05. A Funny Man Chapter very short Questions answer

Q1: Who wrote the poem about the funny man?
Ans: Natalie Joan.

Q2: What does the funny man wear on his head?
Ans: A shoe.

Q3: What does the funny man wear on his feet?
Ans: Hats.

Q4: How does the funny man greet the poet?
Ans: He raises the shoe and smiles.

Q5: What does the poet call the man’s appearance?
Ans: A funny sounding sight.

Q6: What does the funny man offer the poet as a rose?
Ans: A currant bun.

Q7: How does the funny man address the poet?
Ans: As “Your Highness.”

Q8: How does the poet react to the currant bun?
Ans: She staggers back against the wall.

Q9: What does the poet say about the bun’s smell?
Ans: It’s a funny looking smell.

Q10: What does the funny man do after offering the bun?
Ans: He sings a song.

Q11: Where does the funny man sit while singing?
Ans: On the ground.

Q12: How does the poet describe the man’s song?
Ans: A funny feeling sound.

Q13: What does the poet ask the funny man about his hats?
Ans: Why he wears them on his feet.

Q14: How does the funny man leave the scene?
Ans: He hops home on his head.

Q15: What is one moral of the poem?
Ans: It’s okay to be different and have fun.

04. Animals, birds,  and Dr. Dolittle Chapter very short Questions answer

Q1: Who is the main character in the story?
Ans: Doctor John Dolittle.

Q2: What job does Dolittle have at the start?
Ans: He is a doctor for people.

Q3: Who suggests Dolittle become an animal doctor?
Ans: The Cat’s-food-Man.

Q4: What is the name of Dolittle’s parrot?
Ans: Polynesia.

Q5: What secret does Polynesia share with Dolittle?
Ans: Animals can talk in their own languages.

Q6: What does Polynesia teach Dolittle first?
Ans: The basics of bird language.

Q7: How do animals communicate, according to Polynesia?
Ans: Through ears, tails, feet, and noses.

Q8: What happens when people hear Dolittle can talk to animals?
Ans: They bring him sick pets and farm animals.

Q9: What problem does the plough horse have?
Ans: He is going blind in one eye.

Q10: How does Dolittle help the plough horse?
Ans: He provides green spectacles.

Q11: What does Dolittle build to manage the animals?
Ans: Special doors and tunnels for different animals.

Q12: How do animals worldwide learn about Dolittle?
Ans: Birds spread the news across countries.

Q13: What makes Dolittle content in the end?
Ans: Understanding and helping animals.

Q14: What is one moral of the story?
Ans: Listen to new ideas, even if they seem unusual.

Q15: What does the story show about kindness?
Ans: Kindness to animals leads to happiness and success.

03. Three Days to see very short Questions answer

Q1: Who wrote the essay about imagining three days of sight?
Ans: Helen Keller.

Q2: How does Helen Keller enjoy the world without sight?
Ans: By touching things like leaves and trees.

Q3: What does Helen feel on tree branches in spring?
Ans: Buds showing nature waking up.

Q4: What makes Helen happy when she touches a branch?
Ans: Feeling a bird shaking with song.

Q5: Who does Helen want to see on the first day?
Ans: People who have been kind and friendly to her.

Q6: How does Helen know her friends without seeing them?
Ans: By touching their faces.

Q7: What does Helen call the eyes?
Ans: The window of the soul.

Q8: What does Helen plan to watch on the second day?
Ans: The sunrise.

Q9: Where does Helen want to go on the second day?
Ans: To museums.

Q10: What does Helen want to learn about in museums?
Ans: The world’s past and present, like dinosaurs and history.

Q11: Where does Helen go on the third day?
Ans: To a busy city.

Q12: What does Helen observe in the city?
Ans: People’s faces to see their emotions.

Q13: What does Helen encourage people with sight to do?
Ans: Use their eyes as if they might lose them tomorrow.

Q14: Which sense does Helen think is the most wonderful?
Ans: Sight.

Q15: What is one moral of the essay?
Ans: Appreciate and use our senses to enjoy the world.

02. Try Again Chapter very short Questions answer

Q1: Who is the main character in the poem?
Ans: King Bruce of Scotland.

Q2: Why is King Bruce feeling sad?
Ans: He failed multiple times to achieve a great deed.

Q3: What does King Bruce want to do for his people?
Ans: Make them happy with a great deed.

Q4: What does King Bruce decide to do in his despair?
Ans: Give up on his efforts.

Q5: What catches King Bruce’s attention while he’s thinking?
Ans: A spider dropping on a thread.

Q6: Where is the spider trying to climb?
Ans: To its web near the ceiling.

Q7: How many times does the spider attempt to climb?
Ans: Nine times before succeeding.

Q8: What happens to the spider after its first climb?
Ans: It slips and falls back to the ground.

Q9: How does the spider feel after falling again?
Ans: Dizzy and faint.

Q10: What does King Bruce call the spider after its failures?
Ans: A foolish thing.

Q11: How close is the spider to its web in the final attempt?
Ans: One foot away.

Q12: How does the spider finally reach its web?
Ans: With a bold last effort, inch by inch.

Q13: What does King Bruce shout when the spider succeeds?
Ans: “Bravo, bravo!”

