02. Constitutional Design – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Here are some false statements. Identify the mistake in each case and rewrite these correctly based on what you have read in this chapter.
(a) Leaders of the freedom movement had an open mind about whether the country should be democratic or not after independence.
(b) Members of the Constituent Assembly of India held the same views on all provisions of the Constitution.
(c) A country that has a constitution must be a democracy.
(d) Constitution cannot be amended because it is the supreme law of a country.
Ans:
(a) Leaders of the freedom movement agreed that the country should be a democratic nation after independence.
(b) Members of the Constituent Assembly worked in a systematic, open, and consensual manner to resolve differences among them.
(c) It is not necessary for a country to have a constitution to be a democracy. The constitution of a country can even make provisions for dictatorship or monarchy.  
(d) A constitution can be amended to keep up with the changes in aspirations of the society.


Q2. Which of these was the most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa?
(a) Between South Africa and its neighbours
(b) Between men and women
(c) Between the white majority and the black minority
(d) Between the coloured minority and the black majority
Ans: (c) Between the white majority and the black minority

The most salient underlying conflict in the making of a democratic constitution in South Africa was between the white minority and the black majority.

Q3. Which of these is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have?
(a) Powers of the head of the state
(b) Name of the head of the state
(c) Powers of the legislature
(d) Name of the country
Ans: (b) Name of the head of the state

The democratic constitution does not have the name of the head of the state, as the head of the state is elected by the citizen of the country. The head of the state changes after after a specific term; hence, there is a provision that a democratic constitution does not have the name of the head of the state.


Q4. Match the following leaders with their roles in the making of the Constitution

Ans:

Q5. Read again the extracts from Nehru’s speech “Tryst with Destiny” and answer the following:
(a) Why did Nehru use the expression “not wholly or in full measure” in the first sentence?
(b) What pledge did he want the makers of the Indian Constitution to take?
(c) “The ambition of the greatest man of our generation has been to wipe every tear from every eye”. Who was he referring to?
Ans:
(a) Nehru used the phrase “not wholly or in full measure” because he believed the work they had started was not yet finished. He knew it wasn’t possible to fulfil their promises all at once, but that they would be achieved gradually over time.
(b) The pledge Nehru wanted the makers of the Indian Constitution to take was to commit their lives to serving India, its people, and humanity as a whole.
(c) He was referring to Mahatma Gandhi, the father of our nation.

Q6. Here are some of the guiding values of the Constitution and its meaning. Rewrite them by matching them correctly.

Ans:


Q7. How did your school celebrate Constitution Day on November 26th? Prepare a brief report.
Ans: Students should write their report on their own if they have celebrated Constitution Day on November 26th.


Q8. Here are different opinions about what made India a democracy. How much importance would you give to each of these factors?
(a) Democracy in India is a gift of the British rulers. We received training to work with representative legislative institutions under the British rule.
(b) Freedom Struggle challenged the colonial exploitation and denial of different freedoms to Indians. Free India could not be anything but democratic.
(c) We were lucky to have leaders who had democratic convictions. The denial of democracy in several other newly independent countries shows the important role of these leaders.
Ans: 
(a) Democracy was chosen as the prime value of our nation during the freedom struggle against the British. Yes, with the Indian Councils Act, Indians started participating in the councils, and hence, their experiences paved the way for legislative institutions in independent India.
(b) The freedom struggle did challenge colonial exploitation, but it worked for democracy by making laws with consensus and not imposing anything on anyone.
(c) Our freedom struggle fought a bloodless struggle with tools like ‘Satyagraha’ and ‘Ahimsa.’ These struggles were undertaken to free India from the clutches of the British and give Indians the freedom they deserved.


Q9. Read the following extract from a conduct book for ‘married women’, published in 1912. ‘God has made the female species delicate and fragile both physically and emotionally, pitiably incapable of self-defence. They are destined thus by God to remain in male protection – of father, husband and son – all their lives. Women should, therefore, not despair, but feel obliged that they can dedicate themselves to the service of men’. Do you think the values expressed in this para reflected the values underlying our constitution? Or does this go against the constitutional values?
Ans: The values expressed in the above-mentioned paragraph do not reflect the values underlying our Constitution. Our constitution gives fundamental rights to each of its citizens regardless of gender, caste, sex, place of birth, and religion. Women are given equal rights to men in our constitution, i.e., equality is ensured through Fundamental Rights as well as protected under various articles such as Article 14 (equality before the law) and Article 15 (prohibition of discrimination).


Q10. Read the following statements about a constitution. Give reasons why each of these is true or not true.
(a) The authority of the rules of the constitution is the same as that of any other law.
(b) Constitution lays down how different organs of the government will be formed.
(c) Rights of citizens and limits on the power of the government are laid down in the constitution.
(d) A constitution is about institutions, not about values.
Ans:
(a) Not True

The constitution is the supreme law of the land, meaning it holds higher authority than ordinary laws. All other laws must comply with the constitution. If a law contradicts the constitution, it can be declared unconstitutional and invalid by the courts. The constitution provides the framework for governance, outlines the rights of citizens, and sets limits on the powers of the government, making it superior to regular laws.

(b) True

The constitution lays down the framework for government formation. It defines in detail the composition and functions of the different organs of government, namely the executive, the judiciary and the legislature.

(c) True

The constitution lays down the fundamental rights of every citizen of the country. These rights are enforceable in a court of law. By defining the structure and functions of the different organs of government and by making them independent in their own spheres, yet keeping each organ under check by the other organs, the constitution ensures that there are proper limits to the powers exercised by the government.

(d) Not True

A constitution lays down the composition and functions of the different institutions of government, thereby providing the framework and laws for the working of these institutions. However, providing such laws and frameworks, it is strongly guided by democratic principles and values. Hence, a constitution is as much about values as it is about the institutions based on these values.

1. What is Democracy? Why Democracy? – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Here is some information about the four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries? Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these.
(a) Country A: People who do not accept the country’s official religion do not have a right to vote.
(b) Country B: The same party has been winning elections for the last twenty years.
(c) Country C: The Ruling party has lost in the last three elections.
(d) Country D: There is no independent election commission.
Ans:
(a) Country A: Undemocratic

This country is undemocratic because it does not grant equal voting rights to all its citizens. In a true democracy, every citizen, regardless of their religion, should have the right to vote.

(b) Country B: Not sure

We cannot tell if this country is democratic or not just from the information given. A party winning elections for twenty years might mean it’s popular and doing a good job. But if the party is staying in power through corruption or by cheating in elections, then it is not democratic.

(c) Country C: Democratic

This country is democratic because the ruling party has lost the last three elections. This shows that there are free and fair elections and that power is transferred peacefully, which are key features of a democratic system.

(d) Country D: Undemocratic

This country is undemocratic because it doesn’t have an independent election commission. This can lead to election fraud or manipulation by the ruling party, which weakens the democratic process.

Features of Democracy

Q2. Here is some information about four countries. Based on this information, how would you classify each of these countries. Write ‘democratic’, ‘undemocratic’ or ‘not sure’ against each of these. 
(a) Country P: The parliament cannot pass a law about the army without the consent of the Chief of Army.
(b) Country Q: The parliament cannot pass a law reducing the powers of the judiciary.
(c) Country R: The country’s leaders cannot sign any treaty with another country without taking permission from its neighbouring country
(d) Country S: All the major economic decisions about the country are taken by officials of the central bank which the ministers cannot change.
Ans:
(a) Country P: Undemocratic

Country P is considered undemocratic because, in a democratic system, the military should be controlled by civilians and not have the power to influence laws. In this country, the Chief of Army has too much power, which can weaken the democratic process.

