I. Thinking about the PoemQ1: Where does the traveller find himself? What problems does he face? Ans: The traveller finds himself in yellow woods where the road diverges into two. The problem that he faces is that he cannot decide which road to take to continue his journey since it is not possible for him to travel both roads at the same time.
Q2: Discuss what these phrases mean to you.
(i) A yellow wood Ans: Yellow wood represents autumn, which is linked to old age. The poet may be symbolically referring to the later stages of life.
(ii) It was grassy and wanted wear Ans: It conveys that the road was full of grass, and nobody had used that road. It was a smooth road that had not worn out.
(iii) The passing there Ans: The use of the path by passersby.
(iv) Leaves no step had trodden black Ans: The leaves had not changed color and turned black because not many people walked on them. This could represent a path in life that someone rarely takes because they are afraid of the unknown.
(v) How way leads on to way Ans: This phrase means how certain decisions one makes in life could pave the way for many other decisions.
Q3: Is there any difference between the two roads as the poet describes them (a) in stanzas two and three? (b) in the last two lines of the poem? Ans: (a) In stanza two, the poet describes how the only difference between the two roads was that the one he chose seemed to have a better claim to be taken because it was grassy and appeared less traveled. Other than that, both roads were worn down by people walking on them. In stanza three, the poet mentions that both roads were equally covered with leaves, and no one had walked on them. (b) In the last two lines of the poem, the poet says that there is a difference between the two roads because he took the road that was less travelled by other people, and that made all the difference to his journey.
Q4: What do you think the last two lines of the poem mean? (Looking back, does the poet regret his choice or accept it? Ans: The last two lines of the poem mean the acceptance of reality. The poet made a choice and accepted the challenging path. He took an unexplored path in his life. He wanted to do something different in his life, so he chose the less travelled road. No, he does not regret his choice.
II. Thinking about the Poem
Q1: Have you ever had to make a difficult choice (or do you think you will have difficult choices to make)? How will you make the choice (for what reasons)? Ans: No, I have not faced a difficult choice yet. I might still be too young to make independent decisions. However, I believe that someday I will have to make tough choices. After finishing my general education, I will need to decide on a career, whether to become an engineer, a doctor, or something else. I will have many options, and choosing among them will be challenging. I will base my decision on my skills and strengths at that time. I want to pick a path that brings me satisfaction and peace of mind. I won’t chase money like everyone else. Instead, like the poet in the poem, I will choose a challenging and unexplored path in my life.
Q2: After you have made a choice, do you always think about what might have been, or do you accept the reality? Ans: Making a decision can greatly affect our future. Once I choose, I accept the consequences as part of my reality. Constantly rethinking or worrying about a decision isn’t a healthy way to live. Those thoughts stop us from appreciating the results of our choices. Therefore, I strongly believe in sticking to my decisions.
I. Answer these questions in a few words or a couple of sentences each.
Q1: How old are Margie and Tommy? Ans: Margie is eleven and Tommy is thirteen-year-old.
Q2: What did Margie write in her diary? Ans: Margie wrote, “Today Tommy found a real book!”.
Q3: Had Margie ever seen a book before? Ans: No, Margie had never seen a book before.
Q4: What things about the book did she find strange? Ans: Margie found several things about the book strange:
The pages were yellow and wrinkled.
The words on each page stayed the same every time she read them.
She thought it was odd that someone would write a book about schools.
Q5: What do you think a telebook is? Ans: A telebook is displayed on the television screen and the text of a telebook is similar to a book.
Q6: Where was Margie’s school? Did she have any classmates? Ans: Margie’s school was in her home itself, right next to her bedroom. No, she did not have any classmates.
Q7: What subjects did Margie and Tommy learn? Ans: Tommy and Margie studied history, geography, and arithmetic.
II. Answer the following with reference to the story.Q1: “I wouldn’t throw it away.” (i) Who says these words? (ii) What does ‘it’ refer to? (iii) What is it being compared with by the speaker? Ans: (i) Tommy said these words. (ii) It refers to that real book that Tommy found. (iii) Tommy is comparing the television screen to the real books in earlier times in which words were printed on paper. He thought that after reading such books, one would have to throw them away. However, he would never have to throw away his telebooks.
Q2: “Sure they had a teacher, but it wasn’t a regular teacher. It was a man.” (i) Who does ‘they’ refer to? (ii) What does ‘regular’ mean here? (iii) What is it contrasted with? Ans: (i) They refer to the students who studied in the old kind of schools centuries before the time the story is set in. (ii) Here, ‘regular’ refers to the mechanical teachersthat Tommy and Margie had. (iii) The mechanical teacher is contrasted with the teacher of the earlier times, who was a human being.
III. Answer each of these questions in a short paragraph (about 30 words).
Q1: What kind of teachers did Margie and Tommy have? Ans:
Margie and Tommy had mechanical teachers. They werelarge and black and ugly and had large black screens on which all the lessons were shown and questions were asked.
The children were taught through computer and television screens.
These mechanical teachers had a slot in which the students had to put their homework and test papers.
They had to write their answers in a punch code and the mechanical teacher calculated the marks immediately.
Q2: Why did Margie’s mother send for the County Inspector? Ans:
Margie’s mother sent for the County Inspector because the mechanical teacher of Margie was not functioning properly.
Margie had been given many tests in geography by the mechanical teacher, but there was no improvement in her performance.
It only kept getting worse. It is for this reason that Margie’s mother sent for the County Inspectorto find out why this was happening.
Q3: What did he do? Ans: The County Inspector smiled at Margie , gave Margie an apple and started working on the mechanical teacher. He took it apart and then checked it.
Margie had hoped that the Inspector would not know how to put the mechanical teacher together again, but he managed to reassemble it.
He slowed down the geography sector of the teacher because it was geared a little too quick for an average ten-year-old.
Q4: Why was Margie doing badly in geography? What did the County Inspector do to help her? Ans:
Margie was doing badly in geography because the questions that were displayed on the screen of the mechanical teacher were too quick for her age.
The County Inspector rightly told her that she could not be blamed for her poor performance.
The County Inspectorslowed down the geography sector of the mechanical teacher to an average ten-year level.
He also told Mrs. Jones that Margie’s overall progress pattern was satisfactory.
Q5: What had once happened to Tommy’s teacher? Ans: Once, The history sector of Tommy’s teacher had blanked out completely.
Q6: Did Margie have regular days and hours for school? If so, why? Ans: Yes, Margie had regular days and hours for school.
This was because her mother believed that learning at regular hours helped little girls learn better.
Her mechanical teacher was also active at the same time every day, except on Saturday and Sunday.
Q7: How does Tommy describe the old kind of school? Ans: Tommy described the old kind of school as a special building where all children learned together. Key features included:
Hundreds of students studying and playing together.
Children shouting and laughing in an open yard.
A sense of community among the students.
This environment fostered interaction and camaraderie, making school a lively and enjoyable place.
Q8: How does he describe the old kind of teachers? Ans: Tommy described the old kind of teachers as men who taught students in a special building. They:
Instructed children in groups.
Assigned homework.
Asked questions to engage students.
This traditional approach contrasts with the modern teaching methods used by Margie and Tommy.
IV. Answer each of these questions in two or three paragraphs (100 –150 words).
Q1: What are the main features of the mechanical teachers and the schoolrooms that Margie and Tommy have in the story? Ans: The main features of the mechanical teachers and schoolrooms that Margie and Tommy have are:
They have mechanical teachers at home, eliminating the need for traditional schools.
The mechanical teacher is located in a room of their house, allowing for individual learning.
There are no classrooms where students gather; they study using telebooks instead of printed books.
Homework is submitted through a slot in the mechanical teacher, which grades their work instantly.
Students write answers in punch code, showcasing a technologically advanced education system.
Margie learned to use the mechanical teacher when she was just six years old.
