01. Previous Year Questions: Power-Sharing

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by strengthening which of the following types of government?  (1 Mark)
(a) Unitary
(b) Presidential
(c) Federal
(d) Parliamentary

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Ans: (c) Federal
Belgium solved its problem of majoritarianism by dividing powers between the central and state governments, creating a federal form of government. This arrangement prevented the domination of one linguistic group over another and maintained unity in the country.


Q2: “Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy because:

  • Involvement of People: In a democracy, people are the source of all political power. They have a right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.
  • Legitimacy of Government: A legitimate government is one where citizens participate and acquire a stake in the system through power sharing.
  • Respect for Diverse Views: It ensures that due respect is given to different groups and opinions in society, making governance more democratic.

Thus, power sharing upholds the essence of democracy by ensuring participation, consultation, and inclusiveness in decision-making.

Or 

Why is power sharing essential for the success of democracy? Explain.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is essential for the success of democracy because it ensures fairness, equality, and stability in society.

  • Prevents Concentration of Power: By dividing powers among different organs and levels of government, it avoids misuse of authority.
  • Protects Interests of All Groups: Power sharing gives minorities and weaker sections a voice in governance, making them feel included.
  • Maintains Unity and Harmony: When all groups share power, trust grows, conflicts reduce, and democracy becomes stronger.

Thus, power sharing makes democracy more inclusive, stable, and effective.


Q3: “Political power cannot be divided.” Analyse suitable arguments against the statement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The statement “Political power cannot be divided” is incorrect because in a democracy, power sharing is essential. Arguments against the statement are:

  • Prevents Concentration of Power: Division of power among organs of government ensures that no single organ can exercise unlimited power.
  • Promotes Checks and Balances: Power shared horizontally among legislature, executive, and judiciary maintains balance and accountability.
  • Ensures Participation and Stability: Sharing power among different levels of government, social groups, and political parties promotes inclusion and prevents conflict.

Hence, division of power strengthens democracy and ensures the stability of the political system.

Q4: Which one of the following organisations has its headquarter in Brussels?  (1 Marks)

(a) United Nations Organisation
(b) European Union
(c) Non-Alignment Movement
(d) South Asian Association for Regional Co-operation

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Ans: (b) European Union

  • Brussels, the capital of Belgium, was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union because Belgium’s model of power sharing successfully maintained unity and harmony among diverse communities.


Q5: Which of the following countries is an example of sharing of power between the national and state governments to account for internal diversity?  (1 Mark)

(a) United States of America
(b) Australia
(c) Belgium
(d) Switzerland

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Ans: (c) Belgium

Belgium shares power between the central government and state governments of the two major regions to accommodate linguistic and cultural diversity. This federal division of power helped prevent conflicts between Dutch-speaking and French-speaking communities.


Q6: “The government measures gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.” Explain the statement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Sri Lankan government took several steps that made the Tamil people feel left out and unfairly treated.

  • In 1956, Sinhala was made the only official language, and Tamil was ignored.
  • The government gave more jobs and educational opportunities to Sinhala-speaking people.
  • The Constitution protected Buddhism, while Tamil culture and religion were not given equal importance.

Because of these actions, the Tamil people felt neglected and discriminated against, which increased their anger and separation from the government.


Q7: Which of the following group is in majority in Sri Lanka?  (1 Mark)

(a) Tamil-speakers
(b) Sinhala-speakers
(c) Telugu-speakers
(d) English-speakers

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Ans: (b) Sinhala-speakers

In Sri Lanka, 74% of the population speaks Sinhala, making them the majority group, while 18% are Tamil-speakers.


Q8: Explain the effectiveness of vertical distribution of ‘power sharing’ in the context of India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, vertical distribution of power means sharing power among different levels of government — the Central GovernmentState Governments, and local bodies like panchayats and municipalities.

This system is effective because:

  1. It allows governments at each level to make decisions for their own area, ensuring efficient administration.
  2. It gives people more participation in decision-making and helps address local needs better.

Thus, vertical power sharing in India makes democracy strong, balanced, and more responsive to the people.


Q9: “Sharing of power between the Union Government and the State Governments is basic to the structure of the Indian Constitution.” Analyse the statement with suitable arguments.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: In India, power is shared between the Union Government and the State Governments, and this is a very important part of our Constitution.

  • The Constitution clearly divides powers between both levels of government. Some subjects like defence and foreign affairs are handled by the Union Government, while others like police and health are handled by State Governments.
  • This system helps both governments to work independently and smoothly in their own areas without interfering with each other.
  • It also allows people to take part in decision-making at different levels — national, state, and local — which makes democracy stronger.

Therefore, sharing of power between the Union and the States is basic to the Indian Constitution, as it ensures balance, cooperation, and better governance.


Q10: Explain the effectiveness of horizontal distribution of power in the context of India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: In India, horizontal distribution of power means sharing power among the three organs of government — the LegislatureExecutive, and Judiciary.

This system is effective because:

  • Each organ checks the other: It prevents any one organ from becoming too powerful. For example, the judiciary can review laws made by the legislature.
  • Maintains balance and accountability: It ensures that power is used responsibly and within limits.

Thus, horizontal power sharing in India helps maintain a balance of power, protects democracy, and ensures fair governance.


Q11: How does the Indian Constitution ensure the division of powers between the Union and State Governments? Explain.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Indian Constitution clearly divides powers between the Union Government and the State Governments to ensure smooth functioning and avoid conflicts.

  1. Three Lists: The Constitution provides a Union ListState List, and Concurrent List.
    • The Union List includes subjects like defence and foreign affairs.
    • The State List includes subjects like police and public health.
    • The Concurrent List includes subjects like education and forests, where both can make laws.
  2. Clarity of Powers: This clear division helps both levels of government work independently and efficiently in their respective areas.
  3. Federal Structure: It maintains a federal balance and ensures that power is not concentrated at one level.

Thus, through these constitutional arrangements, India ensures a fair and effective division of power between the Union and the States.