(b) Country Q: Democratic

Country Q is classified as democratic because the judiciary is independent and its powers cannot be limited by the parliament. This independence ensures checks and balances among the different branches of government.

(c) Country R: Undemocratic

Country R is considered undemocratic because, in a democracy, leaders should be able to make important decisions for their country, like signing treaties with other nations. If they need permission from a neighboring country, it takes away their freedom to decide.

(d) Country S: Undemocratic

Country S is seen as undemocratic because, in a democracy, important economic choices should be made by elected leaders who answer to the public. If unelected central bank officials make these decisions, they might not represent what the people want.


Q3. Which of these is not a good argument in favour of democracy? Why?
(a) People feel free and equal in a democracy.
(b) Democracies resolve conflict in a better way than others.
(c) Democratic government is more accountable to the people.
(d) Democracies are more prosperous than others.
Ans: (d)

Democracies are more prosperous than others is not a good argument in favour of democracy because some democratic countries, like Sri Lanka and India, aren’t very prosperous. In contrast, countries like China and Saudi Arabia, which have communist and monarchy systems, are more successful. A country’s prosperity depends more on good government policies and natural resources than on its type of government. Democracy doesn’t ensure prosperity.


Q4. Each of these statements contains a democratic and an undemocratic element. Write out the two separately for each statement.
(a) A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament in order to conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation (WTO).
(b) The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency where large-scale rigging was reported.
(c) Women’s representation in the parliament has barely reached 10 per cent. This led women’s organisations to demand one-third seats for women.
Ans:
(a) Democratic element – A minister said that some laws have to be passed by the parliament.
Undemocratic element – Conform to the regulations decided by the World Trade Organisation (WTO).

(b) Democratic element – The Election Commission ordered re-polling in a constituency.
Undemocratic element – Large-scale rigging was reported.

(c) Democratic element – Women’s organisations to demand one-third of seats for women.
Undemocratic element – Women’s representation in parliament has barely reached 10 per cent.

Q5. Which of these is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country?
(a) Opposition parties can draw attention to hunger and starvation.
(b) Free press can report suffering from famine in different parts of the country.
(c) Government fears its defeat in the next elections.
(d) People are free to believe in and practise any religion. 
Ans: (d) People are free to believe in and practice any religion.

Option ‘d’ is not a valid reason for arguing that there is a lesser possibility of famine in a democratic country. This is because practising religion has nothing to do with preventing famine.

Q6. There are 40 villages in a district where the government has made no provision for drinking water. These villagers met and considered many methods of forcing the government to respond to their need. Which of these is not a democratic method?
(a) Filing a case in the courts claiming that water is part of right to life.
(b) Boycotting the next elections to give a message to all parties.
(c) Organising public meetings against government’s policies. 
(d) Paying money to government officials to get water. 
Ans: (d) Paying money to government officials to get water.

Option ‘d’, which advocates paying the government officials money, is an undemocratic method.


Q7. Write a response to the following arguments against democracy:
(a) Army is the most disciplined and corruption-free organisation in the country. Therefore army should rule the country.
(b) Rule of the majority means the rule of ignorant people. What we need is the rule of the wise, even if they are in small numbers.
(c) If we want religious leaders to guide us in spiritual matters, why not invite them to guide us in politics as well. The country should be ruled by religious leaders.
Ans: 
(a) 

  • If the army is allowed to rule the country, it will lead to the concentration of all powers in the army. Power should be divided among the three organs of the government i.e., legislature, executive and judiciary. 
  • The concentration of all powers with the army will lead to a dictatorship.
    Example: Pinochet’s rule in Chile.

(b) 

  • Democracy is a form of government where all adults have the right to vote. 
  • Restricting people to rule and govern only by a minority having ‘wise people’ would harm representational democracy.

(c) 

  • Politics and religion are two different fields. Religion takes us towards spirituality by teaching us what is good or bad. 
  • The combination of religion and politics leads to communalism or communal politics which is very dangerous.

Q8. Are the following statements in keeping with democracy as a value? Why?
(a) Father to daughter: I don’t want to hear your opinion about your marriage. In our family children marry where the parents tell them to.
(b) Teacher to student: Don’t disturb my concentration by asking me questions in the classroom.
(c) Employee to the officer: Our working hours must be reduced according to the law.
Ans:
(a) This statement is undemocratic because it goes against the democratic values of individual freedom and the right to express opinions. In a democracy, everyone has the right to take part in decisions that affect their lives, including personal matters like marriage. By not allowing his daughter to share her thoughts on her own marriage, the father is denying her this right, which is undemocratic.
(b) This statement is undemocratic because it goes against the value of open conversation and sharing ideas. In a learning environment, students should be encouraged to ask questions and discuss topics, as this helps them think critically, which is important in a democracy. By not allowing questions, the teacher is stopping open conversation.
(c) This statement is democratic because it supports democratic values. The employee is claiming their right to fair working conditions, which is a basic right in a democracy. By asking for the law to be followed, they are taking part in a democratic process and respecting the rule of law, which is important in a democracy.

Q9. Consider the following facts about a country and decide if you would call it a democracy. Give reasons to support your decision.
(a) All the citizens of the country have right to vote. Elections are held regularly
(b) The country took loan from international agencies. One of the conditions for giving loan was that the government would reduce its expenses on education and health.
(c) People speak more than seven languages but education is available only in one language, the language spoken by 52 percent people of that country.
(d) Several organisations have given a call for peaceful demonstrations and nation wide strikes in the country to oppose these policies. Government has arrested these leaders.
(e) The government owns the radio and television in the country. All the newspapers have to get permission from the government to publish any news about government’s policies and protests.
Ans:
(a) From this statement, we can understand that it is a democratic country where citizens are allowed to vote and choose their government.
(b) While taking a loan from international agencies, the country is compromising on the welfare of the people by reducing their expenditure on education and health, which is totally undemocratic.
(c) The provision of making education accessible in only one language is undemocratic. It is the fundamental right for people to have an education, and it is the government’s duty to provide them with the language they know.
(d) The right to assemble and peacefully demonstrate is a basic right of an individual. Hence, arresting the protestors is undemocratic.
(e) When the government owns the radio and television, it is preventing people from availing their right to a free press. It is undemocratic.

Q10. In 2004 a report published in USA pointed to the increasing inequalities in that country. Inequalities in income reflected in the participation of people in democracy. It also shaped their abilities to influence the decisions taken by the government. The report highlighted that:

  • If an average Black family earns $ 100 then the income of average White family is $ 162. A White family has twelve times more wealth than the average Black family.
  • In a President’s election, ‘nearly 9 out of 10 individuals in families with income over $ 75,000 have voted. These people are in the top 20% of the population in terms of their income. On the other hand, only 5 people out of 10 from families with income less than $ 15,000 have voted. They are in the bottom 20% of the population in terms of their income.
  • About 95% of the contribution to the political parties comes from the rich. This gives the opportunity to express their opinions and concerns, which is not available to most citizens.
  • As poor sections participate less in politics, the government does not listen to their concerns – coming out of poverty, getting the job, education, health care and housing for them. Politicians hear most regularly about the concerns of business persons and the rich.