Q2: Why did Margie hate school? Why did she think the old kind of school must have been fun? Ans: Margie hated school because it was not enjoyable. She was taught by a mechanical teacher at a set time each day. Recently, her performance in geography tests had declined, which displeased her mother. In response, her mother called the County Inspector, hoping he would replace the mechanical teacher. Margie felt let down when the inspector simply repaired the teacher instead. Margie’s least favourite part was submitting her homework and tests through a slot in the mechanical teacher. She disliked writing her answers in a punch code. Margie believed the old kind of school must have been fun because she imagined:
Children from the neighbourhood gathering together, laughing and playing in the schoolyard.
Students sitting together in class and going home together.
Learning the same subjects, allowing them to help each other with homework.
Having real teachers who were people.
These aspects made her think that the old school experience would have been enjoyable.
Q3: Do you agree with Margie that schools today are more fun than the school in the story? Give reasons for your answer. Ans: Yes, I agree that schools today are more fun than the school in the story. Here are some reasons:
In the story, there is little interaction among students. Studying seems boring and solitary.
Doing homework alone and writing in a punch code can be exhausting.
Today, students learn better through interaction with each other, which creates a healthier learning environment.
Listening to teachers explain lessons is often more engaging than reading from a mechanical computer.
The excitement of waiting for exam results is heightened when shared with classmates, unlike immediate calculations.
The friendships formed at school are often the most meaningful and last a lifetime.
Schools today teach important values such as obedience, respect, and kindness through various activities.
Therefore, schools today are more fun than the school in the story because they are more interactive and foster a positive environment for learning.
Thinking about Language
I. AdverbsRead this sentence taken from the story: They had once taken Tommy’s teacher away for nearly a month because the history sector had blanked out completely. The word complete is an adjective. When you add –ly to it, it becomes an adverb.
Q1: Find the sentences in the lesson which have the adverbs given in the box below. Ans:
They turned the pages, which were yellow and crinkly, and it was awfully funny to read words that stood still instead of moving the way they were supposed to − on a screen, you know.
The mechanical teacher had been giving her test after test in geography and she had been doing worse and worse until her mother had shaken her head sorrowfully and sent for the County Inspector.
They had once taken Tommy’s teacher away for nearly a month because the history sector had blanked out completely.
He added loftily, pronouncing the word carefully, “Centuries ago.”
“But my mother says a teacher has to be adjusted to fit the mind of each boy and girl it teaches and that each kid has to be taught differently.”
“I didn’t say I didn’t like it,” Margie said quickly.
“Maybe,” he said nonchalantly.
Q2: Now use these adverbs to fill in the blanks in the sentences below. (i) The report must be read _____________ so that performance can be improved. (ii) At the interview, Sameer answered our questions _____________ , shrugging his shoulders. (iii) We all behave ________________ when we are tired or hungry. (iv) The teacher shook her head ____________ when Ravi lied to her. (v) I __________ forgot about it. (vi) When I complimented Revathi on her success, she just smiled ___________ and turned away. (vii) The President of the Company is _____________ busy and will not be able to meet you. (viii) I finished my work __________________ so that I could go out to play. Ans: (i)The report must be read carefully so that performance can be improved. (ii) At the interview, Sameer answered our questions loftily, shrugging his shoulders. (iii) We all behave differently when we are tired or hungry. (iv) The teacher shook her head sorrowfully when Ravi lied to her. (v) completely forgot about it. (vi) When I complimented Revathi on her success, she just smiled nonchalantly and turned away. (vii) The President of the Company is awfully busy and will not be able to meet you. (viii) I finished my work quickly so that I could go out to play.
Q3: Make adverbs from these adjectives. (i) angry ___________ (ii) happy __________ (iii) merry___________ (iv) sleepy __________ (v) easy ____________ (vi) noisy ___________ (vii) tidy ___________ (viii) gloomy ________ Ans: (i) Angrily (ii) Happily (iii) Merrily (iv) Sleepily (v) Easily (vi) Noisily (vii) Tidily
(viii) Gloomily
II. If Not and Unless
Imagine that Margie’s mother told her, “You’ll feel awful if you don’t finish your history lesson.”
She could also say: “You’ll feel awful unless you finish your history lesson.”
Unless means if not. Sentences with unless or if not are negative conditional sentences. Notice that these sentences have two parts. The part that begins with if not or unless tells us the condition. This part has a verb in the present tense (look at the verbs don’t finish, finish in the sentences above). The other part of the sentence tells us about a possible result. It tells us what will happen (if something else doesn’t happen). The verb in this part of the sentence is in the future tense (you’ll feel/you will feel). Notice these two tenses again in the following examples
Q1: Complete the following conditional sentences. Use the correct form of the verb. (i) If I don’t go to Anu’s party tonight, __________ (ii) If you don’t telephone the hotel to order food, __________ (iii) Unless you promise to write back, I __________ (iv) If she doesn’t play any games, ___________ (v) Unless that little bird flies away quickly, the cat ___________ Ans: (i) If I don’t go to Anu’s party tonight, she will be angry. (ii) If you don’t telephone the hotel to order food, you will miss your evening meal. (iii) Unless you promise to write back, I will not write to you. (iv) If she doesn’t play any games, she will become dull and lazy. (v) Unless that little bird flies away quickly, the cat will pounce on it.
Writing A new revised volume of Issac Asimov’s short stories has just been released. Order one set. Write a letter to the publisher, Mindfame Private Limited, 1632 Asaf Ali Road, New Delhi, requesting that a set be sent to you by Value Payable Post (VPP), and giving your address. Your letter will have the following parts.
Addresses of the sender and receiver
The salutation
The body of the letter
The closing phrases and signature
Your letter might look like this: Your address Date (DD/MM/YY) The addressee’s address Dear Sir/Madam, Yours sincerely Your signature
Ans: A56, South City II, Sohna Road, Gurugram, Haryana. 29/08/21 Mind fame Private Limited, 1632 Asaf Ali Road, New Delhi. Dear Sir With due regards, Anupama Sharma would like to request you to send me one set of a newly revised volume of Issac Asimov’s short stories. I would like you to send me the post by Value Payable Post (VPP). The delivery address will be the same as mentioned in the letter. Thank you for taking into consideration my request and I look forward to your reply. Yours sincerely, Anupama Sharma
Q1. How is food security ensured in India? Ans: Food security is ensured in a country when the three dimensions of food security are taken care of. The three dimensions are: Availability of food − Presence of enough food for all the persons Accessibility of food − Absence of barrier on access to food Affordabilityof food − Capability of all persons to buy food of acceptable quality Food security has been ensured in India because, India is now self-sufficient in food grains due to diverse crop production. Government ensures food security through buffer stocks and the Public Distribution System (PDS). Schemes like mid-day meals and food-for-work support food access for the poor. Cooperatives and NGOs, like Mother Dairy and Amul, also help ensure food security.
Q2. Which are the people more prone to food insecurity? Ans: A large section of people in India faces food and nutrition insecurity, with the worst affected groups including:
People in low-income occupations like traditional crafts, small-scale services, and subsistence farming, often without land ownership.
Individuals in informal sectors with unstable jobs, low wages, and seasonal work patterns.
Socially disadvantaged groups such as Scheduled Castes (SCs), Scheduled Tribes (STs), and Other Backward Classes (OBCs) facing economic challenges due to historical inequalities.
Areas suffering from poverty, lack of infrastructure, isolation, and vulnerability to natural calamities.
Particularly vulnerable due to physiological needs and dependence, including pregnant and nursing mothers, and children under five years old.
Q3. Which states are more food insecure in India? Ans: The economically-backwards states with a high incidence of poverty are more food insecure in India. The states of Uttar Pradesh (eastern and south-eastern parts), Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, West Bengal, Chattisgarh, parts of Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra account for the largest number of food-insecure people in the country.