Q12: How is the distribution of power among different social groups beneficial for democracy? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Distribution of power among different social groups helps democracy by making it more inclusive and fair.

  • It ensures that minorities and weaker sections get a share in decision-making, so they don’t feel neglected.
  • It helps in reducing social conflict and promotes harmony among different religious and linguistic groups.

Thus, sharing power among social groups makes democracy stronger, more equal, and more peaceful.

Q13: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:

Assertion (a): The French-speaking community was rich in comparison to the Dutch-speaking community in Belgium.

Reason (R): Dutch-speaking community got the benefit of economic development and education much later.  (1Mark)
(a)
 Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (a) is incorrect but (R) is correct.

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Ans: (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).

In Belgium, the French-speaking community was richer and more powerful, while the Dutch-speaking community received the benefits of economic development and education much later, which caused tensions between the two groups.


Q14: Which of the following is an example of horizontal power sharing in Indian democracy?  (1 Mark)

(a) Division of power between Central and State Governments.
(b) Division of power between Rural and Urban Governments.
(c) Division of power among Administration, Judiciary, and Army.
(d) Division of power among Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary.

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Ans: (d) Division of power among Legislative, Executive, and Judiciary.

Horizontal power sharing in India refers to the separation of powers among the three organs of government — the LegislatureExecutive, and Judiciary — ensuring that each organ checks the others and prevents misuse of power.


Q15: Choose the correct option to fill the blank.  (1 Mark)
The Belgian leaders took a different path than Sri Lanka. They recognised the existence of regional differences and ____________
(a) 
Religious diversities
(b) Historical diversities
(c) Cultural diversities
(d) Administrative diversities

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Ans: (c) Cultural diversities

  • The Belgian leaders recognised regional and cultural diversities and amended their Constitution to ensure fair power sharing among Dutch, French, and German-speaking communities.

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Q16: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (a): There was civil war in Sri Lanka.
Reason (R): An Act was passed in 1956 to secure dominance of Sinhala community on the government.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is correct, but (R) is incorrect.
(d) (a) is incorrect, but (R) is correct.

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Ans: (a) Both (a) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).

In Sri Lanka, the Sinhala community passed an Act in 1956 making Sinhala the only official language, which led to discrimination against Tamils. This caused anger, distrust, and ultimately resulted in a civil war in the country.


Q17: Belgium took some measures to solve its problem. Read the following measures and choose the correct option:
I. Formation of community government.
II. Following majoritarian policy.
III. By providing equal representation of language groups.
IV. By providing additional powers to local governments.  (1 Mark)
(a) 
Only I, II, and III are correct.
(b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.
(c) Only I, II, and IV are correct.
(d) Only II, III, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (b) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

Belgium solved its problems by:

  • forming a community government,
  • giving equal representation to Dutch and French-speaking groups, and
  • providing more powers to state and local governments.
    It did not follow a majoritarian policy like Sri Lanka.


Q18: “The law enacted in 1956 and other Constitutional Provisions led to major conflict between the two communities in Sri Lanka.” Support the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

After gaining independence in 1948, Sri Lanka adopted several majoritarian measures that favoured the Sinhala-speaking majority and ignored the Tamil-speaking minority. These steps created deep conflict between the two communities.

  1. Sinhala as the Only Official Language (1956):
    The government passed an Act making Sinhala the only official language, completely ignoring Tamil. This made it difficult for Tamil people to get government jobs and access public services.
  2. Preferential Policies for Sinhalas:
    The government gave preference to Sinhala applicants in universities and government employment, reducing opportunities for Tamils.
  3. Protection of Buddhism:
    The Constitution gave Buddhism a special status, ignoring the equal rights of Tamils, who were mostly Hindus and Muslims.
  4. Denial of Political and Cultural Rights:
    Tamil leaders demanded equal political rightsregional autonomy, and recognition of Tamil language, but these demands were repeatedly rejected.
  5. Rise of Conflict and Civil War:
    As a result, Tamil groups started demanding an independent Tamil state (Tamil Eelam). The distrust and anger grew, leading to a civil war that caused great loss of life, property, and peace in Sri Lanka.

Thus, the 1956 law and other discriminatory policies created a sense of alienation and injustice among Tamils, resulting in a long-lasting ethnic conflict in Sri Lanka.


Q19: “Power sharing increases trust between different groups.” Support the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Power sharing is an important feature of democracy because it helps to build trust and cooperation among different social and cultural groups. It ensures that no group feels ignored or dominated by another.

  1. Representation of All Groups:
    Power sharing gives all social, linguistic, and religious groups a role in governance. When everyone participates in decision-making, it reduces feelings of neglect or inequality.
  2. Reduces Social Conflicts:
    When power is shared fairly, it prevents anger and violence between communities. For example, Belgium avoided conflict between Dutch and French-speaking people by sharing power equally.
  3. Promotes Unity and Stability:
    Power sharing helps maintain the unity of the country. People are more likely to support the government when they see their interests being respected.
  4. Encourages Cooperation:
    It allows different groups to work together, promoting mutual respect and understanding among them.
  5. Strengthens Democracy:
    When power is distributed and everyone has a voice, democracy becomes stronger and more stable. It prevents domination and builds trust and confidence among citizens.

Thus, power sharing increases trust between different groups by ensuring fairness, equality, and participation in governance, which helps maintain peace and unity in a democratic country.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Identify the primary objective of power-sharing arrangements in Belgium from the following options. 
(a) Establishing a unitary form of government. 
(b) Centralized political control of government. 
(c) Establishing cultural and educational matters of Dutch. 
(d) Accommodating linguistic and regional interest.  (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: (d)
The primary objective of power-sharing arrangements in Belgium was to accommodate the diverse linguistic and regional interests of the country’s population, which includes Dutch-speaking, French-speaking, and a small German-speaking community. Belgium implemented a complex system of power sharing that allowed each linguistic group representation in the government to ensure peace and equality among communities, thus promoting social harmony and political stability.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Accommodating linguistic and regional interest.