Write an essay on ‘Democracy and Poverty’ using the information given in this report but using examples from India.
Ans:

  • Poverty and Democracy highlight an important, complicated relationship between the two. It points out how fundamental rights of democracy are given to the elite section, but the poor are still being deprived of them.
  • Issues like unfair business practices and unequal opportunities have widened the gap between the rich and poor. The rich keep getting richer, while the poor struggle more. Wealthy people are influencing government decisions, which creates an imbalance in power and goes against the core ideas of democracy.
  • Poverty has become a serious threat, with political parties relying on money from the wealthy. As a result, these parties often ignore the needs of the poor. The glamorous growth of industries and tall buildings cannot hide the poor living conditions in many areas.
  • During the 2014 and 2019 Indian elections, big donations from corporations and wealthy individuals influenced campaigns and political agendas. Democracy is built on political equality, where the poorest and least educated have the same value as the rich and educated. 
  • However, when the system favors the wealthy, true democracy cannot survive for long, leading to conflicts in the fight to improve it.

06. Population – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Migrations change the number, distribution and composition of the population in
(a) the area of departure 
(b) the area of arrival 
(c) both the area of departure and arrival 
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) both the area of departure and arrival

Migrations affect both the area from which people leave (the area of departure) and the area where they move to (the area of arrival). In the area of departure, migration can lead to a decrease in population size and changes in the local demographic composition. In the area of arrival, migration can lead to an increase in population size and potentially alter the demographic makeup.

(ii) A large proportion of children in a population is a result of
(a) high birth rates
(b) high life expectancies
(c) high death rates
(d) more married couples
Ans: (a) high birth rates

A large proportion of children in a population typically results from high birth rates. High birth rates mean that more children are being born relative to the overall population, which increases the proportion of children.

(iii) The magnitude of population growth refers to:
(a) the total population of an area
(b) the number of persons added each year
(c) the rate at which the population increases
(d) the number of females per thousand males
Ans: (b) the number of persons added each year

The magnitude of population growth refers to the rate at which the population increases, which measures how quickly the number of people is growing over a period of time.

(iv) According to the Census, a “literate” person is one who
(a) can read and write his/her name
(b) can read and write any language
(c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding
(d) knows the 3 ‘R’s (reading, writing, arithmetic)
Ans: (c) is 7 years old and can read and write any language with understanding

According to the Census, a person is “literate” if they are at least 7 years old and can read and write in any language with understanding. This definition focuses on both the ability to read and write and the understand the written material.

Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) Why is the rate of population growth in India declining since 1981?

Ans: The rate of population growth in India has been declining since 1981, primarily due to a decrease in birth rates. This gradual decline can be attributed to various factors, including the implementation of effective family planning and birth control measures, increased awareness about the importance of smaller families, improvements in healthcare, and an overall shift in societal attitudes towards reproduction. These concerted efforts have played a significant role in reducing the rate of population growth in the country.


(ii) Discuss the major components of population growth.
Ans: The major components of population growth are:

  • Birth rate: It is the number of live births per thousand persons in a year. It is a major component of growth because in India, birth rates have always been higher than the death rates.
  • Death rate: It is the number of deaths per thousand persons in a year. The main cause of the rate of growth of the Indian population has been the rapid decline in the death rate.
  • Migration: Migration is the movement of people across regions and territories. Migration can be internal (within the country) or international (between countries).
  • The difference between birth rate and death rate accounts for a natural increase in population.
  • Immigration refers to the inflow of people into a region from other regions.


(iii) Define age structure, death rate and birth rate.
Ans: 

  • Age structure, or age distribution, shows how many people are in different age groups within a population. It helps us understand the number of children, working-age adults, and elderly people in that group.
  • Birth rate, often expressed as the crude birth rate, is the number of live births in a population during a specific time, usually a year. It is measured per 1,000 people, making it easy to compare population growth or decline across regions or time periods.
  • Death rate, or crude death rate, is the number of deaths in a population during a specific time, usually measured per 1,000 people. It helps track mortality trends, and when combined with the birth rate, shows how the population grows or shrinks, without considering migration.


(iv) How is migration a determinant factor of population change?
Ans:

  • Migration refers to the process of people moving from one region or territory to another.
  • This movement results in a shift in the population and demographics of both the departure and arrival areas.
  • Migration plays a significant role in population change, affecting the size and composition of populations.
  • Migration can be categorised into two primary types: internal and international.
  • Internal migration occurs within a country’s borders.
  • In contrast, international migration involves crossing national boundaries.


Q3. Distinguish between population growth and population change.
Ans: 


Q4. What is the relation between occupational structure and development?
Ans:

  • The distribution of the population according to different types of occupations is referred to as the occupational structure.
  • The occupational structure is classified into primary, secondary, and tertiary sectors.
  • The primary activities include agriculture, fishing, forestry, and mining.
  • The secondary activities include building and construction work.
  • The tertiary activities cover transport, communication, commerce, and administration.
  • The proportion of people engaged in different activities varies between developed and developing countries.
  • Developed nations have a high proportion of people in secondary and tertiary activities.
  • Developing countries have a higher proportion of the workforce engaged in primary activities.
  • In India, there has been a shift in favour of the secondary and tertiary sectors due to growing industrialisation and urbanisation.


Q5. What are the advantages of having a healthy population?
Ans: The advantages of having a healthy population are:

  • A healthy individual is much more efficient and productive than an unhealthy individual.
  • He or she can realise his or her potential and play an important role in social and national development.
  • Absenteeism is low when the workers are healthy.


Q6. What are the significant features of the National Population Policy 2000?
Ans: The significant features of the National Population Policy 2000 are as follows:

  • Imparting free and compulsory school education up to 14 years of age.
  • Reducing the infant mortality rate to below 30 per 1000 live births.
  • Achieving universal immunisation of children against all vaccine-preventable diseases.
  • Promoting delayed marriage and childbearing.
  • Making family welfare a people-centred programme.
  • Providing nutritional services and food supplements to adolescents.
  • Protecting adolescents from unwanted pregnancies and sexually transmitted diseases, and educating them about the risks of unprotected sex.
  • Making contraceptive services accessible and affordable.

05. Natural Vegetation and Wildlife – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below:

(i) To which one of the following types of vegetation does rubber belong to?
(a) Tundra 
(b) Tidal
(c) Himalayan
(d) Tropical Evergreen
Ans: (d) Tropical Evergreen

Rubber trees are typically found in tropical evergreen forests. These forests are characterized by high rainfall and consistent temperatures throughout the year, which are ideal conditions for rubber cultivation.

(ii) Cinchona trees are found in the areas of rainfall more than
(a) 100 cm 
(b) 50 cm
(c) 70 cm
(d) less than 50 cm
Ans: (a) 100 cm

Cinchona trees, which are used for extracting quinine, thrive in areas with rainfall of more than 100 cm annually. They are typically found in tropical regions with abundant rainfall.

(iii) In which of the following state is the Simlipal bio-reserve located?
(a) Punjab 
(b) Delhi 
(c) Odisha 
(d) West Bengal
Ans: (c) Odisha

The Simlipal Biosphere Reserve is located in the state of Odisha. It is known for its rich biodiversity and is an important protected area in eastern India.

(iv) Which one of the following bio-reserves of India is not included in the world network of bioreserve?
(a) Manas 
(b) Nilgiri
(c) Gulf of Mannar
(d) Panna
Ans: (d) Panna

The Panna Biosphere Reserve is not included in the World Network of Biosphere Reserves. However, the Nilgiri, Gulf of Mannar, and Manas are part of this network.

Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is a bio-reserve? Give two examples.
Ans: Bio-reserves are the large areas where vegetation, wildlife and the environment are conserved to preserve the biological diversity. In totality, there are 18 bio-reserves in India. Examples include Sunderbans Bio-reserve in West Bengal and Nanda Devi Bio-reserve in Uttaranchal.


(ii) Name two animals having habitat in tropical and montane type of vegetation.
Ans: The common animals found in the tropical forests are elephants and monkeys and the common animals found in the montane forests are Kashmir stag and spotted deer.

Q3. Distinguish between
(i) Flora and Fauna
Ans: The word ‘flora’ is used to denote plants of a particular region or period and the species of animals are referred to as ‘fauna’.

Flora and Fauna: Comparison

(ii) Tropical Evergreen and Deciduous Forests
Ans: Tropical Evergreen Forests:

  • Rainfall is very heavy, over 200 cm of rain.
  • Forests appear green all year round as the trees shed their leaves at different times of the year.
  • Vegetation is luxuriant, multilayered, and of great variety.
  • Commercially important trees are ebony, mahogany, rosewood, rubber, and cinchona.

Deciduous Forests:

  • They are also known as Monsoon Forests.
  • These are found where the rainfall is between 70 cm – 200 cm.
  • Trees shed their leaves for about 6-8 weeks in the dry summer.
  • These forests are divided into Dry and Wet Deciduous Forests.

Q4. Name different types of vegetation found in India and describe the vegetation of high altitudes.
Ans: The different types of vegetation found in India are:

  • Tropical Evergreen Forests
  • Tropical Deciduous Forests
  • Tropical Thorn Forests and Scrubs
  • Mangrove Forests

In mountainous areas, the decrease in temperature with increasing altitude leads to the corresponding change in natural vegetation:

  • The foothills of the Himalayas, Shiwaliks, have tropical moist deciduous flora. Sal and bamboo are important trees.
  • They are followed by the wet hill forests. They lie between about 1,000 to 2,000 m. Important trees are oak, chestnut, ash, birch, etc.
  • Between 1,500 and 3,300 m above sea level, there occur the well-known coniferous forests. Pine, deodar, silver fir, spruce, etc., are some dominant trees.
  • Above the coniferous forests lie the alpine forests at an altitude of about 3,600 m. Important trees are silver fir, pine, birch, etc. Alpine vegetation is found at places over 3,600 m in height. The trees common to these are silver fir, junipers, pines, and birches. 

Q5. Quite a few species of plants and animals are endangered in India. Why?
Ans: Many plants and animals are endangered in India due to a number of reasons:

  • Hunting of animals for commercial purposes.
  • Pollution due to chemical and industrial waste, and acid deposits.
  • Introduction of alien species.
  • Reckless cutting of the forests to bring land under cultivation and inhabitation.

As a result of these activities about 1300 plant species are endangered and 20 plant species have become extinct. Quite a few animal species are also endangered.

Q6. Why has India a rich heritage of flora and fauna?
Ans: India has a rich heritage of flora and fauna due to the following reasons:

  • India is a diverse country with various relief features (i.e. mountains, plateaus, plains, etc.) These regions consist of different types of vegetation that support different types of animals.
  • There is the availability of different types of soil which facilitates a base for different types of vegetation.
  • There is variation in the climatic conditions of India (Temperature, humidity, etc.). It differs from north to south and east to west. Thus, supporting a large variety of flora and fauna.
  • India has a monsoon type of climate where rainfall varies from 20 cm to 300 cm distributed throughout the year, supporting a large amount of flora and fauna.
  • Variation in the duration of sunlight at different places due to differences in latitude and altitude.

Map Skills

Q. On an outline map of India, label the following.
(i) Areas of Evergreen Forests 
(ii) Areas of Dry Deciduous Forests 
(iii) Two national parks each in Northern, Southern, Eastern and Western parts of the Country
Ans: The outline of India’s map is given below with the labelling of the above-mentioned areas.

04. Climate – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the correct answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) Which one of the following places receives the highest rainfall in the world?
(a) Silchar 
(b) Mawsynram 
(c) Cherrapunji 
(d) Guwahati
Ans: (b) Mawsynram

Mawsynram, located in the state of Meghalaya, India, is known for receiving the highest rainfall in the world.


(ii) The wind blowing in the northern plains in summers is known as:
(a) Kaal Baisakhi 
(b) Loo 
(c) Trade Winds 
(d) None of the above
Ans: (b) Loo

The Loo is a hot, dry wind blowing across the northern plains of India during the summer months

(iii) Monsoon arrives in India approximately in:
(a) Early May
(b) Early July
(c) Early June
(d) Early August
Ans: (c) Early June

Monsoon generally arrives in India around early June, bringing much-needed rain to various parts of the country.

(iv) Which one of the following characterises the cold-weather season in India?
(a) Warm days and warm nights
(b) Warm days and cold nights
(c) Cool days and cold nights
(d) Cold days and warm nights
Ans: (b) Warm days and cold nights

The cold-weather season is characterized by warm days and cold nights, as daytime temperatures are more comfortable compared to the significantly colder nighttime temperatures.


Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What are the controls affecting the climate of India?
Ans: The climate of India is influenced by six main factors:

  • Latitude: The Tropic of Cancer runs through India, dividing it into tropical and subtropical regions. This affects the overall climate.
  • Altitude: The northern mountains, averaging 6,000 meters, block cold winds from Central Asia, resulting in milder winters.
  • Pressure and Winds: Weather patterns are shaped by atmospheric pressure, surface winds, and upper air circulation, including cyclonic disturbances.
  • Distance from the Sea: Coastal areas experience moderated climates, while areas further inland face extreme temperatures
  • Ocean Currents: These currents, along with onshore winds, significantly impact coastal climates, warming or cooling them based on the current’s temperature.
  • Relief Features: Mountains can block winds and create rain shadows, leading to dry areas on the leeward side.

(ii) Why does India have a monsoon type of climate?
Ans: India has a monsoon type of climate due to the influence of monsoon winds, which primarily operate between 20° North and 20° South.

  • The climate is characterised by distinct seasonal changes.
  • It features both tropical and subtropical characteristics.
  • Mountain ranges, like the Himalayas, block cold winds from Central Asia, resulting in milder winters.
  • Weather patterns are influenced by: Pressure and surface winds, Upper air circulation, Western cyclonic disturbances and tropical cyclones.

(iii) Which part of India does experience the highest diurnal range of temperature and why?
Ans:  The Indian desert, located in the north-western part of India, experiences the highest diurnal range of temperature. This is due to the following reasons:

  • The sand in the desert heats up quickly during the day.
  • At night, the sand cools down rapidly.
  • For example, daytime temperatures can reach up to 50°C, while nighttime temperatures may drop to around 15°C.

(iv) Which winds account for rainfall along the Malabar Coast?
Ans: Malabar Coast gets rains from South-West Monsoon Winds.

(v) Define monsoons. What do you understand by “break” in monsoon?
Ans:  Monsoons are a significant wind system that affects large climatic areas, reversing direction with the seasons. They are characterized by:

  • Seasonal Changes: Monsoons bring distinct wet and dry periods, particularly during the rainy season.
  • Breaks in Rainfall: The term “break” refers to intervals of dry weather amidst the rainy season, where rainfall occurs only for a few days at a time.
  • Monsoon Trough Movement: The position of the monsoon trough influences rainfall distribution. When it is over the plains, rainfall is abundant; when it shifts towards the Himalayas, dry spells occur in the plains.
  • Impact on Regions: Heavy rains can lead to significant downpours in mountainous areas, while plains may experience prolonged dry periods.