Q4. Do you believe that Green Revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grains? How?
Ans: The Green revolution has made India self-sufficient in food grain in following ways:
In the late 1960s, the Green Revolution introduced high-yielding varieties (HYVs) of seeds to Indian farmers, along with chemical fertilizers and pesticides, boosting productivity, especially in wheat and rice.
The increased productivity allowed India to become self-sufficient in food grains, producing enough to meet its own needs without heavy reliance on imports.
India has avoided famines even in tough weather conditions, thanks to diverse crop production and food security measures.
The steady availability of food grains enabled the government to establish a robust food security framework, ensuring access to food during challenging times.
The Green Revolution’s innovations in wheat and rice production have made India self-reliant in food grains, preventing famines and supporting overall food security.Green Revolution in India
Q5. “A section of people in India are still without food”. Explain. Ans: India has achieved self-sufficiency in food grains due to the Green Revolution, many people still face food insecurity, mainly due to poverty.
Landless laborers, casual urban workers, Scheduled Castes (SCs), and Scheduled Tribes (STs) below the poverty line struggle to access regular meals.
The PDS faces problems, such as ration shop owners diverting grains to the open market instead of distributing them to the needy.
Low-quality grains in ration shops often remain unsold, making food access even harder for vulnerable groups.
Corruption in the PDS and widespread poverty are the main reasons why some people still go hungry despite the country’s self-sufficiency in food production.
Q6. What happens to the supply of food when there is a disaster or a calamity? Ans: When there is a disaster or a calamity, the production of food grains decreases in the affected area. This in turn creates a shortage of food in the area. Due to the food shortage, the prices go up. The raised prices of food materials affect the capacity of many people to buy the same. When the calamity occurs in a very widespread area or is stretched over a long period of time, it may cause a situation of starvation. Massive starvation can take the form of famine.
Q7. Differentiate between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger? Ans: Difference between seasonal hunger and chronic hunger are as follows:
Q8. What has our government done to provide food security to the poor? Discuss any two schemes launched by the government? Ans: The Government of India has implemented various schemes to ensure food security for the poor. Two notable schemes are:
Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY): Launched in December 2000, AAY targets the “poorest of the poor” among Below Poverty Line (BPL) families. Initially, it covered one crore (10 million) families, providing 25 kg of food grains per month at highly subsidized rates (₹2/kg for wheat and ₹3/kg for rice). In April 2002, the allocation increased to 35 kg per month. The scheme expanded in 2003 and 2004, covering an additional 50 lakh (5 million) families each time, ultimately reaching 2 crore (20 million) families.
Annapurna Scheme (APS): Launched in 2000, APS targets indigent senior citizens aged 65 and above who are eligible for but not receiving old age pensions. It provides 10 kg of food grains per month free of cost, ensuring basic nutrition for senior citizens without regular income or family support.
Q9. Why is a buffer stock created by the government? Ans: A buffer stock of food grains is created by the government so as to distribute the procured food grains in the food deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. A buffer stock helps resolve the problem of shortage of food during adverse weather conditions or during periods of calamity.
Q10. Write notes on: (a) Minimum support price (b) Buffer stock (c) Issue price (d) Fair-price shops Ans: (a) Minimum support price − The Minimum Support Price (MSP) is the price at which the government buys food grains from farmers to build a buffer stock and encourage production. However, rising MSPs for rice and wheat have led farmers to shift land from coarse grains to these more profitable crops, resulting in higher procurement costs. (b)Buffer stock − A buffer stock consists of food grains, typically wheat and rice, procured by the government through the Food Corporation of India and stored in granaries. This stock is created to distribute food in deficit areas and to poorer sections of society at prices lower than the market rate. It helps address food shortages during adverse weather or calamities. (c) Issue Price − The food grains procured and stored by the government are distributed in food-deficit areas and among the poorer strata of society at a price lower than the market price. This price is known as the issue price. (d) Fair-price shops − The Food Corporation of India distributes food through government-regulated ration shops, known as fair-price shops, where items are sold at lower prices than the market rate to benefit poorer families. These shops stock food grains, sugar, and kerosene oil. Families with a ration card can purchase a specified amount of these items each month.
Q11. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops? Ans: The problems of the functioning of ration shops are as follows:
Food grains provided by ration shops are insufficient to meet the needs of the poor, forcing them to supplement from market sources.
Many ration shop dealers engage in malpractices such as diverting grains to open markets for higher profits and selling poor quality grains at the shops.
On average, individuals receive only 1 kg of PDS grains per month nationwide, which is significantly below adequate consumption levels
Homeless individuals are often excluded from receiving ration cards, as they require a residential address for issuance.Ration Shop
Q12. Write a note on the role of cooperatives in providing food and related items. Ans: Role of Cooperatives in Food Security are as follows:
Cooperatives are crucial alongside the government in ensuring food security in India, particularly in the southern and western regions.
Around 94% of fair price shops in Tamil Nadu are operated by cooperatives, providing affordable goods to the poor.
Mother Dairy in Delhi sells milk and vegetables at government-set rates, contributing to accessible food supply in the capital.
Amul, known for its milk and milk products, spearheaded the White Revolution in India, enhancing milk availability nationwide.
The Academy of Development Science (ADS) in Maharashtra establishes Grain Banks and conducts training programs for NGOs on food security, influencing government policies.
Q1. Describe how the poverty line is estimated in India? Ans: In India, the poverty line is estimated based on the income or consumption needed to meet basic needs like food, clothing, and shelter. Food requirements are calculated in calories, with rural areas needing 2400 calories per person per day and urban areas 2100 calories. The cost to meet these needs is determined and adjusted for inflation.
For 2011-12, the poverty line was set at:
Rs 816 per person per month in rural areas
Rs 1000 per person per month in urban areas
The poverty line is reviewed every five years through surveys by the National Sample Survey Organisation (NSSO).
Q2. Do you think that present methodology of poverty estimation is appropriate? Ans: The current methodology for estimating poverty primarily focuses on minimum subsistence levels rather than a reasonable standard of living. A person is deemed poor if their income or consumption falls below a certain threshold necessary to meet basic needs.
While it is crucial to address minimum income levels, the government should also consider broader aspects of human poverty, including:
Access to food
Illiteracy
Lack of job opportunities
Inadequate healthcare and sanitation
Discrimination based on caste and gender
Q3. Describe poverty trends in India since 1973? Ans: Overall decline in poverty: Since 1973, India has experienced a significant reduction in poverty levels:
From about 55% in 1973 to 36% in 1993. Further reduced to around 26% in 2000.
All states have seen a decline in poverty since the early 1970s, but the rate of reduction varies. Currently, twenty states and union territories have poverty ratios below the national average of 26%.
Odisha and Bihar remain the poorest states, with poverty ratios of 47% and 43% respectively.
States like Kerala, Gujarat, Punjab, and Jammu and Kashmir have shown notable reductions in poverty rates.
Q4. Discuss the major reasons for poverty in India?
Ans: Major reasons for poverty in India:
Colonial Rule: India went through a long phase of low economic development under the British colonial administration. The policies of the colonial government ruined traditional handicrafts and discouraged the development of industries like textiles.
Low economic growth and high population growth: The Indian administration’s failure on the two fronts − promotion of economic growth and population control perpetuated the cycle of poverty.
Rural Poverty: The effects of agricultural and rural development were limited to only certain parts of the country. The presence of huge income inequalities is a major reason for the high poverty rates in rural areas.
Urban Poverty: The jobs created by the industrial sector haven’t been enough for everyone looking for work. Because they can’t find good jobs in cities, many people end up working as rickshaw pullers, vendors, construction workers, or domestic servants.
