).

Q3. Choose the correct option: If tangents PA and PB from a point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80°, then ∠POA is equal to
(A) 50° 
(B) 60° 
(C) 70° 
(D) 80°
Sol. In ΔOAP and ΔOBP
OA = OB    [Radii]
PA = PB
[Length of tangents from an external point are equal]
OP = OP     [common]



Hence, Option (a) is correct

Q4. Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.
Sol. AB is the diameter of the circle, p and q are two tangents
OA ⊥ p and OB ⊥ q and ∠1 = ∠2 = 900
⇒ p q    [∠1 and ∠2 are alternate angles]

Q5. Prove that the perpendicular at the point of contact to the tangent to a circle passes through the centre.
Sol. XY tangent to the circle C(O, r) at B and AB ⊥ XY

Join OB
∠ABY = 90º   
∠OBY = 90º
[Radius through the point of contact is ⊥ to the tangent]
∴ ∠ABY + ∠OBY = 1800
⇒ ABO is collinear.
∴ AB passes through the centre of the circle.

Q6. The length of a tangent from a point A at distance 5 cm from the centre of the circle is 4 cm. Find the radius of the circle.
Sol. OP = Radius of the circle
OA = 5 cm; AP = 4 cm

∠OPA = 90°   [Radius and tangent are ⊥ar]
OA2 = AP2 + OP2    [By Pythagoras theorem]
52 = 42 + OP2 
⇒ 25 = 16 + OP2
⇒ 25 – 16 = OP2
⇒ 9 = OP2
⇒ OP = √ 9 = 3
Radius = 3 cm

Q7. Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.
Sol. The radius of larger circle = 5 cm and the radius of a smaller circle = 3 cm
OP ⊥ AB    [Radius of the circle is perpendicular to the tangent]
AB is a chord of the larger circle
∴ OP bisect  AB   AP = BP
In ΔOAP     OA2 =    AP2 + OP2
⇒    (5)2 =   AP2 + (3)2
⇒    AP2 =   25 – 9 = 16
⇒  
AB = 2AP =   2 x 4 = 8 cm

Q8. A quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle (see figure). Prove that: AB + CD = AD + BC

Sol. 
AP = AS    …(i)    [Lengths of tangents from an external point are equal]
BP = BQ    …(ii)
CR = CQ …(iii)
DR = DS   …(iv)
Adding equations (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we get
AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
⇒ (AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) +(BQ + CQ
⇒ AB + CD = AD + BC

Q9. In the figure, XY and X′ Y′ are two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O and another tangent AB with point of contact C intersecting XY at A and X′Y′ at B. Prove that ∠AOB = 90°.


Sol. Given: Two parallel tangents to a circle with centre O. Tangent AB with point of contact C intersects XY at A and X’Y’ at B
To Prove: ∠AOB = 90°
Construction: Join OA, OB and OC
Proof: In ΔAOP and ΔAOC
AP = AC [Lengths of tangents]
OP = OC [Radii]
OA = OA
⇒ ΔAOP ≅ ΔAOC   [SSS congruence rule]
⇒ ∠PAO = ∠CAO    [C.P.C.T]
∠PAC = 2 ∠OAC    …(i)
Similarly ∠QBC = 2 ∠OBC    …(ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
∠PAC + ∠QBC = 2      [∠OAC + ∠OBC]
∠PAC + ∠QBC = 180°
[interior consecutive angle on same side of transversal]
2 = 180° [∠OAC + ∠OBC]
⇒ ∠OAC + ∠OBC = 90°
In ΔAOB, ∠AOB + [∠OAC + ∠OBC] = 180°
⇒ ∠AOB + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠AOB = 90°

Q10. Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line-segment joining the points of contact at the centre.
Sol. PA and PB are two tangents, and A and B are the points of contact of the tangents.
OA ⊥ AP and OB ⊥ BP
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°
[Radius and tangent are perpendicular to each other]
In quadrilateral OAPB
(∠OAP + ∠OBP) + ∠APB + ∠AOB = 3600

⇒ 180° + ∠APB + ∠AOB = 360°
∠APB + ∠AOB = 360° – 180° = 180°

Q11. Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. 
Sol. Parallelogram ABCD circumscribing a circle with centre O.

OP⊥ AB and OS ⊥ AD
In ΔOPB and ΔOSD, ∠OPB = ∠OSD [Each 90°]
OB = OD
[Diagonals of ║gm bisect each other]
OP = OS    [Radii]
⇒  ΔOPB ≅ ΔOSD [RHS congruence rule]
PB = SD     [C.P.C.T] ...(i)
AP = AS [Lengths of tangents]... (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii)
AP + PB = AS + DS
⇒   AB AD
Similarly  AB = BC = CD = DA
∴ ║gm ABCD is a rhombus

Q12. A triangle ABC is drawn to circumscribe a circle of radius 4 cm such that the segments BD and DC into which BC is divided by the point of contact D are of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm respectively (see figure). Find the sides AB and AC.

Sol. BD = 8 cm and DC = 6 cm
BE = BD = 8 cm; CD= CF = 6 cm;

Let AE=AF = x cm
In ΔABC   a = 6 + 8 = 14 cm;
b = (x + 6) cm;
c = (x +8)


ar ΔABC = ar ΔOBC + ar ΔOCA + ar ΔOAB

From (i) and (ii)

⇒ 3x(x+14) = (x + 14)2 
⇒ 3x2 + 42x = x2 + 196 + 28x
⇒ 2x2 + 14x – 196 = 0
⇒ x2 + 7x – 98 = 0
⇒ x2 + 14x – 7x – 98 = 0
⇒ x(x + 14) – 7(x + 14) = 0
⇒ (x – 7)(x + 14) = 0 ⇒ x = 7
AB = x + 8 = 7 + 8 = 15 cm
AC = x + 6 = 7 + 6 = 13 cm

Q13. Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle.
Sol. 

AB touches P and BC, and CD and DA touch the circle at Q, R and S.
Construction: Join OA, OB, OC, OD and OP, OO, OR, OS
∴ ∠1 = ∠2    [OA bisects ∠POS]
Similarly


Similarly ∠AOB + ∠COD = 180°
Hence, opposite sides of quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of a circle.