(vi) Why is the monsoon considered a unifying bond?
Ans: The monsoon is considered a unifying bond because:

  • The monsoon of India is highly influenced by its flora and fauna.
  • These monsoon winds provide the water for agricultural activities.
  • Most of the festivals in India that are related to the agricultural cycle may be known by different names in different parts of the country, but the monsoon decides their celebration.
  • The river valleys which carry this water also unite as a single river valley unit.

Q3. Why does the rainfall decrease from the east to the west in Northern India?
Ans: The rainfall decreases from the east to the west in Northern India because of the following reason:

  • The low-pressure area in India lies in the northwest, towards which the South West Monsoon winds are attracted.
  • After depositing moisture in south India, the Bay of Bengal branch of the South West Monsoons strikes the Khasi-Garo Hills.
  • After causing heavy rainfall on the windward slopes, these winds turn westwards because of the presence of the lofty Himalayas. 
  • These winds then keep depositing rainfall, they go up the Ganga Valley towards the low-pressure area. 


Q4. Give reasons as to why.

(i) Seasonal reversal of wind direction takes place over the Indian subcontinent?
Ans: Seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent takes place due to pressure differential. El Nino has major role to play in the seasonal reversal of wind direction over the Indian subcontinent.


(ii) The bulk of rainfall in India is concentrated over a few months.
Ans: The monsoon begins from the first week of June and advances quite rapidly to cover almost the whole country by mid-July. Hence, the bulk of rainfall in India concentrated over the months of a few months; mainly June to August.


(iii) The Tamil Nadu coast receives winter rainfall.
Ans: The Tami Nadu coast receives winter rainfall because of movement of low-pressure conditions to the Bay of Bengal.


(iv) The delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.
Ans: The Bay of Bengal is the centre of various pressure changes and hence there is always a chance of development of cyclone. Due to this, the delta region of the eastern coast is frequently struck by cyclones.

(v) Parts of Rajasthan, Gujarat and the leeward side of the Western Ghats are drought-prone.
Ans: Mountains play an important role in the distribution of rainfall in India. The moisture-laden winds (South West Monsoons) cause heavy rain on the windward slopes of the Western Ghats and Khasi-Garo hills. When winds cross over mountains, they lose most of their moisture on the windward side (the side facing the wind), resulting in less rainfall on the leeward side (the side sheltered from the wind). This dry area on the leeward side, which gets very little rain, is often drought-prone. Rajasthan is an example of such a region; it lies in the rain shadow of the Aravalli Hills, meaning it receives significantly less rainfall compared to areas on the windward side of the hills.


Q5. Describe the regional variations in the climatic conditions of India with the help of suitable examples.
Ans: There is regional variation in the climatic conditions of India. Temperature and Precipitation vary from place to place and season to season. 

  • During the summer season, the temperature rises up to 50°C in parts of Rajasthan, whereas it may be around 20°C in Pahalgam in Kashmir.
  • During the winter season at night, the temperature in Drass in Kashmir may be minus 45°C, whereas in Thiruvananthapuram in Kerala may have a temperature of 20°C.
  • In the Andaman Islands, the difference between the temperatures of day and night may be hardly 7° – 8°C.
  • Most parts of India receive rainfall from June – September, whereas some parts like the Tamil Nadu coast get a large portion of its rain during October and November.


Q6. Give an account of weather conditions and characteristics of the cold season.
Ans:  The cold weather season in northern India has several distinct features:

  • Duration: It starts in mid-November and lasts until February.
  • Coldest Months: December and January are the coldest.
  • Temperature: In the northern plains, temperatures range from 10°C to 15°C, while in Chennai, it is warmer at 24°C to 25°C.
  • Day and Night: Days are generally warm, but nights can be quite cold.
  • Winter Rainfall: Known locally as mahawat, this rainfall is crucial for the rabi crop, despite being small in quantity.


Q7. Give the characteristics and effects of the monsoon rainfall in India.
Ans: Characteristics of the monsoon rainfall in India:

  • The duration of the monsoon varies from 100 to 120 days from early June to mid-September.
  • The normal rainfall suddenly increases, around the time of its arrival and continues regularly for several days. This is called the ‘burst’ of the monsoon.
  • The monsoon arrives at the southern tip of the Indian Peninsular generally by the first week of June.

Effects of the monsoon rainfall in India:

  • Agriculture in India largely depends on Indian monsoons for water. Late, Low, or excessive rains have a negative impact on crops.
  • Due to the uneven distribution of rainfall across the country, there are few places that are drought-prone and few are flood-affected.
  • The monsoon provides India with a diverse climatic pattern. Hence, despite the presence of great regional variations, it has a unifying influence on the country and its people.


Map Skills

Q. On an outline map of India, show the following.
(i) Areas receiving rainfall over 400 cm.
(ii) Areas receiving less than 20 cm of rainfall.
(iii) The direction of the southwest monsoon over India.
Ans:

(i) The Western Coast and North Eastern India receive rainfall over 400 cm. Mawsynram and Cherrapunji in Meghalaya are known for receiving maximum rainfall in the world. The Andaman Islands and Lakshadweep Islands are also known to receive annual rainfall above 400 cm.
(ii) The parts of Northern Kashmir, Western Rajasthan, Deccan Plateau and Punjab are known to be the areas that receive scanty rainfall that is less than 20 cm. In the Northern part of India, rainfall decreases toward the west, while in the peninsular region except for Tamil Nadu, the rainfall decreases eastwards.
(iii) In early June, a low-pressure area over northern India attracts southeast trade winds from the southern hemisphere. These winds blow southwesterly into India, bringing moisture and abundant rainfall. Moving at about 30 km per hour, the southwest monsoon signals the start of the rainy season, transforming the weather across the country.

03. Drainage – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) In which of the following states is the Wular Lake located?

(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Jammu and Kashmir
Ans: (d) Jammu and Kashmir state.

Wular lake is the largest freshwater lake in India and is situated in the Bandipora district of Jammu and Kashmir. The lake is surrounded by beautiful mountains and serves as an important habitat for various species of migratory birds.

Wular Lake

(ii) The river Narmada has its source at
(a) Satpura
(b) Brahmagiri
(c) Amarkantak
(d) Slopes of the Western Ghats
Ans: (c) Amarkantak

Amarkantak is a pilgrimage site and a hill station located at the meeting point of the Vindhya and Satpura mountain ranges. Narmada is one of the longest rivers in India, spanning a length of approximately 1,312 kilometers. It is often referred to as the “lifeline of Madhya Pradesh” and is considered sacred by Hindus.

(iii) Which one of the following lakes is a salt water lake?
(a) Sambhar
(b) Dal 
(c) Wular  
(d) Gobind Sagar
Ans: (a) Sambhar

Sambhar Lake, located in the state of Rajasthan, India, is a saltwater lake. It is the largest inland saltwater lake in India and serves as a major source of salt production in the country. 

(iv) Which one of the following is the longest river of the Peninsular India?
(a) Narmada
(b) Krishna
(c) Godavari
(d) Mahanadi
Ans: (c) Godavari

The Godavari River originates in the Western Ghats of Maharashtra and flows through the states of Maharashtra, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and eventually empties into the Bay of Bengal. The river stretches for about 1,465 kilometers (910 miles) in length, making it the longest river in Peninsular India. 