Q5. Identify the social and economic groups which are most vulnerable to poverty in India. Ans: The social groups most vulnerable to poverty in India include:
Scheduled Castes households
Scheduled Tribes households
The economic groups at risk are:
Rural agricultural labour households
Urban casual labour households
Q6. Give an account of interstate disparities of poverty in India. Ans: The proportion of poor people varies significantly across Indian states. Key points include:
The average Head Count Ratio (HCR) in India was 21.9% in 2011-12.
States like Bihar and Odisha are among the poorest, with poverty ratios of 33.7% and 32.6%, respectively.
In contrast, states such as Kerala, Maharashtra, and Tamil Nadu have seen significant reductions in poverty.
These states have achieved this through a combination of agricultural growth and human capital development.
States like Punjab and Haryana have also successfully reduced poverty, primarily through high agricultural growth rates.
Q7. Describe global poverty trends. Ans The success rate of reducing poverty varies significantly across different regions, leading to disparities in poverty levels. In India:
Odisha, Bihar, and Madhya Pradesh are the three poorest states, with poverty rates of 47%, 42%, and 37% respectively.
Conversely, Jammu and Kashmir, Punjab, and Himachal Pradesh are among the states with the lowest poverty levels.
Globally, there has been a notable decline in poverty:
China and South-East Asia, rapid economic growth and significant investments in human resources have led to a reduction in poverty.
In Latin America, the poverty rate has remained relatively stable.
In sub-Saharan Africa, however, poverty has increased, rising from 41% in 1981 to 46% in 2001.
Poverty has also emerged in some former socialist countries, such as Russia, where it was previously negligible.
Q8. Describe the current government strategy of poverty alleviation.
MNREGA
Ans: The removal of poverty is a key goal of India’s development strategy. Some notable targeted anti-poverty programmes include:
Prime Minister’s Rozgar Yojana (PMRY): Launched in 1993, this programme aims to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns.
Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana (PMGY): Initiated in 2000, it focuses on improving basic services such as primary health, education, rural housing, drinking water, and electrification.
Rural Employment Generation Programme (REGP): Started in 1995, this programme aims to create self-employment opportunities in rural and urban areas.
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA): Enacted in September 2005, it guarantees 100 days of employment per year to every rural household in 200 districts, with plans to expand to 600 districts. One-third of the jobs are reserved for women.
Q9. Answer the following questions briefly (i) What do you understand by human poverty? (ii) Who are the poorest of the poor? (iii) What are the main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005? Ans: (i) Human poverty extends beyond mere lack of income. It encompasses the denial of essential political, social, and economic opportunities necessary for a decent standard of living.
Illiteracy
Lack of job opportunities
Inadequate access to healthcare and sanitation
Caste and gender discrimination
(ii) The poorest of the poorare primarily:
Women
Female infants
Older individuals
(iii) Main features of the National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005include:
Guarantees 100 days of employment per year for every household
Initially covered 200 districts, later expanded to 600
Q1. What do you understand by ‘people as a resource’?
Ans: People as a Resource:
The concept of people as a resource highlights how a population can be an asset rather than a burden. When individuals possess knowledge, skills, and access to technology, they can effectively use natural resources to create value.
Role in Production Factors:
Production of goods and services relies on four key factors: land, labour, physical capital, and human capital.
Human capital includes the knowledge and skills of the workforce, which integrates the other factors to produce output.
Investments in education, training, and healthcare enhance the population’s capabilities, transforming it into an asset.
When the workforce is educated and healthy, it contributes positively to the economy, similar to investments in physical capital.
Human Capital Formation:
Investment in human capital yields returns, such as higher incomes and increased productivity.
Examples include India’s Green Revolution, which improved land productivity through better knowledge and technology.
The IT revolution in India illustrates how human capital can surpass the importance of material resources.
In summary, viewing the population as a productive resource emphasises the potential benefits of investing in education and health, ultimately leading to a stronger economy.
Q2. How is human resource different from other resources like land and physical capital
Ans: Human resources differ from other resources such as land and physical capital in several key ways:
Human resources can be developed through education and health, while land and physical resources are fixed and limited.
Human resources have the ability to transform other resources, whereas land and physical capital cannot change or influence human resources.
Human resources utilise land and physical capital effectively; in contrast, land and capital cannot function independently.
Investing in human capital, through education and training, yields returns similar to investments in physical capital. This is evident in:
Higher incomes resulting from increased productivity of educated and trained individuals.
Enhanced productivity among healthier individuals.
Overall, human resources are vital for economic growth and development, as they can be nurtured and improved over time.
Q3. What is the role of education in human capital formation?
Ans: The role of education in human capital formation includes:
Economic Asset: Education turns individuals into valuable assets for the economy.
Enhanced Opportunities: It enables people to seize job opportunities, boosting national income and fostering cultural diversity. This also improves government efficiency.
Increased Productivity: Educated individuals tend to be more productive, producing higher quality and quantity of work.
Health Benefits: Education raises awareness of health and hygiene, leading to better health outcomes for the population.
Q4. What is the role of health in human capital formation?
Ans: The role of health in human capital formation includes:
Improved Immunity: Good health strengthens the immune system, reducing illness and absenteeism.
Increased Productivity: Healthier individuals are more productive and efficient in their work.
Economic Growth: Better healthcare leads to a healthier population, enhancing human capital and overall productivity, which drives economic growth.
Quality of Life: Good health improves quality of life, enabling individuals to work effectively, earn more, and contribute positively to society.
Q5. What part does health play in the individual’s working life?
Ans: Health plays a crucial role in an individual’s working life by influencing various aspects of productivity and performance:
Improved Work Focus: Good health enhances concentration, enabling individuals to make decisions confidently and complete tasks efficiently.
Increased Work Capacity: Healthy individuals can work longer without fatigue, allowing them to achieve more.
Reduced Absenteeism: Maintaining good health leads to fewer sick days, resulting in better attendance and reliability.
Enhanced Efficiency and Productivity: Healthier individuals tend to be more productive, positively impacting their overall work performance.
Q6. What are the various activities undertaken in the primary sector, secondary sector and tertiary sector? Ans:
Primary Sector
Comprises activities related to the extraction and production of natural resources.
Agriculture, forestry, animal husbandry, fishing, poultry farming, mining, and quarrying are the activities undertaken in this sector.
Secondary Sector
Comprises activities related to the processing of natural resources.
Manufacturing is included in this sector.
Tertiary Sector
Comprises activities that provide support to the primary and secondary sectors through various services.
Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, health, tourism, insurance, etc., are examples of tertiary activities.
Q7: What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities? Ans:
Q8. Why are women employed in low-paid work?
Ans:
Gender Prejudices and Stereotypes: Gender biases, such as the belief that women are less capable in physical jobs, create unfairness in the workplace. These stereotypes negatively impact women and contribute to lower wages.
Earnings Based on Education and Skill: Women’s earnings, like men’s, depend on their education and skills. Many women have limited access to education and skill development, leading to lower pay compared to men.
Job Insecurity and Benefits: Women often work in jobs that lack security and benefits, such as maternity leave and childcare support. Their household responsibilities can also limit their ability to work full-time and earn as much as men.
Gender biases create workplace unfairness.
Limited access to education and skills affects earnings.
Many women face job insecurity and lack benefits.
Household duties can restrict full-time work opportunities.
Q9. How will you explain the term unemployment?
Ans: Unemployment refers to a situation where individuals who are able and willing to work cannot find jobs. A person is considered unemployed if they are part of the workforce, capable of working, and actively seeking employment but are unable to secure a position.
Key points about unemployment include:
Types of Unemployment: There are different forms of unemployment, such as seasonal and disguised unemployment.
Seasonal Unemployment: This occurs when people cannot find work during certain months, particularly in agriculture.
Disguised Unemployment: Individuals may appear to be employed but are not contributing effectively to productivity.
Educated Unemployment: Many graduates struggle to find jobs, leading to a paradox where there is both a surplus of qualified individuals and a shortage of skilled jobs.