Q14: What lesson does King Bruce learn from the spider?
Ans: To keep trying despite despair.

Q15: What happens when King Bruce tries again?
Ans: He succeeds in his goal.

01. The Day The River Spoke Chapter very shorts Questions answer

Q1: Where does Jahnavi live?
Ans: In a coastal village in India.

Q2: What is Jahnavi’s biggest dream?
Ans: To go to school.

Q3: Why is Jahnavi not allowed to attend school initially?
Ans: She must care for her younger siblings.

Q4: Who does Jahnavi share her dream with?
Ans: A magical river.

Q5: What does the river say about girls’ abilities?
Ans: Girls are just as capable as boys.

Q6: What action does the river suggest to Jahnavi?
Ans: To walk into the classroom and listen quietly.

Q7: Who is Appu in the story?
Ans: Jahnavi’s youngest brother.

Q8: What story does Jahnavi hear in the classroom?
Ans: A story about King Ashoka.

Q9: Who sees Jahnavi in the classroom?
Ans: The teacher.

Q10: What does the teacher do after noticing Jahnavi?
Ans: Visits her family to discuss.

Q11: How does Jahnavi’s mother react to her dream?
Ans: She supports it, recalling her own dream.

Q12: What does Jahnavi do after getting permission to attend school?
Ans: Runs to the river to share the news.

Q13: What is Jahnavi’s future aspiration?
Ans: To become a teacher to help other girls.

Q14: What does the river offer to teach Jahnavi about?
Ans: Secrets of the ships beyond the sea.

Q15: What is a key moral of the story?
Ans: Courage and determination can make dreams come true.

12. Understanding Markets Chapter worksheet Solution

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQS)

Q1: What is the primary function of a market?
a) To provide education
b) To buy and sell goods and services
c) To offer loans
d) To promote traditions

Ans: b) To buy and sell goods and services

A market is primarily a place for buying and selling goods and services between buyers and sellers.

Market

Q2: What is one of the main problems with the barter system?
a) Difficulty in measuring value
b) High transportation costs
c) Lack of demand for goods
d) Limited goods to exchange

Ans: a) Difficulty in measuring value

In the barter system, determining the value of goods being exchanged was challenging without a standard measure.

Q3: Which of the following is an example of an online market?
a) Haat
b) A local grocery store
c) An app for shopping
d) A farmer’s market

Ans: c) An app for shopping

Online markets allow buyers and sellers to transact through apps or websites, making shopping convenient from anywhere.

Online Shopping

Q4: Which market is used for exchanging large quantities of goods?
a) Retail market
b) Online market
c) Wholesale market
d) Digital market

Ans: c) Wholesale market

Wholesale markets deal with large quantities of goods, typically sold in bulk to retailers.

Q5: What term refers to the amount of goods and services that sellers are willing to offer at different prices?
a) Demand
b) Supply
c) Transaction
d) Price

Ans: b) Supply

Supply refers to the quantity of goods and services that sellers are ready to provide in the market at different price points.

Q6: Which of these products is commonly traded in domestic markets?
a) Aircraft
b) Gold
c) Fruits and vegetables
d) Electronics

Ans: c) Fruits and vegetables

Domestic markets typically deal with goods produced and consumed within the country, like fruits and vegetables.

Domestic Market

Q7: What is the role of government in markets?
a) To ensure fair pricing and quality
b) To limit the supply of goods
c) To increase demand
d) To make all decisions for sellers

Ans: a) To ensure fair pricing and quality

Governments regulate markets to ensure fair prices, product quality, and consumer safety.

Q8: What is one of the benefits of a market for society?
a) It decreases competition among sellers
b) It encourages innovation and better products
c) It reduces the availability of goods
d) It promotes only local products

Ans: b) It encourages innovation and better products

Markets respond to consumer needs and encourage innovation, leading to better products and services.

Q9: Which type of market allows goods to be bought from international sellers?
a) Domestic market
b) Wholesale market
c) International market
d) Retail market

Ans: c) International market

International markets involve the trade of goods and services between countries, with exports and imports.

Q10: Which of these is an example of a public good?
a) A private restaurant
b) A public park
c) A commercial store
d) A private gym

Ans: b) A public park

Public goods, like parks, are provided by the government for everyone’s use and do not generate profit.

Fill in the Blanks

Q1: The barter system had the problem of ________, where both parties had to want what the other had.
Ans: Double coincidence

In the barter system, both parties had to want what the other had, which was rarely the case.

Barter System

Q2: A market where buyers and sellers meet in person to exchange goods is called a ________ market.
Ans: Physical

Physical markets require face-to-face transactions, such as weekly bazaars and local shops.

Q3: A market where transactions happen over apps or websites is known as an ________ market.
Ans: Online

Online markets allow for transactions without physical presence, like shopping on e-commerce websites or apps.

Q4: ________ refers to the quantity of goods that buyers want to buy at different prices.
Ans: Demand

Demand represents how much of a product consumers are willing to buy at varying prices.

Q5: The process of ________ involves setting rules to ensure fair pricing, quality, and safety in markets.
Ans: Regulation

Governments regulate markets to ensure that consumers are protected and that fair practices are maintained.