Q2: Why is power sharing desirable? Explain.  (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Power sharing is desirable because it helps in maintaining peace, stability, and fairness within a society. Here’s why:

  • Prevents Conflict: Power sharing ensures that no single group dominates over others. This helps in reducing conflicts and tensions between different communities or groups, which might otherwise arise if one group holds too much power.
  • Promotes Democracy: Power sharing is a key feature of a democratic system. It ensures that people from different backgrounds (such as ethnic, religious, or social groups) have a say in decision-making, making the system more inclusive.
  • Encourages Cooperation: When power is shared, different groups are encouraged to cooperate and work together for the common good. This leads to more balanced and fair policies.
  • Protects Minority Rights: Power sharing helps protect the rights of minority groups by ensuring that they have representation in government and decision-making processes, preventing their interests from being ignored.
  • Ensures Political Stability: When different groups feel included in the governance process, it leads to greater political stability and reduces the chances of unrest or rebellion.

In summary, power sharing is desirable because it promotes fairness, reduces conflicts, supports democracy, and ensures that all groups have a voice in the political system.


Q3:  Which of the following was the primary objective of Belgium to form the separate government in Brussels?  (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
Promoting cultural events. 
(b) Managing international relations. 
(c) Enforcing local laws. 
(d) Ensuring linguistic accommodation. 

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Ans: (d) Ensuring Linguistic accommodation. 
Belgium created a separate government in Brussels primarily to ensure linguistic accommodation between its two main communities: the Dutch-speaking Flemish and the French-speaking Walloons. Brussels, being a bilingual city, required a system that could manage the linguistic diversity in the region and ensure that both linguistic groups were fairly represented and their cultural needs met. This system of accommodation helped in reducing tensions between the Flemish and Walloon communities.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q4: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Sri Lanka adopted ‘Tamil’ as the official language of the State.
Reason (R): The Government of Sri Lanka adopted a series of majoritarian measures.    (2023)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

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Ans: (d)

Assertion (A): This is false. Sri Lanka adopted Sinhala, not Tamil, as the sole official language of the state in 1956, through the Sinhala Only Act. This led to discontent among the Tamil-speaking minority.

Reason (R): This is true. The Government of Sri Lanka did adopt a series of majoritarian measures, such as making Sinhala the official language and prioritizing Sinhala speakers in state employment and education, which marginalized the Tamil community.


Q5: Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option.
I. It deepens democracy.
II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups.
III. It is a way to ensure political stability.
IV. It brings socio-economic struggles.    (2023)
(a) I, II and III
(b) III, Ill and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

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Ans: (a)
I. It deepens democracy: Power sharing allows various groups to participate in governance, making the political system more inclusive and democratic.

II. It helps to reduce conflicts among social groups: By giving different social groups a stake in political power, it reduces the chances of conflict, as everyone feels represented.

III. It is a way to ensure political stability: When power is shared among various groups, it promotes stability because it prevents any one group from dominating and causing unrest.

IV. This statement is incorrect: Power sharing aims to address socio-economic struggles rather than create them.


Q6: Consider the following statements on Power Sharing and choose the correct option :
(I) Majoritarianism is the real spirit of democracy.
(II) It creates balance and harmony in different groups.
(III) It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups.
(IV) Power sharing is the essence of democracy.        (2023)
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, III and IV
(d) I, II and IV

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Ans: (b)

II. It creates balance and harmony in different groups: Power sharing helps ensure that different social groups can coexist peacefully by allowing them to have a voice in governance.

III. It reduces the possibility of conflict among social groups: By sharing power, it addresses the concerns of various groups, which helps prevent tensions and conflicts from escalating.

IV. Power sharing is the essence of democracy: In a democracy, it is crucial for different groups to have representation and influence in decision-making processes.

is incorrect because majoritarianism, which favors the majority, can undermine the rights and voices of minority groups, thus not reflecting the true spirit of democracy.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q7: Which one of the following elements is NOT included in the Belgium model? (Term-1,2021-22)
(a) Dutch and French speaking ministers shall be equal in the government.
(b) Many powers of the central government have been given to state governments.
(c) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation.
(d) There is a community government which has special powers of administration.

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Ans: (d)
There is a community government in Belgium, but it does not have “special powers of administration” in the way implied. Instead, it is responsible for cultural, educational, and language-related matters, ensuring that the needs of each linguistic community are respected. Hence, this option is not accurate in describing the Belgium model.


Q8: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Majority community is dominant in a few democratic states.
Reason (R): Dominance can undermine the unity of the country. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

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Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. In some democratic states, the majority community can dominate decision-making, which may marginalise minority groups.

Reason (R): This is true. When the majority excludes or sidelines minorities, it can lead to dissatisfaction and conflict, threatening the country’s unity and stability.


Q9: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A)  and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): The distrust between Sinhalese and  Tamil communities turned into widespread conflict in Sri Lanka
Reason (R): 1956 Act recognised Sinhala as the only official language. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

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Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. The distrust between the Sinhalese and Tamil communities in Sri Lanka escalated into widespread conflict, culminating in a brutal civil war.

Reason (R): This is true. The 1956 Act, which made Sinhala the sole official language, was one of the key majoritarian measures taken by the Sinhalese-dominated government. This decision marginalized the Tamil community and fueled their resentment, leading to tensions and eventually violent conflict.


Q10: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.
Assertion (A): Power-sharing is good.
Reason (R): It helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between social groups. (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.

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Ans: (a)

Assertion (A): This is true. Power-sharing is considered beneficial as it promotes inclusivity and ensures that all groups in society have a voice in governance.

Reason (R): This is true. Power-sharing reduces the likelihood of conflict by addressing the grievances of different social groups, thereby fostering harmony and stability.


Q11: What is NOT an integral part of the government? (Term-1, 2021-22)
(a) Office of the Prime Minister
(b) Legislature
(c) Executive
(d) Judiciary 

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Ans: (a)
While the Office of the Prime Minister is an important position in the government, it is not a separate branch or integral part of the government structure itself. The three main integral parts of the government are the Legislature (which makes laws), the Executive (which enforces laws), and the Judiciary (which interprets laws). The Prime Minister operates within the executive branch but does not represent a distinct part of the government like the others.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q12: 59 percent of the total population of Belgium live in the ______ region. (2021 C)

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Ans: 59 percent of the total population of Belgium live in the Flemish region.