(v) Which one amongst the following rivers flows through a rift valley?
(a) Mahanadi
(b) Tungabhadra
(c) Krishna
(d) Tapi
Ans: (d) Tapi

A rift valley is a long, narrow valley that is formed by the sinking and separation of the Earth’s crust. The Tapi River originates in the Betul district of Madhya Pradesh and flows through Maharashtra and Gujarat before draining into the Arabian Sea.


Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is meant by a water divide? Give an example.
Ans: A water divide is an elevated area, like a mountain or upland, that separates two drainage basins. This means that water on either side flows into different rivers or lakes. For example, the water divide between the Indus and Ganga river systems is located at Ambala.


(ii) Which is the largest river basin in India?
Ans: The Ganga River basin is the largest in India. Key details include:

  • It spans over 2,500 km.
  • It covers several states, including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal.


(iii) Where do the rivers Indus and Ganga have their origin?
Ans: The Indus originates in Tibet, near Mansarovar Lake. The Ganga River originates at the Gangotri Glacier, Uttarakhand on the southern slopes of the Himalayas.

(iv) Name the two headstreams of the Ganga. Where do they meet to form the Ganga?
Ans: The two headstreams of the Ganga are the Bhagirathi and the Alaknanda. They meet to form the Ganga at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand.


(v) Why does the Brahmaputra in its Tibetan part have less silt, despite a longer course?
Ans: The Brahmaputra River in its Tibetan region has a smaller volume of water and less silt due to the cold and dry climate. As the river flows into Arunachal Pradesh, India, it encounters high levels of rainfall and increased water and silt content.


(vi) Which two Peninsular rivers flow through trough?
Ans: The Narmada and the Tapi are the two peninsular rivers that flow through the trough.


(vii) State some economic benefits of rivers and lakes.
Ans: 

Economic benefits of rivers:

  • Rivers provide water, which is a basic natural resource for various human activities.
  • They are used for irrigation, navigation and generation of hydroelectric power.
  • They have a moderating influence on the climate of the surroundings and maintain the aquatic ecosystem.

Economic benefits of lakes:

  • They help to regulate the flow of a river.
  • They prevent flooding at times of heavy rainfall and during the dry season, they help to maintain an even flow of water.
  • They also have a moderating influence on the surrounding climatic conditions and maintain the aquatic ecosystem.
  • They enhance natural beauty and recreational activities by encouraging tourism.
  • Lakes are also used for the generation of hydroelectricity.


Q3. Below are given names of a few lakes of India. Group them under two categories − natural and created by human beings.
(a) Wular
(b) Dal
(c) Nainital
(d) Bhimtal
(e) Gobind Sagar
(f) Loktak
(g) Barapani
(h) Chilika
(i) Sambhar
(j) Rana Pratap Sagar
(k) Nizam Sagar
(l) Pulicat
(m) Nagarjuna Sagar
(n) Hirakund
Ans: Natural Lakes
(a) Wular
(b) Dal
(c) Nainital
(d) Bhimtal
(f) Loktak
(g) Barapani
(h) Chilika
(i) Sambhar
(l) Pulicat
Lakes created by human beings
(e) Gobind Sagar
(j) Rana Pratap Sagar
(k) Nizam Sagar
(m) Nagarjuna Sagar
(n) Hirakund

Q4. Discuss the significant difference between the Himalayan and the Peninsular rivers.
Ans: 

Q5. Compare the east-flowing and the west-flowing rivers of the Peninsular Plateau.
Ans:

Q6. Why are rivers important for the country’s economy?
Ans: Rivers play a vital role in a country’s economy for several reasons:

  • They are a key source of freshwater, essential for the survival of humans and wildlife.
  • River water is used for domestic, industrial, and agricultural purposes.
  • They facilitate trade and commerce by enabling the transport of goods.
  • Rivers are potential sources of energy, particularly for hydroelectric power.
  • They support navigation and transport, which are crucial for commercial activities.
  • Rivers provide fishing opportunities and enhance scenic beauty, making them attractive for tourism.

Map skills

Q. (i) On the outline map of India mark and label the following rivers: Ganga, Satluj, Damodar, Krishna, Narmada, Tapi, Mahanadi, and the Brahmaputra.
(ii) On an outline map of India mark and label the following lakes: Chilika, Sambhar, Wular, Pulicat, Kolleru 
Ans: 

A water divide is an elevated area, like a mountain or upland, that separates two drainage basins. This means that water on either side flows into different rivers or lakes. For example, the water divide between the Indus and Ganga river systems is located at Ambala.

02. Physical Features of India – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.

(i) A landmass bounded by the sea on three sides is referred to as

(a) Coast
(b) Island
(c) Peninsula
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Peninsula

Peninsulas are typically surrounded by water on three sides, with the fourth side connected to a larger landmass. They can vary in size and shape. Some famous examples of peninsulas include the Iberian Peninsula (Spain and Portugal), the Italian Peninsula, and the Malay Peninsula.

A Peninsula

(ii) Mountain ranges in the eastern part of India forming its boundary with Myanmar are collectively called
(a) Himachal
(b) Uttarakhand
(c) Purvachal
(d) None of the above
Ans: (c) Purvachal

Purvachal is home to several mountain ranges, including the Patkai, Naga Hills, and Manipur Hills. These mountain ranges play a significant role in shaping the topography of the region and act as a natural boundary between India and Myanmar.

(iii) The western coastal strip, south of Goa is referred to as
(a) Coromandel
(b) Konkan
(c) Kannad
(d) Northern Circar
Ans: (c) Kannad

The Kannad Plain, also known as the Karnataka Coastal Plain or Kanara Plain, is the central section of the Western Coastal Plains in India. It stretches from Goa in the north to Mangalore in the south, along the Arabian Sea coast.

(iv) The highest peak in the Eastern Ghats is
(a) Anai Mudi
(b) Kanchenjunga
(c) Mahendragiri
(d) Khasi
Ans: (c) Mahendragiri

Mahendragiri is located in the Paralakhemundi region of the Gajapati district in Odisha, India. It stands at an elevation of approximately 1,501 meters (4,925 feet) above sea level.

Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.

(i) What is the bhabar?
Ans: Bhabar is a narrow belt containing pebbles instead of silt along the banks of the upper Himalayan rivers from the Indus River to the Teesta River.

(ii) Name the three major divisions of the Himalayas from north to south.
Ans:
(a) The Greater Himalayas or Himadri (Inner Himalayas)
(b) Himachal or Lesser Himalayas (Middle Himalayas)
(c) The Shiwaliks (Outer Himalayas)

(iii) Which plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges?
Ans: The Malwa plateau lies between the Aravali and the Vindhyan ranges.

(iv) Name the island group of India having coral origin.
Ans: Lakshadweep islands are the island group having coral origin.

Q3. Distinguish between:

(i) Bhangar and Khadar
Ans: 

(ii) The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats
Ans:

Q4. Which are the major physiographic divisions of India? Contrast the relief of the Himalayan region with that of the Peninsular plateau.
Ans:
The major physiographic divisions of India are:
(i) The Himalayan Mountains
(ii) The Northern Plains
(iii) The Peninsular Plateau
(iv) The Indian Desert
(v) The Coastal Plains
(vi) The Islands

Q5. Give an account of the Northern Plains of India.
Ans:

  • The Northern Plains have been formed from the alluvium that the mountain rivers deposited here.
  • It led to the soil turning fertile on the surface for growing a rich harvest of various crops. This also resulted in the development of the Indus River Valley Civilisation.
  • The rich soil was further aided by a favourable climate and constant water supply from the rivers. Between the mouths of the Indus and the Ganga-Brahmaputra, the North Indian Plain covers a distance of 3200 km.
  • The North Indian Plains have the Indus River system in the west and the Ganga- Brahmaputra river system in the east.
  • The first includes Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas, and Satluj. The Indus flows into the Arabian Sea.
  • The second includes Ganga, its tributaries, and the Brahmaputra, which combine as Meghna as they drain into the Bay of Bengal.
  • They form the world’s largest and fastest-growing delta.
  • The difference in relief has led the North Indian Plains to be divided into four zones:
    (i) Bhabhar
    (ii) Tarai
    (iii) Bangar
    (iv) Khadar

Q6. Write short notes on the following.