Q6: A market where goods are bought in large quantities and sold to smaller retailers is called a ________ market.
Ans: Wholesale

In wholesale markets, goods are traded in bulk, typically sold to retailers who then sell to consumers.

Wholesale Market of Cloth

Q7: The ________ is a mark that ensures the quality of agricultural products like honey and vegetables.
Ans: AGMARK

AGMARK is a certification for agricultural products to ensure their quality and safety for consumers.

Q8: The ________ Mela is a major pilgrimage event that takes place every six years at four river sites in India.
Ans: Kumbh

The Kumbh Mela is a large religious gathering held at four sites in India, where millions of people gather for a holy dip.

Kumbh Mela

Q9: ________ is a method of assessing the quality of goods by looking at reviews, certifications, and personal experience.
Ans: Quality assessment

Consumers assess the quality of products through reviews, labels like FSSAI, and personal experiences.

Q10: The ________ market refers to the buying and selling of goods within a country’s boundaries.
Ans: Domestic

Domestic markets involve trade within the same country, such as local grocery stores or regional shops.

Very Short Answer Questions

Q1: What is a physical market?
Ans: A market where buyers and sellers meet in person to exchange goods and services.

Q2: What does “demand” mean in the context of markets?
Ans: Demand refers to the amount of goods that buyers want to purchase at different prices.

Q3: What is an online market?
Ans: An online market is a platform where transactions happen through apps or websites.

Q4: What is the role of a wholesaler in the market?
Ans: A wholesaler buys goods in bulk from producers and sells them to retailers.

Q5: What is AGMARK?
Ans: AGMARK is a certification mark for ensuring the quality of agricultural products.

IGI Mark

Short Answer Questions

Q1: Explain the role of the government in regulating markets.
Ans: The government regulates markets by controlling prices, ensuring product quality, and setting safety standards to protect consumers and maintain fair trade practices.

Q2: How does demand affect prices in a market?
Ans: If demand for a product is high, prices tend to increase. If demand is low, prices may decrease to attract buyers.

Q3: What are the key features of a wholesale market?
Ans: Wholesale markets deal with large quantities of goods, sold in bulk to retailers. They help in efficient distribution and lower prices compared to retail.

Q4: What is the significance of the Kumbh Mela in India?
Ans: The Kumbh Mela is a significant religious event that brings millions of people together for a holy dip in the rivers, symbolizing spirituality and unity.

Q5: How does the online market differ from the physical market?
Ans: In online markets, transactions happen via websites or apps, offering convenience but lacking physical interaction, unlike in physical markets where goods can be seen and touched)

Match the Following

(Match Column A with the correct option in Column B)

Ans: Matched Pairs and Explanations:

  • 1 → b: Physical markets involve in-person transactions where buyers and sellers meet directly.
  • 2 → a: Domestic markets refer to trade within a country’s borders.
  • 3 → c: AGMARK is a certification mark ensuring the quality of agricultural products.
  • 4 → d: Wholesale markets deal with large quantities of goods sold in bulk.
  • 5 → e: Kumbh Mela is a major religious gathering held every six years at four sacred river sites.

11. From Barter to Money Chapter worksheet Solution

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1: What was the main problem with the barter system?
a) Lack of variety of goods
b) Double coincidence of wants
c) Lack of trust between traders
d) Inability to measure value

Ans: b) Double coincidence of wants

In the barter system, both parties had to have what the other wanted, which made trade difficult and rare.

Barter System

Q2: What is money primarily used for?
a) To save for future use
b) To measure value
c) To buy and sell goods and services
d) To store commodities

Ans: c) To buy and sell goods and services

Money is primarily used as a medium of exchange, allowing goods and services to be bought and sold easily.

Q3: Which of these is an example of modern digital money?
a) Cowrie shells
b) Wheat
c) UPI
d) Paper notes

Ans: c) UPI

UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is a form of digital money used for instant bank transactions.

Q4: What is the main reason why money is more efficient than the barter system?
a) Money can be saved and used later
b) Money is harder to carry
c) Money only works with coins
d) Money has no value

Ans: a) Money can be saved and used later

Money allows for transactions over time, as it can be stored and used for future purchases, unlike goods in barter.

Q5: Which of the following was one of the earliest forms of money?
a) Digital currency
b) Cowrie shells
c) Coins with currency symbols
d) Banknotes

Ans: b) Cowrie shells

Cowrie shells were used in ancient times as a form of money for trade.

Q6: What does the term “medium of exchange” refer to?
a) A tool used to measure trade
b) A method to store wealth
c) Something that is accepted for buying and selling
d) A product for trade

Ans: c) Something that is accepted for buying and selling

A medium of exchange is something widely accepted for buying and selling goods and services.

Q7: Which item was commonly used as money in ancient India?
a) Cattle
b) Paper notes
c) Digital codes
d) Credit cards

Ans: a) Cattle

In the barter system, cattle were commonly used as a form of trade for goods and services.

Digital Currency

Q8: What is the main advantage of money over bartering goods like wheat or cattle?
a) Money is portable, divisible, and durable
b) Money can be eaten
c) Money is easier to store than goods
d) Money does not need to be traded

Ans: a) Money is portable, divisible, and durable

Money is easy to carry, can be divided into smaller units, and does not spoil or rot like perishable goods.