Q13: How did the Belgium government accommodate the social differences? (2021 C)

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Ans: The Belgian government has implemented a unique model to accommodate its social differences:

  • Equal representation: Both Dutch and French-speaking populations have equal representation in the central government.
  • Federal structure: Belgium is a Federal state, granting significant powers to state governments.
  • Independent state governments: State governments operate independently and are not subordinate to the central government.
  • Community government: There is a separate government for each language community, handling cultural and educational matters.
Also read: Extra Questions: Power-sharing

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q14: Which one of the following is a major religious group of Sri Lanka? (2020)  
(a) Christian and Tamil
(b) Buddhist and Hindu
(c) Sinhali and Tamil
(d) Sinhali and Christian

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Ans: (b)
In Sri Lanka, the major religious groups are primarily linked to the two main religions: Buddhism and Hinduism. The question asks for a major religious group in Sri Lanka. While “Sinhali and Tamil” represent the two primary ethnic groups in Sri Lanka, they are not religious groups. “Christian and Tamil” is also incorrect as Tamil is an ethnic group, not a religion. Buddhism and Hinduism are the major religions practiced in Sri Lanka. The Sinhala people, who mostly practice Buddhism, form a significant part of the population, while the Tamil community, which includes many Hindus, is also a major group. Thus, Buddhism and Hinduism represent the prominent cultural and religious identities among the different caste groups in the country.

Q15: Under which of the following is power shared in the ‘Community Government’ of Belgium? (2020)
(a) Different social groups
(b) Different organs of government
(c) Central and State government
(d) State government and Community government 

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Ans: (a)
In Belgium, the Community Government is designed to represent and share power among different social groups, such as linguistic communities (like the Flemish and French speakers). This system ensures that the diverse interests and identities within the country are recognized and that each group has a say in governance, promoting unity and reducing conflict among them.


Q16: State any one step taken in Belgium to rule out the problem of regional differences and cultural diversities. (2020)

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Ans: Equal representation in the central government is a key step taken in Belgium to address regional differences and cultural diversities. 
The following measures have been implemented:

  • The constitution mandates that the number of Dutch and French-speaking ministers in the central government is equal.
  • Special laws require support from a majority of members from each linguistic group for certain decisions.
  • State governments have been granted significant powers, operating independently of the central government.
  • Brussels has a separate government that ensures equal representation for both communities.


Q17: The Belgium model of ‘Community government’ worked well because_______ (2020 C)

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Ans: The Belgium model of ‘Community government’ worked well because it recognized the belonging of individuals to one language community.

This approach has several advantages:

  • It promotes cultural identity by acknowledging the distinct languages spoken.
  • It allows for tailored governance that addresses the unique needs of each community.
  • It helps to maintain social harmony and prevent conflicts between different linguistic groups.

Overall, this model has contributed to a stable and inclusive political environment in Belgium.


Q18: Describe the horizontal power-sharing arrangements. (2020)

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Ans: Horizontal power-sharing involves the distribution of power among various branches of government. 
The key features are:

  • Power is shared among different organs of government, including the legislatureexecutive, and judiciary.
  • Each organ exercises distinct powers, ensuring that no single organ can dominate.


Q19: Why is there a need to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a democratic country? Give any one reason. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: It is necessary to give space to diverse social groups in the administration of a country to avoid majoritarianism, accumulation of power in the hands of a particular social group which would lead to social conflicts.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q20: Why was there an acute problem in Brussels during 1950s and 1960s between the two communities? (2019 C)

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Ans: During the 1950s and 1960s, tensions arose in Brussels between the two main communities in Belgium due to several factors:

  • The French-speaking community was a minority but was relatively wealthy and influential.
  • The Dutch-speaking community felt resentment as they had access to economic development and education much later.
  • Brussels posed a unique challenge: While the Dutch-speaking people were the majority in the country, they were a minority in the capital.


Q21: Explain the major repercussions of passing Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka in 1956. (2019 C)

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Ans: The major repercussion of passing Sinhala as the only official language in Sri Lanka in 1956 was the increase in the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils. This led to the launch of parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official language.


Q22: Explain any one benefit of ‘Power-Sharing’. (AI2019)

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Ans: Power-sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflicts between different social groups. A social conflict often leads to violence and political instability. Power sharing helps to ensure the stability of political order.


Q23: How did the idea of power-sharing emerge? Explain different forms that have common arrangements of power-sharing.  (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: The idea of power-sharing has emerged contrary to the notions of undivided political power. Earlier, it was believed that all powers of a government must reside in one person or group located in one place. It was felt that if the power to decide was dispersed, it would not be possible to make quick decisions and enforce them. However, these notions have changed with the emergence of democracy.
Different forms that have common arrangements of Power Sharing:

  • Horizontal power-sharing: This involves distributing power among different branches of government, such as the legislature, executive, and judiciary. Each branch checks the others, preventing any one branch from having unlimited power and ensuring a balance among institutions.
  • Vertical power-sharing: This refers to the division of power between different levels of government, such as the central government and state governments. In India, the constitution defines the powers of each level, ensuring clarity in governance.
  • Empowering social groups: Power can also be shared among various social groups, including religious and linguistic minorities. An example of this is the system of reserved constituencies in assemblies and Parliament, which aims to give minority communities a fair representation.
  • Political parties and pressure groups: Power-sharing is evident in how political parties, pressure groups, and social movements influence those in power. This competition helps prevent power from being concentrated in a single entity, allowing for diverse representation of ideologies and social interests.