Unemployment has significant negative effects, such as:
Wastage of Resources: Unemployed individuals represent a loss of potential economic contributions.
Social Impact: High unemployment can lead to feelings of hopelessness and financial strain on families.
Economic Indicators: Rising unemployment rates often signal a struggling economy.
In India, the unemployment rate may appear low, but many individuals work in low-paying jobs that do not reflect their potential or productivity.
Q10. What is the difference between disguised unemployment and seasonal unemployment? Ans:
Q11. Why is educated unemployed, a peculiar problem in India?
Ans: Educated unemployment is a significant issue in India, affecting many young people despite their qualifications.
Many individuals with matriculation, graduation, and even postgraduation struggle to find jobs.
The education system allows entry into the workforce without ensuring that graduates have the necessary skills demanded by employers.
This results in a mismatch where educated individuals lack essential skills, leading to high unemployment rates.
Unemployment among graduates and postgraduates is increasing faster than among those with lower qualifications.
There is a paradox of surplus manpower in some sectors while others face a shortage of skilled workers.
Unemployment leads to a waste of valuable human resources, turning potential assets into liabilities.
This situation fosters feelings of hopelessness among the youth, impacting their ability to support families.
In rural areas, unemployment often takes the form of seasonal and disguised unemployment, while urban areas primarily experience educated unemployment.
Seasonal unemployment occurs when agricultural workers cannot find jobs during certain months.
Disguised unemployment happens when more people are employed than necessary, leading to inefficiencies.
Overall, educated unemployment is a complex problem that hinders economic growth and affects the quality of life.
Q12. In which field do you think India can build the maximum employment opportunity?
Ans: The employment sector in India is divided into three main categories:
Primary Sector: This includes agriculture, which employs a large part of the population. However, it often suffers from disguised unemployment, where more people are working than necessary.
Secondary Sector: This sector encompasses manufacturing industries, which have the potential to create a significant number of jobs. The growth of these industries can lead to increased employment opportunities.
Tertiary Sector: This includes services such as biotechnology and information technology, which are emerging fields that can also provide jobs.
Overall, the manufacturing sector within the secondary category is likely to offer the most employment opportunities in India due to the expansion of industries.
Q13. Can you suggest some measures in the education system to mitigate the problem of the educated unemployed?
Ans: To address the issue of educated unemployment, the education system can implement several measures:
Promote Vocational Education: Encourage vocational training to prepare individuals for specific jobs, making it easier for them to find employment.
Enhance Information Technology: Integrate more information technology into education to improve learning outcomes and equip students for modern workplaces.
Job-Oriented Education: Align educational programmes with industry needs to boost students’ employability.
Expand Tertiary Sector Opportunities: Create more job opportunities in the tertiary sector to absorb the increasing number of educated job seekers.
Career-Oriented Secondary Education: Introduce practical skills training at the secondary level to meet current job market demands.
Q14. Can you imagine some village that initially had no job opportunities but later came up with many?
Ans: Rampur was a small village that relied heavily on agriculture, which depended on rainfall. With the arrival of electricity, villagers could irrigate their fields, allowing them to grow 2 to 3 crops each year.
Some residents established small-scale industries powered by electricity, creating job opportunities.
A school was built, leading to increased education levels, enabling villagers to seek employment both locally and beyond.
The village prospered, improving health, education, transport, and job facilities.
As the village developed:
One family trained their daughter in tailoring, who then started making clothes for the villagers.
This created a new job as a tailor, saving farmers time previously spent travelling to buy clothes.
Farmers could now focus more on their fields, increasing crop yields.
Surplus produce was sold in nearby markets, enhancing the village’s economy.
Over time, Rampur transformed from a village with no job opportunities to one with various roles, including teachers, tailors, and agro-engineers. This story illustrates how the rise in human capital can lead to economic growth and diversification.
Q15. Which capital would you consider the best – land, labour, physical capital, and human capital? Why?
Ans: Human capital is highly valued because, unlike other resources, humans can effectively utilise and leverage natural and physical resources for productive outcomes.
Efficient use of human capital has led to:
Prosperity in nations, making them leaders in technology and industry.
Continuous economic advancement and development.
For example:
Countries like Japan show that investing in human capital, especially through education and health initiatives, can drive development even without natural resources.
Despite lacking natural resources, these nations have achieved significant development.
Investment in human capital (through education, training, and medical care) yields returns similar to those from investing in physical capital. This is evident in:
Higher incomes due to increased productivity from better-educated and healthier individuals.
In summary, human capital is superior to other resources like land and physical capital because:
Q1. Every village in India is surveyed once every ten years during the Census, and some of the details are presented in the following format. Fill up the following based on information on Palampur (a) Location (b) Total Area of The Village (c) Land USE (in hectares) (d) Facilities Ans:
(a) Location: Bulandshahar district, Western Uttar Pradesh (b) Total Area of The Village: 226 hectares (c) Land USE (in hectares):
(d) Facilities:
Q2. Modern farming methods require more inputs which are manufactured in industry. Do you agree? Ans: Yes, it is correct to say that modern farming methods require more inputs, which are manufactured in industries.
Traditional farming methods involve the use of relatively low-yielding seeds, which require less water for irrigation. Farmers following the traditional methods use cow dung and other natural manure as fertilisers. All these elements are readily available to the farmers. This makes them less dependent on industrial output. Modern Farming Method
Modern farming methods, on the other hand, involve the use of high-yielding variety seeds. These seeds require a combination of chemical fertilisers and pesticides, agricultural implements like tractors, and proper irrigation facilities like electric tube wells to produce the best results. All these elements are manufactured in industries.
Hence, it would be right to say that modern farming methods make use of a greater number of industrial outputs as compared to traditional farming methods.
Q3. How did the spread of electricity help farmers in Palampur? Ans: The spread of electricity helped the farmers in Palampur in the following ways:
Most of the houses have electricity connections.
It is used to run tube wells in the field.
It is used in various types of small businesses.
Q4. Is it important to increase the area under irrigation? Why? Ans: It is important to increase the land under irrigation because:
Farming is the main source of income for the maximum part of the population in India, and only less than 40 per cent of the land is cultivable in the country.
Farmers are dependent on the erratic monsoon season, and if the rainfall is less, farmers are bound to suffer a major loss.
So if the water is provided for irrigation to the farmers for a larger portion of land, it would give better output and make more land cultivable in India and also encourage farmers to take up newer farming methods without the fear of suffering loss.
Modern Irrigation Method
Q5. Construct a table on the distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur. Ans: The distribution of land among the 450 families of Palampur is as follows:
Q6. Why are farm labourers in Palampur’s wages less than the minimum wage? Ans: The wages for farm labourers in Palampur are less than the minimum wages because:
There is heavy competition for work among the farmers.
Employment is less, and farmers are more and therefore, farmers have to be content with what they are earning.
The land is owned by landlords who desire to earn more and more profit by paying minimum wages.
The farmers are illiterate and unaware of the amount of minimum wage set by the government.
Q7. In your region, talk to two labourers. Choose either farm labourers or labourers working at construction sites. What wages do they get? Are they paid in cash or kind? Do they get work regularly? Are they in debt? Ans:
There is a gym and a swimming pool under construction in our colony. On speaking with Masud and Rehman, two construction labourers, I understood that they get about 80-90 rupees per day for their labour.
The two labourers belong to the Basti district of Uttar Pradesh, and they had migrated to Delhi to work as labourers on a daily wage. Their work is not permanent.
They do not get regular work. They are always paid in cash by the contractor who hires them for work.
Masud is in debt for taking a loan for his son’s school and tuition fees.
Q8. What are the different ways of increasing production on the same piece of land? Use examples to explain. Ans: The land area under cultivation is practically fixed, so in order to increase the production from the same piece of land, we can use the following methods: (a) Multiple Cropping
It is the most common way of increasing production on a given piece of land. It means when two or more crops are grown on the same piece of land during a year, i.e., Indian farmers should grow at least two main crops in a year.