Q9: What did John Maynard Keynes say about money?
a) Money is only useful for buying goods
b) Money connects the present to the future
c) Money is not important for trade
d) Money should only be used in the form of coins

Ans: b) Money connects the present to the future

Keynes emphasized that money helps us save for future needs and plan for later use.

Q10: What was one problem with using cattle in the barter system?
a) Cattle were not accepted by all traders
b) Cattle could be divided into smaller parts
c) Cattle rotted quickly
d) Cattle were difficult to transport

Ans: d) Cattle were difficult to transport

Cattle were large and difficult to move over long distances, making them inefficient for trade.

Fill in the Blanks

Q1: The barter system was inefficient because it required a ________ of wants.
Ans: Double coincidence

In the barter system, both parties had to want what the other had, which made successful exchanges rare.

Q2: Money solves the problems of the barter system by being ________, meaning it can be carried easily.
Ans: Portable

Money is portable, unlike large goods like cattle, making it easier to carry and use in trade.

Q3: In the barter system, a farmer could not split an ________ into smaller units for trade.
Ans: Ox

Items like oxen were not divisible, which made them unsuitable for smaller trades in the barter system.

Q4: The modern form of money used in transactions is ________ currency.
Ans: Paper

Paper currency is widely used today for transactions, unlike the ancient forms of money like coins or shells.

Q5: One early form of money used in ancient India was called ________ or panas.
Ans: Kārshāpanas

Ancient Indian coins, known as kārshāpanas or panas, were used in trade and often had symbols like animals and gods.

Q6: ________ is an example of digital money that allows users to transfer money between accounts.
Ans: UPI

UPI (Unified Payments Interface) is a form of digital money that allows seamless transactions between bank accounts.

Q7: The ________ is the symbol used on Indian banknotes, designed in 2010.
Ans: ₹

The ₹ symbol represents the Indian Rupee and was designed in 2010 to symbolize India’s currency.

Q8: The ________ system, introduced in ancient China, was the first use of paper money.
Ans: Paper currency

Paper currency was first introduced in China and later in India by the Bank of Bengal in the late 18th century.

Q9: A major disadvantage of using the barter system was that goods like ________ could spoil quickly.
Ans: Wheat

Perishable goods like wheat could spoil or get eaten by pests, making them unsuitable for long-term trade.

Q10: The modern form of payment involving scanning a ________ code is called digital money.
Ans: QR

QR codes are used for digital money transactions, making it easier for consumers to pay without physical money.

Very Short Answer Questions

Q1: What was the primary problem with the barter system?
Ans: The main problem was the double coincidence of wants.

Q2: What does “money as a store of value” mean?
Ans: Money can be saved and used later, unlike perishable goods.

Q3: How did the invention of money help in trade?
Ans: Money made trade easier by solving the issues of portability, divisibility, and value measurement.

Q4: What is the modern equivalent of money used in daily transactions?
Ans: Modern money includes coins, notes, and digital payments like UPI.

Q5: What does “durability” mean in the context of money?
Ans: Money can last for a long time without spoiling, unlike perishable goods in the barter system.

Paper Currency

Short Answer Questions

Q1: Why was the barter system not effective for long-distance trade?
Ans: The barter system was ineffective for long-distance trade because goods like cattle were hard to transport, and the double coincidence of wants was difficult to find.

Q2: Explain the difference between the barter system and money.
Ans: The barter system required a mutual need for goods, while money is a common, portable, and divisible medium of exchange, making trade more efficient.

Q3: What was the first form of paper currency used in India?
Ans: Paper currency was introduced in India in the late 18th century by banks like the Bank of Bengal and Bank of Bombay.

Q4: How did money evolve from coins to digital money?
Ans: Money evolved from coins made of precious metals to paper currency and now to digital money like UPI and mobile payments for easier transactions.

Q5: How did John Maynard Keynes describe the role of money?
Ans: John Maynard Keynes described money as a means to connect the present with the future, helping people save and spend later.

Match the Following

(Match Column A with the correct option in Column B)

Ans: Matched Pairs and Explanations:

  • 1 → c: Double Coincidence of Wants means both parties need what the other offers.
  • 2 → d: UPI is a system for transferring money digitally.
  • 3 → a: Kārshāpanas were coins used in ancient India for transactions.
  • 4 → b: Store of value means money can be saved for future use.
  • 5 → e: Barter system is the direct exchange of goods and services.

10. The constitution of India-   An Introduction Chapter worksheet Solution

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1: What is the primary role of the Constitution of India?
a) To make laws
b) To protect citizens’ rights and outline the rules of government
c) To ensure religious harmony
d) To create a system of elections

Ans: b) To protect citizens’ rights and outline the rules of government

The Constitution of India serves as a rulebook that outlines how the government works, protects citizens’ rights, and defines duties.

Republic Day Parade

Q2: When did the Constitution of India come into effect?
a) 15th August 1947
b) 26th January 1950
c) 15th August 1948
d) 26th November 1949

Ans: b) 26th January 1950

The Constitution of India came into effect on 26th January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.