Q24: Explain with examples the accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony.  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: The accommodative experience of Belgium for peace and harmony:
(1) Dutch and French speaking ministers got equal say and powers in the central government. 
(2) Many Powers of the central government have been transferred to state government. 
(3) The State government is no longer subordinate to the Central government. This helped in delegation of duties. 
(4) Brussels has a separate government in which both the communities have equal representation. 
(5) There is a third kind of government called community government elected by the people belonging to Dutch, French and German communities no matter where they live.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q25: Explain the three measures taken by Sri Lanka, as per the Act passed in 1956. (2017)

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Ans: The three measures taken by Sri Lanka under the Act passed in 1956 are:

  • The government declared  Sinhala as the only official language, ignoring Tamil.
  • Preferential policies were implemented, favouring Sinhala applicants for university positions and government jobs.
  • A new Constitution mandated that the state would protect and promote Buddhism.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q26: How and when was Sinhala recognized as the official language of Sri Lanka?   (2016)

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Ans: 

  • Sinhala was officially recognised as the only language of Sri Lanka through an Act passed in 1956.
  • This decision established Sinhala as the sole official language.
  • It disregarded the Tamil language, leading to significant political and social implications.
  • Subsequent government policies favoured Sinhala speakers in education and employment.


Q27: What is the prudential reason behind power-sharing? (2016)

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Ans: The prudential reason for power-sharing is to avoid the concentration of power in one individual or group. 
This is important because:

  • It helps prevent authoritarianism, where one party has unchecked control.
  • It reduces the risk of oppression of minority groups.
  • Power-sharing promotes political stability and peace.


Q28: What does ‘the system of checks and balances’ ensure in power-sharing? (2016)

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Ans: The system of checks and balances ensures that:

  • No single individual or institution can hold unlimited power.
  • It prevents the abuse of power by distributing authority.
  • It protects the rights and interests of various groups within society.


Q29: Mention any one characteristic of power-sharing. (2016)

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Ans: One characteristic of power-sharing is the sharing of power between different levels of government or between different communities or groups within a society.


Q30: How is the ethnic composition of Belgium very complex? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: The ethnic composition of Belgium is complex for several reasons:

  • Approximately 59% of the population resides in the Flemish region and speaks Dutch.
  • About 40% live in the Wallonia region and communicate in French.
  • Only 1% of Belgians speak German.
  • In Brussels, 80% of the population speaks French, while 20% speak Dutch.


Q31: How did Sri Lanka and the Belgium government try to solve the ethnic problem? (2016)

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Ans: Sri Lanka and the Belgium government tried to solve the ethnic problem in different ways:
(i) The Belgium government respected the feelings and interests of different communities and regions, establishing a federal structure and power-sharing between the Union Government and its constituent units.
(ii) Sri Lanka adopted majoritarianism, passing an Act in 1956 to recognize Sinhala as the only official language, favoring Sinhala applicants for positions, and protecting and fostering Buddhism through the Constitution. 


Q32: “Attempts at forced integration often sow the seeds of disintegration”. Support the statement with suitable arguments. (2016)

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Ans: Forced integration can lead to disintegration due to the following reasons:

  • Integration through force can create feelings of resentment and conflict among different regions or communities.
  • Sharing power and resources often raises fears of domination by one group over another.
  • People prefer to maintain their autonomy rather than being overshadowed by others.
  • Historical examples, such as the breakup of the USSR, illustrate the negative effects of forced integration.

Therefore, integration should be based on harmonious and cooperative terms rather than coercion.


Q33: “Sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united.” Do you agree with this statement and why? (2016)  

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Ans: Yes, I agree with the statement that the sharing of powers makes a country more powerful and united. This is because:
(i) Power-sharing ensures that no single community or group dominates the decision-making process, promoting inclusivity and fairness.
(ii) It allows for the representation of diverse interests and perspectives, leading to better policies and governance.
(iii) Power-sharing can prevent the marginalization of certain communities or regions, reducing conflicts and promoting social cohesion.
(iv) By distributing power, it strengthens the democratic principles of participation, accountability, and checks and balances.


Q34: Why is power-sharing necessary in democracy? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: Power-sharing is necessary in democracy for several reasons:

  • Conflict Reduction: It helps to minimise conflicts between different social groups.
  • Political Stability: Power-sharing promotes a stable political environment, reducing the risk of violence and instability.
  • Unity Preservation: Imposing the will of the majority can seem appealing but ultimately harms national unity.
  • Majority Tyranny: The oppression of minorities can lead to negative consequences for the majority as well.
  • Democratic Spirit: True democracy involves sharing power with those affected by its exercise, ensuring that citizens have a say in governance.
  • Legitimacy: A legitimate government is one where citizens participate and have a stake in the system.
Also read: Extra Questions: Power-sharing

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q35: Which factor is responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamil? (2015)

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Ans: The majoritarianism policy in Sri Lanka has significantly increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils
Key points include:

  • The policy favoured the Sinhalese community, leading to feelings of exclusion.
  • It resulted in discrimination in political rights and job opportunities for Tamils.
  • Government actions ignored the interests of the Tamil population.

These factors contributed to a growing sense of alienation among the Sri Lankan Tamils.


Q36: Which type of powers does the community government of Belgium enjoy? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The community government of Belgium enjoys cultural and educational powers, as well as issues related to language.


Q37: State any two measures adopted by Sri Lanka in 1956 as part of their majoritarian policy. (2015)

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Ans: Two measures adopted by Sri Lanka in 1956 as part of their majoritarian policy were:
(i) They declared Sinhala as an official language.
(ii) They tried to promote their religion, Buddhism.


Q38: What system of power-sharing is called “Checks and Balances”? (2015)

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Ans: The system of power-sharing called “Checks and Balances” refers to the distribution of powers among different institutions of government, where each institution has the ability to check the actions of the others to ensure a balance of power.


Q39: Give reasons why power-sharing is desirable. (2015)

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Ans: Power-sharing is desirable for several reasons:

  • Prevents domination: It stops one community from overpowering others, promoting equality.
  • Encourages inclusivity: It accommodates diverse interests and identities, fostering social harmony.
  • Reduces conflict: It lowers the chances of tensions and disputes between communities.
  • Strengthens democracy: It ensures participation, accountability, and checks in decision-making.
  • Improves governance: It allows better representation and responsiveness to citizens’ needs.