In India, some farmers are growing the third crop over the past 20 years, as in Palampur, jowar and bajra are grown, and potato is the third crop.
(b) Modern Farming Methods
Production on the same piece of land can also be increased by adopting modern farming methods.
The Green Revolution in India is a remarkable example of it. Under modern farming, more cultivable area should be brought under high-yielding varieties of seeds and irrigation.
The use of simple wooden ploughs must be replaced by tractors, and with increased use of farm machinery such as tractors, thrashers, and harvesters, make cultivation faster and also help in increasing yield per hectare.
Q9. Describe the work of a farmer with 1 hectare of land. Ans: A farmer who works on 1 hectare of land is called a small farmer. He carries out the following activities:
Ploughs the field by bullocks or tractors.
Sow the seeds by simply sprinkling them with your hands.
Waters the field with the help of the Persian wheel.
Spray the insecticides with manual pumps.
Cuts the crops with hand-operated tools.
Q10. How do the medium and large farmers obtain capital for farming? How is it different from the small farmers? Ans:
Medium and large farmers retain a part of their produce and sell the surplus in the market.
This provides them with the required capital for farming. Most of them even use these earnings to provide loans to small farmers.
By charging high rates of interest on these loans, they succeed in furthering their earnings.
Thus, medium and large farmers have ready capital with them from one agricultural season to the next.
The situation of small farmers is in contrast. They begin an agricultural season with no working capital and end the season on more or less the same note.
To begin working on their farms, they take loans at high rates of interest. Due to the small size of their farms, their total production is small.
Their produce is kept for their needs or for repaying their lenders. As a result, they have no surplus to sell in the market and, thus, have limited savings.
Q11. On what terms did Savita get a loan from Tajpal Singh? Would Savita’s condition be different if she could get a loan from the bank at a low rate of interest? Ans: The terms of a loan of Savita taken from Tajpal Singh are:
She took a loan of Rs. 3,000 at an interest rate of 24 per cent.
She would have to repay the loan in four months.
She also has to work in Tejpal’s field as a farm labourer during the harvesting season at Rs. 100 per day.
The bank could have provided her with a loan at a low rate of interest. In addition, she would have devoted more time to her own field of 1 hectare instead of working as a farm labourer for Tejpal Singh.
Q12. Talk to some old residents in your region and write a short report on the changes in irrigation and changes in production methods during the last 30 years. Ans:
(a)
On talking to two old residents, Ramlal and Dharam Singh, I came to know about the irrigation methods that were traditionally in use in our area.
They told me that earlier, they were dependent on rainfall, and later on, they started to use the Persian wheel to draw water from the wells.
With the development of technology, tube wells were used for better and effective irrigation.
(b)
In the farming methods, traditionally, they ploughed the field with ploughs drawn by bullocks, which was a very difficult and time-consuming process.
They used ordinary seeds and cow dung manure for fertilisation.
(c)
However, with changes in technology, the farmers started using HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides and modern machinery like tractors and threshers.
This has led to an increase in yield per hectare and improved the lives of the farmers.
Q13. What are the non-farm production activities taking place in your region? Make a short list. Ans:
Dairy is a common activity in many families in our region.
Some people are involved in small-scale manufacturing in their homes or in the field, like the production of jaggery by Mishrilal.
A few people are involved as shopkeepers and traders who buy various goods from the wholesale market in the cities and sell them in the villages.
Some people near the bus stand have opened shops selling eatables.
Some people are in the transportation sector, ferrying people and carrying goods from one place to another in different types of vehicles.
People like Kareem opened a computer class centre and also provided employment to two women who had a diploma in computer applications.
Q14. What can be done so that more non-farm production activities can be started in villages? Ans: Three things that need to be done to encourage non-farm production activities in villages:
The government should set up schemes whereby landless labourers and small farmers are able to get cheap loans to start small individual/community businesses.
In addition to financial assistance, the government should set up rural workshops to enable the villagers to build on their skill levels. Rural Workshop
The government should also work towards improving the infrastructure of villages so that the rural parts of the country are well-connected to the urban areas.
Q1. Which of the following is not an instance of an exercise of a fundamental right? (a) Workers from Bihar go to the Punjab to work on the farms (b) Christian missions set up a chain of missionary schools (c) Men and women government employees get the same salary (d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children Ans:(d) Parents’ property is inherited by their children
Inheritance of property is governed by civil law and is not an instance of the exercise of a fundamental right. The other options involve fundamental rights such as the right to freedom of movement, religion, and equality.
Q2. Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen? (a) Freedom to criticise the government (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution (c) Freedom to start a movement to change the government (d) Freedom to oppose the central values of the Constitution Ans: (b) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
Indian citizens do not have the freedom to participate in an armed revolution, as it is against the law. While citizens are free to criticize the government and start movements for change, they must do so peacefully and within the framework of the Constitution. Opposing the central values of the Constitution is also not permissible.
Q3. Which of the following rights is available under the Indian Constitution? (a) Right to work (b) Right to adequate livelihood (c) Right to protect one’s culture (d) Right to privacy Ans: (c) Right to protect one’s culture
Under the Indian Constitution, citizens have the right to preserve their language, script, and culture (Articles 29 and 30). This is a fundamental right under the Cultural and Educational Rights section.
Q4. Name the Fundamental Right under which each of the following rights falls: (a) Freedom to propagate one’s religion (b) Right to life (c) Abolition of untouchability (d) Ban on bonded labour Ans: (a) Right to Freedom of Religion (b) Right to Freedom (c) Right to Equality (d) Right against Exploitation
Q5. Which of these statements about the relationship between democracy and rights is more valid? Give reasons for your preference. (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens. (b) Every country that gives rights to its citizens is a democracy. (c) Giving rights is good, but it is not necessary for a democracy. Ans: (a) Every country that is a democracy gives rights to its citizens. Reasons: (i) Rights are necessary for the very existence of democracy. (ii) In a democracy, every citizen has the right to vote.
Q6. Are there restrictions on the right to freedom justified? Give reasons for your answer. (a) Indian citizens need permission to visit some border areas of the country for reasons of security. (b) Outsiders are not allowed to buy property in some areas to protect the interest of the local population. (c) The government bans the publication of a book that can go against the ruling party in the next elections. Ans: (a) It is justified. The security of the country is the first duty of a government, and this cause can stop the people from visiting the border areas. (b) This action is also justified. The local population may not be financially strong to protect its interests. Outsiders can take away their rights in their own area, so such a step of the government is correct. (c) Not justified. The publication of a book can only be banned if it disturbs the peace and hurts the sentiments of a section of people, and not on the grounds of protecting the ruling party’s prospects in the next election.
Q7. Manoj went to a college to apply for admission into an MBA course. The clerk refused to take his application and said “You, the son of a sweeper, wish to be a manager! Has anyone done this job in your community? Go to the municipality office and apply for a sweeper’s position”. Which of Manoj’s fundamental rights are being violated in this instance? Spell these out in a letter from Manoj to the district collector. Ans:
To, The District Collector, Address___________ Date_______________ Subject- Violation of a Fundamental Right Respected Sir/Ma’am, I had applied for an MBA course In order to fulfill my dream to become a Manager. But the Clerk in the office rejected my application and passed discriminatory comments. He made this decision on the basis of class bias. This is a clear violation of my Right to Freedom and equality. I am free to choose the profession I want to practice and nobody should discriminate against me on the basis of my class or caste. I request that you look into the matter and take the necessary action. Thank You Sir/Ma’am. With Regards, Manoj
Q8. When Madhurima went to the property registration office, the Registrar told her. “You can’t write your name as Madhurima Banerjee d/o Α. K. Banerjee. You are married, so you must give your husband’s name. Your husband’s surname is Rao. So your name should be changed to Madhurima Rao.” She did not agree. She said “If my husband’s name has not changed after marriage, why should mine?” In your opinion who is right in this dispute? And why? Ans: Madhurima Banerjee is right. It is her freedom to choose the surname she wants. It cannot be obligated by others to force her to change her surname. The property registration officer has no legal right to ask her to change her name nor the authority to deny her work. She can forward a complaint to the Court on the violation of her rights.