Q3: What does the term “Sovereign” in the Preamble of the Constitution refer to?
a) India is governed by religious leaders
b) India has the authority to make its own decisions without external interference
c) India is a monarchy
d) India’s leaders are elected

Ans: b) India has the authority to make its own decisions without external interference

“Sovereign” means India has full control over its own decisions without being controlled by other countries.

Q4: Which document lists the rules and laws for governing India?
a) The Preamble
b) The Constitution
c) The Bill of Rights
d) The Declaration of Independence

Ans: b) The Constitution

The Constitution of India is the primary document that lists the rules, laws, and rights for governing India.

Q5: Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly?
a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Jawaharlal Nehru
d) Dr. Sachidananda Sinha

Ans: b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly and played a significant role in the formation of the Constitution.

Q6: Which of the following is NOT a source of influence for the Indian Constitution?
a) The Indian Freedom Movement
b) France’s Constitution
c) USA’s Constitution
d) Russia’s Revolution

Ans: d) Russia’s Revolution

The Indian Constitution was influenced by various sources, including the Indian Freedom Movement, the USA’s Constitution, and France’s Constitution, but not Russia’s Revolution.

Q7: What does the “separation of powers” in the Constitution mean?
a) The executive controls the legislative and judicial powers
b) The legislature, executive, and judiciary function independently without interfering with each other
c) The legislature is more powerful than the executive
d) The judiciary makes laws

Ans: b) The legislature, executive, and judiciary function independently without interfering with each other

The separation of powers ensures that the three branches of government—legislature, executive, and judiciary—work independently and fairly.

Q8: What is the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
a) A list of laws
b) A summary of the Constitution’s main values
c) The introduction to the Parliament
d) A legal document for voting

Ans: b) A summary of the Constitution’s main values

The Preamble is the introduction to the Constitution that summarizes its core values, including justice, liberty, and equality.

Q9: Which of these was included in the Indian Constitution after it was adopted?
a) Universal adult franchise
b) Democracy
c) Separation of powers
d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

The Indian Constitution includes principles like universal adult franchise, democracy, and separation of powers.

Q10: Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee that prepared the Constitution?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) Mahatma Gandhi

Ans: c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and played a key role in shaping the Constitution of India.

Preamble

Fill in the Blanks

Q1: The Constitution of India was adopted on ________ and came into effect on ________.
Ans: 26th November 1949; 26th January 1950

The Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949 and came into effect on 26th January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.

Q2: The Constitution of India is stored in a ________-filled glass case in Parliament.
Ans: Helium

The Constitution is kept in a helium-filled glass case in Parliament to preserve its integrity.

Q3: The Constitution’s main features include fundamental rights, fundamental duties, and ________.
Ans: Directive Principles of State Policy

The Directive Principles of State Policy guide the government’s actions but are not enforceable in court.

Q4: India’s Constitution is shaped by the ________ struggle, which inspired the values of equality, freedom, and justice.
Ans: Freedom

The Indian Freedom Movement contributed significantly to the values included in the Constitution.

Q5: Dr. ________ was the first Law and Justice Minister of India and is called the Architect of the Indian Constitution.
Ans: B.R. Ambedkar

Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, as the Law and Justice Minister, played a key role in drafting the Indian Constitution.

Q6: The ________ of India includes values like justice, liberty, and equality.
Ans: Preamble

The Preamble summarizes the core values that guide the Constitution and government.

Q7: The Constitution provides for the ________ system, dividing power among the central, state, and local governments.
Ans: Three-tier

The three-tier system refers to the division of government powers into Central, State, and Local levels.

Q8: ________ is the part of the government that makes laws.
Ans: Legislature

The legislature is responsible for creating and passing laws.

Q9: ________ are basic rights that protect citizens against discrimination and exploitation.
Ans: Fundamental Rights

Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to all citizens and ensure equality, freedom, and protection.

Q10: ________ refers to the principle of shared values and mutual respect among different communities.
Ans: Secularism

Secularism in the Indian Constitution ensures that all religions are treated equally.

Secularism

Very Short Answer Questions

Q1: When was the Indian Constitution adopted?
Ans: The Indian Constitution was adopted on 26th November 1949.

Q2: What is the Preamble to the Indian Constitution?
Ans: The Preamble is the introduction to the Constitution, outlining its core values and goals.

Q3: Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly?
Ans: Dr. Sachidananda Sinha was the first President of the Constituent Assembly.

Q4: Who played a key role in drafting the Indian Constitution?
Ans: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar played a key role in drafting the Indian Constitution.

Q5: What does the term “sovereign” in the Constitution mean?
Ans: “Sovereign” means India has the right to make its own decisions without outside control.

Short Answer Questions

Q1: What are the main parts of the government as outlined in the Constitution?
Ans: The three main parts of the government are the legislature, executive, and judiciary. They each have separate functions to ensure fairness and accountability.

Q2: How is the Constitution of India a “living document”?
Ans: The Constitution is a living document because it can be amended to meet the changing needs of society, as seen in the addition of Fundamental Duties and other changes over time.

Q3: Why is the Constitution important for the citizens of India?
Ans: The Constitution protects citizens’ rights, outlines their duties, and ensures fairness by setting rules for governance, making it essential for maintaining justice and equality.