Q40: What is a Homogenous Society? (CBSE 2015)  

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Ans: It is a society which shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. For example, Japan and South Korea.

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q41: Who formed the majority in terms of population in Sri Lanka? (2014)

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Ans: The majority of the population in Sri Lanka is formed by the Sinhala community.


Q42: What is the state religion of Sri Lanka? (2014)

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Ans: The state religion of Sri Lanka is Buddhism.


Q43: In which city is the headquarters of the European Union located? (2014)

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Ans: The headquarters of the European Union is located in Brussels.

07. Previous Year Questions: Lifelines of National Economy

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: How did improvement in transportation technology stimulate the globalisation process? Explain.  (2 Marks) 

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Ans: 

  • Improvement in transportation technology made the movement of goods and services faster, cheaper, and more efficient across countries.
  • Modern means of transport such as roadways, railways, airways, and waterways reduced time and distance barriers, expanding trade beyond limited spaces and turning the world into a “large village,” thereby accelerating the process of globalisation.


Q2: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor.
(ii) Name the leading state in coffee production.
(iii) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.
(iv) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans:
(i) The eastern terminal station of the East-West Corridor is Silchar in Assam.
(ii) The leading state in coffee production is Karnataka.
(iii) The place where a nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh is Narora.
(iv) The place where a major sea port is located in Odisha is Paradwip.


Q3: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) 
Name the place where an international airport is located in West Bengal.
(ii) Name the place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka.
(iii) Name the place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra.
(iv) Name the place where a major sea port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans:
(i) The place where an international airport is located in West Bengal is Kolkata.
(ii) The place where a software technology park is located in Karnataka is Bengaluru.
(iii) The place where a nuclear power plant is located in Maharashtra is Tarapur.
(iv) The place where a major sea port is located in Odisha is Paradwip.


Q4: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(a)
 Name the place where the major dam is located on the Chenab river.
(b) Name the place where Nuclear Power Plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Name the place where a major Software Technology Park is located in Karnataka.
(d) Name the place where a major Sea Port is located in Odisha.  

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Ans: 
(a) The major dam located on the Chenab River is the Salal Dam in Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) The Nuclear Power Plant located in Uttar Pradesh is at Narora.
(c) The major Software Technology Park in Karnataka is located at Bengaluru.
(d) The major Sea Port located in Odisha is Paradwip.

Q5: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the leading state in production of rice.
(ii) Name the place where coal-mines are located in Tamil Nadu.
(iii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Karnataka.
(iv) Name the oil field located in Maharashtra.

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Ans: 
(i) The leading state in the production of rice is West Bengal.
(ii) The place where coal mines are located in Tamil Nadu is Neyveli.
(iii) The major sea port located in Karnataka is New Mangalore Port.
(iv) The oil field located in Maharashtra is Mumbai High.

Q6: Attempt any three questions:  (3 Marks)
(i) Name the place where an International Airport is located in Punjab.
(ii) Name the place where major sea port is located in Gujarat.
(iii) Name an oil field of India located in Arabian Sea.
(iv) Name the place where nuclear power plant is located in Uttar Pradesh.

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Ans:
(i) The place where an international airport is located in Punjab is Amritsar.
(ii) The major sea port located in Gujarat is Deendayal Port (Kandla).
(iii) The oil field of India located in the Arabian Sea is Mumbai High.
(iv) The nuclear power plant located in Uttar Pradesh is Narora.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: How are waterways an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India? Explain. (2023)

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Ans: Waterways is an important mode of transport for both passenger and cargo traffic in India.
(i) The most ancient mode of water transport includes rivers, canals, lakes and coastal areas. Cargo as well as passenger was transported from one place to another through boats and steamers.
(ii) Heavy and bulky goods being exported or imported are easier for trans-shipment from water ways to ship on the coast as the waterways led to ports.
(iii) Inland waterways are the only means of transport in dense forests. Also, heavy cargo goods like coal, cement, timber and metallic ores can be transported through this mode.
(iv) It is fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport, so it most suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods and people over long distance.
(v) Its importance has been recognised in the developed world for both domestic and international trade. Efforts have been made to modify rivers to enhance navigability by dredging, stabilising river banks, and building dams and barrages for better regulation of water flow.


Q2: Explain the important features of Air Transport in India. (2023)

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Ans: (i) The air travel, today, is the fastest, most comfortable and prestigious mode of transport.
(ii) It can cover very difficult terrains like high mountains, dreary deserts, dense forests, and long oceanic stretches with great ease, serving India (varied relief and terrain) adequately.
(iii) In India, it is because of air travel that visits to the north-eastern part of the country marked by dissected relief, big rivers, dense forests, frequent floods and international frontiers has become much convenient and easier,
(iv) Air transport is essential in providing for import and export of various goods.
(v) It also provides for quick relief measures and rescue operations in difficult times of natural calamities and disasters.
The advancement in the means of air transport has proved to be of great importance to the efficiency of the Indian economy as a whole. From increasing the popularity of tourist destinations to the role of a lifesaver during emergency situations, it has significantly added to the vitality of the Indian Economy.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q3: Read the following table and answer the question that follow:
The Indian Railway nework

(I) Which gauge covers maximum of track length in hilly areas in India? 
(II) Which gauge has the highest length in India?    (2022)

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Ans: 


Q4: Read the source given below carefully and answer the questions that follow: 
Lifelines of National Economy 
For a long time, trade and transport were restricted to a limited space. With the development in science and technology, the area of influence of trade and transport expanded far and wide. Today, the world has been converted into a large village with the help of efficient and fast moving transport. Transport has been able to achieve this with the help of equally developed communication system. Therefore, transport, communication and trade are complementary to each other. Today, India is well linked with the rest of the world despite its vast size, diversity and linguistic and socio-cultural plurality. Railways, airways, waterways, newspapers, radio, television, cinema and internet, etc. have been contributing to its socioeconomic progress in many ways. The trades from local to international levels have added to the vitality of its economy. It has enriched our life and added substantially to growing amenities and facilities for the comforts of life.
(i) How is science an important factor in the development of transport?
(ii) How has transport integrated socio-cultural plurality? Explain.
(iii) Analyse the significance of communication for a nation.  (Term-2,2021-22)

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Ans: (i) Today transport is cheaper, carries goods farther and get us to our destination easily. It is an outcome of science that improved and developed the operational characteristics such as speed, affordability, price, etc.
(ii) Transport integrated the socio-cultural plurality by efficiently moving goods and people from one place to another.
(iii) Communication helps in quick transmission of ideas, information and messages from person to person and from one place to another. It has connected all regions of a nation and all nation with the world. Well-developed communication also gives boost to transport system of a nation.