Q9. Thousands of tribals and other forest dwellers gathered at Piparia in Hoshangabad district in Madhya Pradesh to protest against their proposed displacement from the Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. They argue that such a displacement is an attack on their livelihood and beliefs. Government claims that their displacement is essential for the development of the area and for protection of wildlife. Write a petition on behalf of the forest dwellers to the NHRC, a response from the government and a report of the NHRC on this matter. Ans: (a) Letter from the Tribals to NHRC To, The Chairman, National Human Rights Commission, Delhi, India Date:_____________ Subject: Displacement of Tribals Respected Sir/Ma’am, I want to draw your attention to plight of forest dwellers in Satpura National Park, Bori Wildlife Sanctuary and Panchmarhi Wildlife Sanctuary. The government wants to displace these people. The proposal of the government is a violation of the human rights of the forest dwellers. It is asking away their right to livelihood and to follow their beliefs. There has been no alternative suggestion by the government with regard to the future of the forest dwellers. We urge you to please look into the matter and provide the much-required help to these people. Thank You Sir/Ma’am. Regards, Rohan or [Your Name] Piparia, Hoshangabad District, Madhya Pradesh or [Your Address] (b) Response from the Government
The government had given a warning to the people two years ago.
There has been an alarming rise in poaching, cutting of trees and killing of wildlife.
Environmental pollution has also increased.
It is the government’s duty to protect the endangered species.
The government has offered compensation and promised rehabilitation in alternative places.
Offered jobs to the men.
(c) NHRC’s Report
Both sides have a point
The Tribals have tradition, practice and decades of residence behind them. It is their world and life.
Sudden uprooting will leave them emotionally disturbed, turn them into vagabonds and force them into jobs or occupations that they have never followed.
The government is right in its concern for wildlife. It is its duty to save certain species from becoming extinct. Poachers are having a field day, and every day the environment is threatened.
Q10. Draw a web interconnecting different rights discussed in this chapter. For example right to freedom of movement is connected to the freedom of occupation. One reason for this is that freedom of movement enables a person to go to place of work within one’s village or city or to another village, city or state. Similarly this right can be used for pilgrimage, connected with freedom to follow one’s religion. Draw a circle for each right and mark arrows that show connection between or among different rights. For each arrow, give an example that shows the linkage. Ans:
Q1. If you are elected as the President of India which of the following decisions can you take on your own? (a) Select the person you like as Prime Minister. (b) Dismiss a Prime Minister who has a majority in Lok Sabha. (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both the Houses. (d) Nominate the leaders of your choice to the Council of Ministers. Ans: (c) Ask for reconsideration of a bill passed by both Houses.
As President of India, you can:
Request that Parliament review a bill.
Delay the bill’s assent, but must sign it if passed again.
However, you cannot:
Select a Prime Minister on your own.
Dismiss a Prime Minister with a majority.
Nominate leaders to the Council of Ministers independently.
Q2. Who among the following is a part of the political executive? (a) District Collector (b) Secretary of the Ministry of Home Affairs (c) Home Minister (d) Director General of Police Ans:(c) Home Minister
The Home Minister is part of the political executive, while the others are part of the bureaucracy or civil services (administrative executive).
Q3. Which of the following statements about the judiciary is false? (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs the approval of the Supreme Court. (b) Judiciary can strike down a law if it goes against the spirit of the Constitution. (c) Judiciary is independent of the Executive. (d) Any citizen can approach the courts if her rights are violated Ans: (a) Every law passed by the Parliament needs the approval of the Supreme Court.
This statement is false because laws passed by Parliament do not require prior approval from the Supreme Court. However, the judiciary can review and strike down laws if they are found to be unconstitutional.
Q4. Which of the following institutions can make changes to an existing law of the country? (a) The Supreme Court (b) The President (c) The Prime Minister (d) The Parliament Ans:(d) The Parliament
Only Parliament has the authority to make, amend, or repeal laws in the country. The other institutions can influence laws but cannot directly change them.
Q5. Match the ministry with the news that the ministry may have released:
Ans:
Q6. Of all the institutions that we have studied in this chapter, name the one that exercises the powers on each of the following matters. (a) Decision on allocation of money for developing infrastructure like roads, irrigation etc. and different welfare activities for the citizens. (b) Considers the recommendation of a Committee on a law to regulate the stock exchange. (c) Decides on a legal dispute between two state governments. (d) Implements the decision to provide relief for the victims of an earthquake. Ans:
(a)Lok Sabha (The Finance Ministry) decides on the allocation of money for developing infrastructure, such as roads and irrigation, and for various welfare activities for citizens. (b)The Parliament considers recommendations from a Committee regarding laws to regulate the stock exchange. (c)The Supreme Court resolves legal disputes between two state governments. (d)The Executive implements decisions to provide relief for victims of an earthquake.
Q7. Why is the Prime Minister in India not directly elected by the people? Choose the most appropriate answer and give reasons for your choice. (a) In a Parliamentary democracy only the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha can become the Prime Minister. (b) Lok Sabha can remove the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers even before the expiry of their term. (c) Since the Prime Minister is appointed by the President there is no need for it. (d) Direct election of the Prime Minister will involve lot of expenditure on election. Ans: The most appropriate answer is (a). This is because:
In a Parliamentary democracy, the Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party in the Lok Sabha.
This ensures that the Prime Minister has the support of the majority, preventing them from becoming a puppet or a dictator.
The Prime Minister works alongside a council of ministers, which promotes collaboration and accountability.
Q8. Three friends went to watch a film that showed the hero becoming Chief Minister for a day and making big changes in the state. Imran said this is what the country needs. Rizwan said this kind of personal rule without institutions is dangerous. Shankar said all this is a fantasy. No minister can do anything in one day. What would be your reaction to such a film? Ans: Such a film is unrealistic and undemocratic. Key points include:
The Chief Minister should be chosen through a fair election process.
A personal rule without institutions is dangerous.
Implementing reforms requires careful planning and time.
Q9. A teacher was making preparations for a mock parliament. She called two students to act as leaders of two political parties. She gave them an option: Each one could choose to have a majority either in the mock Lok Sabha or in the mock Rajya Sabha. If this choice was given to you. Which one would you choose and why? Ans: I would choose to have a majority in the Lok Sabha, as the Lok Sabha is more powerful than the Rajya Sabha because:
If any law is not passed by both the houses, the final decision is taken in the joint session in which members of both the houses sit together but because of the larger number of members, the view of the Lok Sabha is likely to prevail.
The Lok Sabha exercises more powers in money matters too. Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money-related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot reject it.
Most importantly, the Lok Sabha controls the Council of Ministers. If the majority of the Lok Sabha members say they have no confidence in the Council of Ministers, it has to quit, whereas the Rajya Sabha does not have this power.
Q10. After reading the example of the reservation order, three students had different reactions about the role of the judiciary. Which view, according to you, is a correct reading of the role of judiciary? (a) Srinivas argues that since the Supreme Court agreed with the government, it is not independent. (b) Anjaiah says that judiciary is independent because it could have given a verdict against the government order. The Supreme Court did direct the government to modify it. (c) Vijaya thinks that the judiciary is neither independent nor conformist, but acts as a mediator between opposing parties. The court struck a good balance between those who supported and those who opposed the order. Ans: (b) Anjaiah’s view on the role of the judiciary is correct because:
The judiciary is independent and impartial.