Q4: What role did the freedom struggle play in shaping the Indian Constitution?
Ans: The freedom struggle influenced the Constitution by promoting values like equality, justice, freedom, and fraternity, which were key principles in the document.

Q5: How did the Indian Constitution borrow ideas from other countries?
Ans: The Indian Constitution incorporated ideas from various countries, like the USA’s independent judiciary, France’s liberty, equality, and fraternity, and Ireland’s Directive Principles.Match the Following

(Match Column A with the correct option in Column B)

Ans: Matched Pairs and Explanations:

  • 1 → d: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Architect of the Indian Constitution.
  • 2 → c: Fundamental Rights protect citizens’ rights such as equality and freedom.
  • 3 → e: The Preamble introduces the Constitution and outlines its values.
  • 4 → b: Secularism means that all religions are treated equally.
  • 5 → a: Dr. Sachidananda Sinha was the first President of the Constituent Assembly.

09. From the Rulers to the Ruled: Types Of Governments Chapter worksheet Solution

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1: What does the term ‘democracy’ mean?
a) A government where one person has all the power
b) A government run by religious leaders
c) A government run by the people
d) A government controlled by military force

Ans: c) A government run by the people

Democracy means “rule of the people,” where the people are the source of power, and they elect representatives to make decisions.

Q2: What is the main function of a democratic government?
a) To provide a king with wealth
b) To ensure people’s safety and welfare
c) To limit people’s freedoms
d) To create military power

Ans: b) To ensure people’s safety and welfare

A democratic government’s primary function is to ensure law, order, and the well-being of all citizens.

Q3: Which is a characteristic of a representative democracy?
a) Every citizen directly makes laws
b) Citizens elect representatives to govern
c) A king or queen makes all the decisions
d) The government has no interaction with citizens

Ans: b) Citizens elect representatives to govern

In a representative democracy, citizens vote for representatives who then make decisions on their behalf.

Q4: In which type of government does the king or queen have complete control?
a) Democracy
b) Monarchy
c) Theocracy
d) Dictatorship

Ans: b) Monarchy

In a monarchy, the king or queen rules the country, often with absolute power, especially in an absolute monarchy.

Monarchy

Q5: What is the primary role of the judiciary in a democracy?
a) To create laws
b) To enforce laws
c) To ensure that laws are followed and settle disputes
d) To make military decisions

Ans: c) To ensure that laws are followed and settle disputes

The judiciary ensures that laws are followed and resolves disputes according to the law.

Q6: In which type of government are rulers chosen by religious leaders?
a) Democracy
b) Monarchy
c) Theocracy
d) Dictatorship

Ans: c) Theocracy

A theocracy is a government ruled by religious leaders or based on religious laws.

Q7: Which of the following is NOT a principle of democracy?
a) Equality
b) Freedom of speech
c) Separation of powers
d) Rule by one leader

Ans: d) Rule by one leader

In a democracy, power is shared, and it does not rely on one person ruling alone.

Q8: What is the main difference between parliamentary and presidential democracy?
a) In parliamentary democracy, the president is elected
b) In presidential democracy, the president is elected separately
c) In parliamentary democracy, there is no separation of powers
d) In presidential democracy, the prime minister is the head of the state

Ans: b) In presidential democracy, the president is elected separately

In presidential democracy, the president is elected independently of the legislature, whereas in parliamentary democracy, the executive (prime minister) is part of the legislature.

Q9: Which system of government has a ruler who has absolute power?
a) Democracy
b) Monarchy
c) Dictatorship
d) Oligarchy

Ans: c) Dictatorship

In a dictatorship, one person or a small group holds all the power, often not bound by laws.

Q10: What is the role of citizens in a representative democracy?
a) To create laws
b) To elect representatives who make decisions for them
c) To follow orders from a king
d) To control the economy

Ans: b) To elect representatives who make decisions for them

In a representative democracy, citizens elect leaders to represent them in government.

Fill in the Blanks

Q1: In a __________, the people elect representatives to make decisions on their behalf.
Ans: Representative democracy

In representative democracy, people elect representatives to make laws and decisions for them.

Difference: Direct and Representative Democracy

Q2: A __________ government is ruled by religious leaders or based on religious laws.
Ans: Theocracy

Theocracy is a system of government where religious leaders hold political power.

Q3: The __________ is the branch of government responsible for enforcing laws.
Ans: Executive

The executive branch of government is responsible for implementing and enforcing laws.

Q4: In a __________ monarchy, the king’s power is limited by a constitution or laws.
Ans: Constitutional

A constitutional monarchy limits the power of the monarch, giving more control to elected officials.

Q5: __________ is a form of government where power is held by one person or a small group.
Ans: Oligarchy

Oligarchy is a government system where a small group of wealthy or powerful people control the country.

Q6: __________ is a system of government where the king or queen has complete control.
Ans: Absolute monarchy

An absolute monarchy is a form of government where the monarch holds complete control and power.

Q7: __________ refers to the right of every adult to vote in elections.
Ans: Universal adult franchise

Universal adult franchise ensures that every adult citizen has the right to vote in elections.