Q5: Read the following source and answer the questions that follows:
Tourism
Tourism in India has grown substantially over the last three decades. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism. There is a vast potential for development of tourism in all parts of the country. Efforts are being made to promote different types of tourism for this upcoming industry.
(i) Explain the importance of tourism. 
(ii) Give an example of ‘Heritage tourism’.
(iii) Assess the benefits of improving tourism in India.  (Term-2,2021-22)

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Ans: (i) Tourism boosts the revenue of the economy, creates thousands of jobs, develops the infrastructures of a country, and plants a sense of cultural exchange between foreigners and citizens.
(ii) Monuments like Qutub minar, Taj mahal, etc. are examples of cultural heritage.
(iii) Tourism has great capacity to create large scale employment of diverse kind – from the most specialised to the unskilled. Tourism can only be sustainable when it is carefully managed. It helps to preserve several places which are of historical importance by declaring them as heritage site. Tourism can also help in conserving the natural habitats of many endangered species.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q6: Match the following and select the correct option:


(a) I – 1, II – 2, III – 3, IV – 4
(b) I – 2, II – 3, III – 1, IV – 4
(c) I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV -1
(d) I – 4, II – 3, III – 1, IV – 2

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Ans: (c)
I – 4, II – 3, III – 2, IV -1

  • Kandla (I) is located in Gujarat (4), and it’s one of the major ports on the west coast of India.
  • Tuticorin (II) is in Tamil Nadu (3) and serves as an important port for trade and fishing.
  • Paradwip (III) is located in Odisha (2) and is known for its deep-water harbor, primarily used for exporting iron ore.
  • Haldia (IV) is in West Bengal (1) and is a significant port for handling cargo and shipping.
Also read: NCERT Textbook: Lifelines of National Economy

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q7: Which is the oldest artificial sea port of India? (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Chennai


Q8: Name the first major sea port developed soon after Independence on the Western Coast. (2020)

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Ans: Kandla port was developed soon after independence, jion the western coast.


Q9: Name the inland riverine major sea port of India. (2020)

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Ans: Kolkata port is the inland riverine major port of India.


Q10: Which is the deepest, landlocked and well-protected sea port of India? (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Visakhapatnam


Q11: Which organization is responsible for constructing and maintaining State Highways in India? (2020)

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Ans: Border roads have improved the accessibility in areas of strategic importance and of difficult terrain. They also helped in the economic development of these areas.


Q12: Name the organization that constructs and maintains the District Roads. (2020)

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Ans: State Public Works Department (SPWD)


Q13: Suggest any one way to enhance pilgrimage tourism through Indian Railways. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Railways for enhancing pilgrimage -Pilgrim special tourist train, by providing tourist packages, by making different boarding and de-boarding stations.


Q14: “Rail transport suffers from certain problems in India.” Support the statement with examples. (2020)

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Ans: Problems faced by railway transport:-
(i) Indian railway receives low investment as compared to other departments.
(ii) It has also faced a problem as sinking of track in some stretches and land slides.
(iii) Poor infrastructure such as old track, poor quality of food etc.


Q15: “Efficient means of transport are pre-requisites for fast development.” Express your views in favor of this statement. (2020, Delhi 2016)

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Ans: We need various things to sustain our lives in the form of goods, services and support systems. The same applies to all occupational activities. Each of the requirements cannot be in the close vicinity of our place of living. We need to move the goods and services from the supply localities to the demand localities and this is done by the transportation system. We also need efficient transportation for people to reach their places of work, play and learning efficiently. All these activities, which are integral in the economic growth of the local population and the country as a whole is greatly dependent on the transport sector. Thus a dense and efficient network of transportation is a pre-requisite for local and national development. Examples are as follows:
(i) Fast and efficiently moving transport is required for traded items to reach their destinations on time, otherwise business will suffer.
(ii) Transport is required to carry raw materials to production centres.
(iii) From manufacturing hubs to market particularly for perishable goods.


Q16: Describe the growing importance of road transport. (2020)

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Ans: The growing importance of road transport:
(i) Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines.
(ii) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography.
(iii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains such as the Himalayas.
(iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances. (v) It also provides door-to-door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.


Q17: Suggest any one way to improve the postal system in India. (2020)

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Ans: Use of technology in the postal system, such as digitalization, automation, and online tracking services.


Q18: “Communication provides entertainment and creates awareness among masses”. Justify the statement. (2020 C)

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Ans: Communication refers to convey messages and ideas between individuals or masses. They provide entertainment and create awareness among the masses and integrated the people in the following ways:
(i) Everyday at regular intervals, we hear or watch the news on the radio and television.
(ii) News are given on variety of subjects and topics and people come to know what is happening in the society, politics and economy.
(iii) Doordarshan, the national television channel of India, is one of the largest terrestrial networks in the world. It broadcasts a variety of programmes for entertainment, educational, sport etc. for people of different age groups.
(iv) People are entertaining through watching videos, feature films and short films.
(v) India is one the fastest growing mobile networks in the world. Mobile phones have change the way of business. Now, even low-income group people like vegetable vendors, plumbers and carpenters do better businesses because they are connected through mobile phones.