It operates separately from the legislature and the executive.
Judges do not follow the government’s wishes or the ruling party’s agenda.
The Supreme Court’s directive to modify the government order shows its ability to check governmental power.
Q1. Which of the following statements about the reasons for conducting elections are false? (a) Elections enable people to judge the performance of the government. (b) People select the representative of their choice in an election. (c) Elections enable people to evaluate the performance of the judiciary. (d) People can indicate which policies they prefer. Ans: Statement (c).
This statement is incorrect because the judiciary works separately from elections. Elections let people choose their representatives and check how well the government is working. They also show what policies the elected leaders will follow. However, elections cannot judge how well the courts are doing.
Q2. Which of these is not a good reason to say that Indian elections are democratic?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world. (b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful. (c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote. (d) In India, the losing parties accept the electoral verdict.
Ans: Statement (a).
India is the largest democracy in the world, and its constitution grants its people a wide number of rights. In India, elections are held under the direct control of the Election Commission of India, which is an autonomous Constitutional body and the right to vote is based on the principle of Universal Adult Franchise. The success of an election is based upon the active participation of people in maximum numbers; however, voting cannot be compelled, and this right is exercised by the citizens as per their discretion. Hence, saying that India has the largest number of voters in the world does not quantify the stronghold of Indian elections to be democratic.
Q3. Match the following
Ans:
Q4. List all the different election-related activities mentioned in the chapter and arrange them in a time sequence, beginning with the first activity and ending with the last. Some of these activities are given below: releasing election manifestos; counting of votes; making of voters’ list; election campaign; declaration of election results; casting of votes; ordering of re-poll; announcing election schedule; filing nomination. Ans: Election-related activities: (i) Announcing the election schedule (ii) Filing nominations (iii) Making of voters’ list (iv) Releasing election manifesto (v) Election campaign (vi) Casting of votes (vii) Counting of votes (viii) Declaration of election results (ix) Ordering of re-poll
Q5. Surekha is an officer in-charge of ensuring free and fair elections in an assembly constituency in a state. Describe what should she focus on for each of the following stages of election: (a) Election Campaign (b) Polling Day (c) Counting Day Ans: (a) Election Campaign
For this, Surekha will have to focus on seeing that the candidates do not bribe or threaten the voters; appeal to them in the name of caste or religion; use government resources for the election campaign, do not spend excessive amounts of money in terms of expenditure or use a place of worship for campaigning.
In addition to this, she will have to see that ministers do not use government vehicles for their campaigns and that they do not make major policy decisions after the elections are announced.
(b) Polling Day
For this, Surekha will have to cross-check the voters’ list and check their Voter IDs. She will also need to ensure that incidents of rigging and booth capturing do not take place.
(c) Counting Day
For this, Surekha will have to see that the polling agents are present to ensure that counting is done properly.
Q6. The table below gives the proportion of different communities among the candidates who won elections to the US Congress. Compare these to the proportion of these communities in the population of the US. Based on this, would you suggest a system of reservations in the US Congress? If yes, why and for which communities? If no, why not?
Ans: Based on the table, a reservation for the Hispanic and Black communities is a good idea. This is to make their representation in proportion to the percentage of their population, which is currently less for both classes. On the other hand, Whites do not need any reservation because they have more seats (86% in the House of Representatives) compared to their population (70%).
Q7. Can we draw the following conclusions from the information given in this chapter? Give two facts to support your position for each of these. (a) Election Commission of India does not have enough powers to conduct free and fair elections in the country. (b) There is a high level of popular participation in the elections in our country. (c) It is very easy for the party in power to win an election. (d) Many reforms are needed to make our elections completely free and fair. Ans: (a) This is an incorrect conclusion.
The Election Commission of India is powerful enough to conduct free and fair elections. It implements the code of conduct and punishes any candidate or party that violates it.
While on election duty, government officials work under the EC and not the government.
(b) This is a correct conclusion.
The facts support that voter turnout has increased over the past years.
At the same time, election-related activities in the last few years have seen larger participation by the people.
(c) This is an incorrect conclusion.
The ruling parties routinely lose elections.
Candidates who are known to spend a lot of money often lose elections.
(d) This is a correct conclusion.
Reforms are needed because candidates and parties with a lot of money enjoy an unfair advantage.
Also, some candidates have criminal connections which they use to terrorise the voters and other candidates.
Q8. Chinappa was convicted for torturing his wife for dowry. Satbir was held guilty of practicing untouchability. The court did not allow either of them to contest elections. Does this decision go against the principles of democratic elections? Ans: This decision does not go against the principles of democratic elections as both Chinappa and Satbir are criminals. Hence, they should be prevented from holding positions in the central or state assemblies.
Q9. Here are some reports of electoral malpractices from different parts of the world. Is there anything that these countries can learn from India to improve their elections? What would you suggest in each case? (a) During an election in Nigeria, the officer in charge of counting votes deliberately increased the votes of one candidate and declared him elected. The court later found out that more than five lakh votes cast for one candidate were counted in favour of another. (b) Just before elections in Fiji, a pamphlet was distributed warning voters that a vote for former Prime Minister, Mahendra Chaudhry will lead to bloodshed. This was a threat to voters of Indian origin. (c) In the US, each state has its own method of voting, its own procedure of counting and its own authority for conducting elections. Authorities in the state of Florida took many controversial decisions that favoured Mr Bush in the presidential elections in 2000. But no one could change those decisions. Ans: (a) In this case, representatives of each candidate should be present to make sure that the votes are counted in a fair way. (b) The election commission should set up an enquiry into the case and debar the candidate or party involved in distributing such pamphlets. (c) There should be a single election commission that should be free from political influence and should be responsible for conducting elections throughout the country.
Q10. Here are some reports of malpractices in the Indian elections. Identify what the problem in each case is. What should be done to correct the situation? (a) Following the announcement of elections, the minister promised to provide financial aid to reopen the closed sugar mill. (b) Opposition parties alleged that their statements and campaign was not given due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio. (c) An inquiry by the Election Commission showed that electoral rolls of a state contain the name of 20 lakh fake voters. (d) The hoodlums of a political party were moving with guns, physically preventing supporters of other political parties to meet the voters and attacking meetings of other parties. Ans: (a)
By promising financial aid to the sugar mill, the minister announced a policy decision.
This is not right since policy decisions cannot be made after the elections are announced. The minister should not be allowed to contest the elections.
(b)
By not giving the opposition party’s statements and campaign due attention in Doordarshan and All India Radio, the government gained an unfair advantage over the opposition.
To counter this, the opposition should be given sufficient time on the national media.
(c)
The presence of fake voters means that the elections were rigged by the authorities who prepared the electoral rolls.
The election commission should supervise the preparation of fresh electoral rolls.
(d) By using hoodlums, the political party is terrorising its rivals. The election commission should order the arrest of the hoodlums and bar the party from the elections.
Q11. Ramesh was not in class when this chapter was being taught. He came the next day and repeated what he had heard from his father. Can you tell Ramesh what is wrong with these statements? (a) Women always vote the way men tell them to. So what is the point of giving them the right to vote? (b) Party politics creates tension in society. Elections should be decided by consensus, not by competition. (c) Only graduates should be allowed to stand as candidates for elections. Ans: (a)
The statement is wrong because the policy of the secret ballot ensures that an individual can vote for whoever he/she want.
Women are fully capable of making decisions on their own and selecting the candidate they like.
(b)
It is true that party politics creates tension in society, but it is wrong to say that elections should be decided by consensus.
Competition in politics works out for the good of the people as politicians compete with each other in fulfilling their promises.
They might not be honest, but they know that they need to work to be elected. Thus, even their selfish actions benefit people.
(c) Educational qualification is not required to understand the people’s needs and to represent their interests. Thus, it is not necessary for politicians to be graduates.
Green Revolution in India
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