Q8: The __________ is the group responsible for making laws in a democracy.
Ans: Legislature

The legislature is the body responsible for creating laws in a democracy.

Q9: In a __________ democracy, all citizens directly participate in making laws and decisions.
Ans: Direct

In direct democracy, all citizens actively participate in making decisions and laws.

Q10: The __________ ensures that laws are followed and resolves legal disputes in a democracy.
Ans: Judiciary

The judiciary interprets and applies laws, ensuring fairness in the legal system.

Very Short Answer Questions

Q1: What is democracy?
Ans: Democracy is a system of government where the people have the power to elect their leaders.

Q2: What is the role of the executive in a democracy?
Ans: The executive enforces the laws and manages the day-to-day functions of the government.

Q3: Which type of government allows the people to vote for their leaders?
Ans: Democracy.

Q4: What is the purpose of the judiciary in a democracy?
Ans: The judiciary ensures that laws are followed and resolves disputes.

Q5: What is an oligarchy?
Ans: An oligarchy is a form of government where a small, powerful group controls the government.

Short Answer Questions

Q1: What are the three main functions of government in a democracy?
Ans: The three main functions are legislative (making laws), executive (enforcing laws), and judicial (ensuring laws are followed and resolving disputes).

Q2: How does a monarchy differ from a democracy?
Ans: In a monarchy, a king or queen rules the country, often with hereditary power, while in a democracy, leaders are elected by the people.

Q3: What is the difference between direct and representative democracy?
Ans: In direct democracy, citizens directly make decisions and laws, while in representative democracy, citizens elect representatives to make decisions on their behalf.

Q4: What is meant by “universal adult franchise”?
Ans: Universal adult franchise means that every adult citizen has the right to vote in elections, regardless of their social or economic status.

Q5: How did the Chola period influence democracy in ancient India?
Ans: The Chola period included a system where local assemblies and councils were elected by citizens, influencing the development of democratic governance in India.

Match the Following

(Match Column A with the correct option in Column B)

Ans: Matched Pairs and Explanations:

  • 1 → b: Democracy is a government where people elect representatives.
  • 2 → c: Monarchy is a government ruled by a king or queen, sometimes with absolute power.
  • 3 → d: Oligarchy is a government controlled by a small, powerful group of people.
  • 4 → a: Theocracy is a government ruled by religious leaders and based on religious principles.
  • 5 → e: Direct democracy is where all citizens directly make decisions and laws.

08. How The Land Becomes sacred Chapter worksheet Solution

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Q1: What does ‘sacredness’ mean in religious or spiritual contexts?
a) Something holy or deeply respected
b) A journey to a distant land
c) A place for ordinary activities
d) Something that belongs to a specific religion

Ans: a) Something holy or deeply respected

Sacredness refers to something that is considered holy or highly respected in religious or spiritual contexts.

Q2: Which of the following is a sacred site for Sikhs?
a) Takht Sri Patna Sahib
b) Mahabodhi Stūpa
c) Dargah Sharif
d) Velankanni Church

Ans: a) Takht Sri Patna Sahib

Takht Sri Patna Sahib is one of the holiest places for Sikhs, linked to Guru Nanak.

Takht Sri Patna Sahib

Q3:What is a pilgrimage in Indian culture known as?

a) Yātrā
b) Tīrthayātrā
c) Kumbh Mela
d) Dham

Ans: b) Tīrthayātrā

A pilgrimage in India is called a tīrthayātrā, meaning a journey to a sacred site.

Q4: Which river is considered a goddess in Hinduism?
a) Ganga
b) Nile
c) Thames
d) Amazon

Ans: a) Ganga

In Hinduism, the Ganga (Ganges) is worshipped as a goddess, symbolizing purity and divinity.

Q5: What is the significance of Sangams in Indian sacred geography?
a) Where rivers meet, considered sacred
b) Places for religious rituals
c) Ancient trade routes
d) Monasteries for monks

Ans: a) Where rivers meet, considered sacred

Sangams, or confluences of rivers, are considered especially holy in Hindu tradition, such as at Prayagraj.

Sangam of Rivers

Q6: What does the Char Dhām Yātrā include?
a) Four sacred temples in the Himalayas
b) Pilgrimage to four sacred sites in north, south, east, and west India
c) A journey to the famous monasteries of India
d) Visits to the 12 Jyotirlingas

Ans: b) Pilgrimage to four sacred sites in north, south, east, and west India

The Char Dhām Yātrā is a pilgrimage that includes four sacred sites: Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, and Rameswaram.

Q7: Which tree is considered sacred in Hinduism, Buddhism, Jainism, and Sikhism?
a) Banyan tree
b) Peepul tree
c) Mango tree
d) Neem tree

Ans: b) Peepul tree

The Peepul tree, especially the one under which Buddha attained enlightenment, is considered sacred in multiple religions.

Q8: Which tribe holds the Niyam Dongar hill sacred?
a) Bhils
b) Dongria Khond
c) Gonds
d) Konds

Ans: b) Dongria Khond

The Dongria Khond tribe in Jharkhand considers Niyam Dongar hill sacred, as it is home to their deity, Niyam Raja.