(i) The Indian Desert

Ans:

  • The Indian desert lies to the west of the Aravali hills. It is an uneven sandy plain covered with sand dunes.
  • Barchans (crescent-shaped sand dunes) cover a larger part of the desert. Near the Indo-Pakistan border, longitudinal sand dunes are more common.
  • It has an arid climate with scarce vegetation and rainfall below 150 mm per year.
  • Rivers/streams appear only during the rainy season and soon afterwards disappear in the sand. They do not have enough water to reach the sea. River Luni is the only large river in this area.

(ii) The Central Highlands
Ans: 

  • Central Highlands is the Part of the Peninsular plateau, north of the Narmada River. These highlands are made up of hard igneous and metamorphic rocks.
  • It is bordered by the Aravali range to the northwest. The Central Highlands include the Malwa Plateau to the west and the Chotanagpur Plateau to the east.
  • The Central Highlands are wider in the west and become narrow eastwards. The eastward extension of the Malwa plateau is locally called Bundelkhand and Baghelkhand. The Damodar River, a southern tributary of the Ganga River, drains the Chotanagpur plateau in the east.

(iii) The Island groups of India
Ans: India has two groups of islands, namely:

  • Lakshadweep Islands
  • Andaman and Nicobar Islands group

Lakshadweep Islands

  • These island groups are located in the Arabian Sea, west of the Malabar coast of Kerala.
  • These islands are of coral origin formed by the deposition of dead remains.
  • The total area of the islands is 32 sq km. In Lakshadweep, the administrative headquarters is in Kavaratti Island.
  • They have a wide diversity of flora and fauna. 

Andaman and Nicobar Island

  • These islands are located in the Bay of Bengal and are the raised portion of the submerged mountain ranges projecting out of the seawater.
  • Large in size and are more numerous. Some of them are of volcanic origin.
    Example: Barren Island is the only active volcano.
  • These islands are of strategic importance as it lies very close to south-east Asia.
  • The capital city is Port Blair.

Map-Based Question

Q1. On an outline map of India show the following.
(a) Mountain and hill ranges — the Karakoram, the Zaskar, the Patkai Bum, the Jaintia, the Vindhya range, the Aravali and the Cardamom hills.
(b) Peaks— K2, Kanchenjunga, Nanga Parbat and Anai Mudi.
(c) Plateaus— Chotanagpur and Malwa
(d) The Indian Desert, Western Ghats, Lakshadweep Islands.
Ans:

01. India – Size and Location – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Choose the right answer from the four alternatives given below.
(i) The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through 
(a) Rajasthan 
(b) Odisha 
(c) Chhattisgarh 
(d) Tripura
Ans: (b) Odisha

The Tropic of Cancer is an imaginary line that is located at approximately 23.5° North of the Equator. In India, the Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 states, which are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.

The Tropic of Cancer through India

(ii) The easternmost longitude of India is
(a) 97025′ E
(b) 6807′ E
(c) 7706’ E
(d) 82032′ E
Ans: (a) 97°25′ E

The easternmost longitude of India is located at 97°25′ E in the state of Arunachal Pradesh, near the eastern border with Myanmar. This longitude marks the eastern boundary of India.


(iii) Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim have common frontiers with
(a) China
(b) Bhutan
(c) Nepal
(d) Myanmar
Ans: (c) Nepal

Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim all share their borders with Nepal. These Indian states have common frontiers with Nepal along its southern border.


(iv) If you intend to visit Kavaratti during your summer vacations, which one of the following Union Territories of India you will be going to
(a) Puducherry
(b) Lakshadweep
(c) Andaman and Nicobar
(d) Daman and Diu
Ans: (b) Lakshadweep

Kavaratti is the capital of the Union Territory of Lakshadweep, a group of islands located in the Arabian Sea. If you are visiting Kavaratti, you will be going to Lakshadweep.

(v) My friend hails from a country which does not share a land boundary with India. Identify the country.
(a) Bhutan
(b) Tajikistan
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal
Ans: (b) Tajikistan

Tajikistan does not share a land boundary with India. While Bhutan, Bangladesh, and Nepal all share borders with India, Tajikistan is separated from India by other countries like Afghanistan and China.

Q2. Answer the following questions briefly.
(i) Name the group of islands lying in the Arabian Sea.
(ii) Name the countries which are larger than India.
(iii) Which island group of India lies to its south-east?
(iv) Which island countries are our southern neighbours?
Ans: 
(i) Lakshadweep Islands lie in the Arabian Sea.
(ii) Russia, Canada, the USA, China, Brazil, and Australia are countries larger than India.
(iii) Andaman and Nicobar Islands lie to the southeast of India.

Location of Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(iv) Sri Lanka and the Maldives are the two island countries that are the southern neighbours of India.

Q3. The sun rises two hours earlier in Arunachal Pradesh as compared to Gujarat in the west, but the watches show the same time. How does this happen?
Ans: India uses a single time zone, Indian Standard Time, which is based on the 82°30′ E longitude. This longitude passes near Mirzapur in Uttar Pradesh and is used as the reference meridian for the entire country. The time difference across the width of India happens because India stretches across a vast longitudinal range from Gujarat to  Arunachal Pradesh. The entire country follows the same official time, IST, to maintain uniformity in schedules. 

Q4. The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance. Why?
Ans: The central location of India at the head of the Indian Ocean is considered of great significance due to the following reasons:

  • India has a strategic advantage due to the Trans Indian Ocean routes, which connect Europe to the West and East Asia.
  • It helps India to establish close contacts with Africa, West Asia, and Europe from the Western coast and with Southeast and East Asia from the Eastern coast.
  • The natural harbours and the vast coastline have benefited India in the process of trade and commerce with distant countries as well as its neighbours.
  • It has given India a distinct climate from the rest of the Asian Continent.

05. Forest Society and Colonialism – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Discuss how the changes in forest management in the colonial period affected the following groups of people:
(a) Shifting cultivators
(b) Nomadic and pastoralist communities
(c) Firms trading in timber/forest produce
(d) Plantation owners
(e) Kings/British officials engaged in shikar (hunting)
Ans:

(a) Shifting Cultivators: The colonial government banned shifting cultivation to protect forests, which forced tribal communities to leave their homes and find new jobs. Some of these communities protested the changes.

(b) Nomadic and Pastoralist Communities: In the Madras Presidency, many nomadic groups like the Korava, Karacha, and Yerukula lost their ways of life. Some were labelled as criminal tribes and had to work in factories and plantations.

(c) Firms Trading in Timber/Forest Produce: Before British rule, Adivasi communities could trade forest goods freely. The British restricted this and gave exclusive trading rights to European companies, which hurt local economies.

(d) Plantation Owners: Forest communities like Santhals, Oraons, and Gonds were recruited to work on tea plantations in Assam. They faced low wages, poor working conditions, and difficulties returning home.