Q9: Which sacred site is related to the myth of the body parts of Sati?
a) Char Dhām
b) Jyotirlingas
c) Shakti Pithas
d) Kumbh Mela

Ans: c) Shakti Pithas

The Shakti Pithas are sacred sites where parts of the goddess Sati’s body are believed to have fallen, marking them as holy.

Q10: What is the significance of the Kumbh Mela?
a) A major Hindu festival celebrating the harvest
b) A pilgrimage marking the meeting of rivers
c) A festival held every six years in four locations
d) A tribute to ancient kings

Ans: c) A festival held every six years in four locations

The Kumbh Mela is a major pilgrimage that takes place every six years at four locations, attracting millions of devotees.

Jyotirlingas

Fill in the Blanks

Q1: Sacredness in India is linked to places like temples, rivers, mountains, and __________.
Ans: Pilgrimages

Pilgrimages are journeys to sacred places that are part of India’s cultural and spiritual heritage.

Q2: The Char Dhām Yātrā connects __________ sacred sites in India.
Ans: Four

The Char Dhām Yātrā connects four sacred sites in India: Badrinath, Dwarka, Puri, and Rameswaram.

Q3: The __________ River is considered a goddess in Hinduism.
Ans: Ganga

The Ganga River is worshipped as a goddess and is central to many religious rituals in Hinduism.

Q4: __________ is an important pilgrimage site for followers of Jainism in Gujarat.
Ans: Shatruñjaya hill

Shatruñjaya hill in Gujarat is a significant sacred site in Jainism, associated with Tirthankaras.

Q5: __________ is the sacred site in Bodh Gaya where Buddha attained enlightenment.
Ans: Mahabodhi Stūpa

The Mahabodhi Stūpa in Bodh Gaya marks the place where Buddha attained enlightenment.

Mahabodhi Stupa

Q6: In India, the confluence of rivers is called a __________.
Ans: Sangam

Sangams, or confluences of rivers, are considered sacred in Hinduism, like the one in Prayagraj.

Q7: __________ was the major pilgrimage site for Sikhs, connected to Guru Nanak.
Ans: Takht Sri Patna Sahib

Takht Sri Patna Sahib is an important sacred site for Sikhs, associated with Guru Nanak.

Q8: __________ are sacred sites linked to the goddess Shakti in India.
Ans: Shakti Pithas

Shakti Pithas are sacred sites where parts of the goddess Sati’s body are believed to have fallen.

Q9: __________ is the sacred tree under which Buddha attained enlightenment.
Ans: Peepul tree

The Peepul tree at Bodh Gaya is sacred because it is believed to be the tree under which Buddha attained enlightenment.

Q10: The Kumbh Mela is held every __________ years at four sacred river sites.
Ans: Six

The Kumbh Mela is a major pilgrimage that occurs every six years at four sacred river sites in India.

Tirth Yatra

Very Short Answer Questions

Q1: What is a tīrthayātrā?
Ans: A tīrthayātrā is a pilgrimage to a sacred site in India.

Q2: Which river is known as “Ganga ji” by many Indians?
Ans: The Ganga (Ganges) River.

Q3: What is a Sangam in Indian sacred geography?
Ans: A Sangam is the confluence of rivers, considered holy.

Q4: Who is associated with the Takht Sri Patna Sahib?
Ans: Guru Nanak, the founder of Sikhism.

Q5: Which tribe considers Niyam Dongar hill sacred?
Ans: The Dongria Khond tribe.

Short Answer Questions

Q1: How does sacred geography help unite India?
Ans: Sacred geography unites India by connecting diverse regions through shared pilgrimage routes and sacred sites, fostering cultural exchange and unity.

Q2: What is the significance of the Kumbh Mela in Indian culture?
Ans: The Kumbh Mela is a major pilgrimage that brings millions of people together every six years, symbolizing the unity of diverse communities and the importance of sacred rituals.

Kumbh Mela

Q3: How does sacred ecology contribute to environmental protection?
Ans: Sacred ecology promotes the protection of nature by treating rivers, mountains, and forests as sacred spaces, encouraging people to protect them from pollution and exploitation.

Q4: Why are rivers considered sacred in India?
Ans: Rivers like the Ganga and Yamuna are worshipped as goddesses and considered sacred in Hinduism due to their life-giving properties and spiritual significance.

Q5: How does sacred geography influence trade in India?
Ans: Pilgrimage routes often overlap with trade routes, facilitating the exchange of goods, ideas, and cultures, thereby enriching both spiritual and economic life.

Match the Following

(Match Column A with the correct option in Column B)

Ans: Matched Pairs and Explanations:

  • 1 → a: The Kumbh Mela is a pilgrimage to four sacred river sites held every six years.
  • 2 → d: The Peepul tree is sacred in multiple religions, especially Buddhism and Hinduism.
  • 3 → c: The Char Dhām Yātrā connects four sacred sites, including Bodh Gaya, where Buddha attained enlightenment.
  • 4 → b: Takht Sri Patna Sahib is an important Sikh site dedicated to Guru Nanak, located on the banks of the Ganga.
  • 5 → e: The Sabarimala Temple is sacred to Hindus, especially for devotees of Lord Ayyappa.