(e) Kings/British Officials Engaged in Shikar: British hunting laws restricted locals from hunting, while British officials indulged in hunting for sport. This led to the extinction of some species. Conservationists later argued for wildlife protection.


Q2. What are the similarities between colonial management of the forests in Bastar and in Java?
Ans: The similarities between the colonial management of forests in Bastar and in Java include the following:

  • Restriction of traditional practices: Both in Bastar and Java, the colonial government imposed restrictions on local practices such as shifting cultivation, hunting, and collection of forest produce.
  • Exploitation of local population: In both regions, villagers faced increased rents and demands for free labour and goods by colonial officials, resulting in their suffering.
  • Forced labour in forest management: In Bastar, villagers were required to work for free in the forest department, while in Java, the Dutch introduced the blandongdiensten system, which required villagers to provide free labour and resources for cutting and transporting timber.
  • Creation of forest villages: Both regions saw the establishment of forest villages, where villagers were allowed to stay in the forests but had to work for the colonial government, either directly or indirectly through systems like the blandongdiensten in Java.

Q3. Between 1880 and 1920, forest cover in the Indian subcontinent declined by 9.7 million hectares, from 108.6 million hectares to 98.9 million hectares. Discuss the role of the following factors in this decline:
(i) Railways
(ii) Shipbuilding
(iii) Agricultural expansion
(iv) Commercial farming
(v) Tea/Coffee plantations
(vi) Adivasis and other peasant users
Ans: 
(i) Railways: They were essential for colonial trade and the movement of troops. To run locomotives, wood was needed as fuel, and to lay the railway lines sleepers were essential to hold the track together. By 1890, about 25,500 km of tracks were laid and more and more trees were cut. In Madras Presidency alone 35,000 trees were being cut annually for sleepers.

Railways during British Rule

(ii) Shipbuilding: In early 19th-century England, oak forests were disappearing, leading to a timber shortage for the Royal Navy. Without strong timber, ships couldn’t be built, which was crucial for protecting colonies and trade. Within a decade, large-scale tree cutting began in India to supply the timber needed.

Shipbuliding

(iii) Agricultural expansion: The colonial government believed that forests were unproductive. They had to be brought under cultivation so that they could yield agricultural products and generate revenue. So between 1880 and 1920, the cultivation increased by 6.7 million hectares.
(iv) Commercial farming: The British encouraged the production of commercial crops like jute, sugar, wheat and cotton. The demand for these crops increased in 19th-century Europe, where food grains were needed for a growing population and raw materials for industries.
(v) Tea/Coffee plantations: To meet the growing needs for tea, coffee and rubber, large areas of forests were cleared for their plantation. The colonial government took over the forests and gave vast areas to European planters at cheap rates. These areas were planted with tea, coffee and rubber.

Tea/Coffee Plantations

(vi) Adivasis and other peasant users: From early times, Adivasis communities traded in goods like hides, horns, silk cocoons, ivory, bamboo, spices, fibres, grasses, gums and resins through nomadic communities like the banjaras. This further declined forest cover.

Q4. Why are forests affected by wars?
Ans: Forests are affected by wars for several reasons. 

  • Firstly, during conflicts, the demand for resources like wood for construction and fuel increased, leading to extensive deforestation. For example, during the World Wars, many trees were cut down to meet the needs of countries like Britain.
  • Secondly, in some cases, warring parties use destructive tactics like the “scorched earth” policy. For example, the Dutch in Java destroyed sawmills and burned large piles of teak logs to prevent the enemy from accessing resources. This strategy can severely damage forests and ecosystems.
  • Lastly, wars can cause local populations to exploit forests and their resources. For example, during the Japanese occupation of Java, villagers were forced to cut down forests to expand their farmland, leading to increased deforestation and damage to forest ecosystems.

04. Pastoralists in the Modern World – Textbook Solutions

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Q1. Explain why nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another. What are the advantages to the environment of this continuous movement?
Ans. Nomadic tribes move from place to place to earn a living and find pastures for their animals. They adjust to seasonal changes and use different pastures effectively. When pastures are depleted, they move their herds to new areas. This constant movement helps the environment in two ways:

  • It allows vegetation to naturally restore itself.
  • The animals’ manure fertilises the fields.

Q2. Discuss why the colonial government in India brought in the following laws. In each case, explain how the law changed the lives of pastoralists:
(a) Waste Land rules
(b) Forest Acts
(c) Criminal Tribes Act
(d) Grazing Tax
Ans. (a) Waste Land rules: Colonial officials viewed uncultivated land as unproductive and wasted, as it didn’t generate revenue or crops. They believed it needed to be ploughed and used for agriculture. In the mid-19th century, wasteland rules were introduced, which allowed the government to take over uncultivated land and give it to selected individuals. This often included grazing lands used by pastoralists, reducing the pastures available for their animals.
(b) Forest Acts: In the mid-19th century, the British passed several Forest Acts in different provinces. These Acts divided forests into Reserved and Protected Forests. Pastoralists were not allowed to enter the Reserved Forests. In Protected Forests, they were given limited grazing rights, but their movement was controlled. The British believed that grazing harmed young plants.

These Forest Acts changed the lives of pastoralists. They could no longer enter many forests that once provided good grazing. Now, they needed a permit to enter, which stated how long they could stay. If they stayed longer, they were fined—even if there was still grass left for their animals.
(c) Criminal Tribes Act: The colonial government wanted people to live in fixed locations with set rights to make ruling easier. They saw settled people as peaceful and obedient, but were suspicious of nomadic and pastoral tribes who moved around and didn’t have fixed homes. In 1871, they passed the Criminal Tribes Act, labelling many pastoralists, craftsmen, and traders as Criminal Tribes. These groups had to stay in designated villages and needed permits to move. The police closely monitored them.
(d) Grazing Tax: The aim of the colonial government was to collect as much revenue as possible, so a tax was imposed on land, water, salt, trade goods, and animals. By 1880, each pastoralist was given a pass. Each cattle herder had to pay tax for each cattle head. The amount paid was entered on the pass.

Q3. Give reasons to explain why the Maasai community lost their grazing lands.
Ans. The Maasai community lost their grazing lands because:

(i) Before colonial times, Maasailand stretched from northern Kenya to northern Tanzania. By 1885, it was divided between British Kenya and German Tanganyika. European settlers took the best grazing lands, leaving the Maasai with only a small area. They lost 60% of their land and were pushed into arid regions.

(ii) In the late 19th century, the British colonial government encouraged peasants to expand farming, turning pasturelands into cultivated lands.

(iii) Many Maasai grazing lands were made into game reserves, like Maasai Mara and Serengeti Park. Pastoralists couldn’t enter these reserves to graze or hunt.


Q4. There are many similarities in the way in which the modern world forced changes in the lives of pastoral communities in India and East Africa. Write about any two examples of changes which were similar for Indian pastoralists and the Massai herders.
Ans. 

(a) By the mid-19th century, various Forest Acts were passed in India. Through these acts, some forests which produced commercially valuable timber like deodar and sal were declared ‘reserved’. No pastoralist was allowed access to these forests. In ‘protected’ forests, pastoralists had some rights but faced restrictions on their movement. In Maasailand, large grazing areas were turned into game reserves where pastoralists couldn’t hunt or graze their herds.

(b) The Forest Acts significantly impacted pastoralists. They lost access to many forests that once provided forage for their cattle. They needed permits to enter, with set times for entry, stay, and departure. Similarly, in Africa, pastoral groups had to stay within reserve boundaries and faced difficulties obtaining permits to move their livestock.