Q19: “Tourism in India provides large amount of employment and promotes national integration.” Justify the statement. (2020 C)

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Ans: There has been a sustained growth in tourism in India over the last three decades. More than 15 million people are directly engaged in the tourism industry. Over 10 million foreign tourists arrived in India in 2017. Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits. It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco- tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.

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Previous Year Questions 2019

Q20: “Roadways still have an edge over railways in India.” Support the statement with examples. (2020 C, Delhi 2019, Al 2016)

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Ans: Roadways still have an edge over the railways. This is because: 
(i) 
Construction cost of roads is much lower than that of railway lines and construction time is also comparatively less.
(ii) Roads can traverse comparatively more dissected and undulating topography which is a limitation in case of railways.
(iii) Roads can negotiate higher gradients of slopes and as such can traverse mountains like the Himalayas, whereas the mountainous regions are unfavourable for the construction of railway lines due to high relief. Similarly it is difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains in the deserts, swampy or forested tracks.
(iv) Road transport is economical in transportation of few persons and relatively smaller amount of goods over short distances, whereas railways are suitable for transportation of large number of people and goods in bulk, especially over long distances.
(v) Roadways provide the “last mile connectivity” and provide the door to door service, thus the cost of loading and unloading is much lower.
(vi) Road transport is the idea to feeder mode of transport to other modes of transport such as they provide a link between railway stations, air and seaports.


Q21: Highlight the significance of pipelines as a means of transportation, with suitable examples. (2019 C)

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Ans: Pipeline transport is the transportation of goods or materials through a pipe. In the past, pipes were used to transport water to cities and industries. Now, these are also used for transporting crude oil, petroleum products and natural gas from oil and natural gas fields to refineries, fertiliser factories and big thermal power plants. Solids can also be transported through a pipeline when converted into slurry.
The far inland locations of refineries like Barauni, Mathura, Panipat and gas based fertiliser plants have been functioning only because of pipelines. Initial cost of laying pipelines is high but subsequent running costs are minimal. It rules out trans-shipment losses or delays.


Q22: Highlight any five major problems faced by road transport in India. (2019 C)

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Ans: Road transportation in India faces a number of problems. Keeping in view the volume of traffic and passengers, the road network is inadequate. About half of the roads are unmetalled and this limits their usage during the rainy season.
The National Highways are inadequate too. Moreover, the roadways are highly congested in cities and most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.


Q23: Why is air travel preferred in North-Eastern States of India? Explain with examples. (2019 C)

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Ans: Factors that made air travel prominence in North- Eastern states in India.
(i) It can cover difficult terrains area like high mountains which are, by road difficult to reach.
(ii) The north-eastern part of the country marked with the presence of big rivers, dense forest and frequent floods and international frontiers has made the air travel important.
(iii) As per the geographical location of north-eastern states, the area known by road can be accessed to siliguri corridor (Sikkim) is the only route to connect with other parts of India. In this scenario, air travel is placed on utmost importance.


Q24: Describe any five benefits of tourism in India. (Al 2019)

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Ans: Tourism is very important for the Indian economy:
(i) According to the World Travel and Tourism Council tourism generated US$230 billion or 9.4% of the nation’s GDP in 2017 and supported 41.622 million jobs, 8% of its total employment. Over 10 million foreign tourists arrived in India in 2017.
(ii) Tourism also promotes national integration, provides support to local handicrafts and cultural pursuits.
(iii) It also helps in the development of international understanding about our culture and heritage. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, eco-tourism, adventure tourism, cultural tourism, medical tourism and business tourism.
(iv) The various industries that benefit from tourism are handicraft industry, sculpture, sea-shell, regional handloom etc.
(v) Hospitality is another sector that benefits tremendously from tourism. So does the transport sector including air, railways and road transport.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q25: Recognize the form of power sharing which is represented by the Community Government in Belgium. (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: The community government represented power sharing among different social groups like the religious and linguistic groups.

Also read: NCERT Textbook: Lifelines of National Economy

2017 & Rest of Years Questions

Q26: Name the river related to National Waterways No. 2. (Al 2017)

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Ans: The Brahmaputra river between Sadiya and Dhubri (891km)


Q27: Name the river which is related to National Waterways No. 1. (Al 2017)

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Ans: The Ganga river between Allahabad and Haldia (1620 km)


Q28: Name the state related to National Waterways No. 3. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans: Kerala

Q29: Examine with an example the role of means of transport and communication in making our life prosperous and comfortable. (Al 2017)

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Ans: Means of transport and communication play a crucial role in improving our lives and contributing to prosperity and comfort. Here’s an example to illustrate this:
Example: Online shopping and doorstep delivery
The advent of e-commerce platforms and efficient means of transportation have revolutionized the way we shop. Online shopping allows us to browse through a wide range of products from the comfort of our homes and make purchases with just a few clicks. The role of transportation in this context is to ensure the timely delivery of these products to our doorsteps.
Benefits:
1. Convenience: Online shopping eliminates the need to visit physical stores, saving time and effort. We can shop at any time, from anywhere, and have the products delivered to our desired location.
2. Wide selection: E-commerce platforms offer a vast range of products, giving us access to items that may not be available locally. This expands our choices and allows us to find specific products that meet our needs and preferences.
3. Competitive pricing: Online shopping often offers competitive prices and discounts compared to traditional retail stores. This enables us to find better deals and save money on our purchases.
4. Comfortable experience: By eliminating the need to travel and navigate crowded stores, online shopping provides a more comfortable and stress-free shopping experience. We can avoid long queues, parking hassles, and the physical strain of carrying heavy shopping bags.
Transportation and communication play a crucial role in the success of online shopping. Efficient transport systems ensure the timely delivery of products, while communication networks enable us to track our orders, receive notifications, and communicate with sellers if needed. This integration of transport and communication enhances the overall shopping experience, making our lives more prosperous and comfortable.


Q30: What is a new arrival on the transportation map of India? (2016)

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Ans: Pipeline transportation network, which transports gas, liquids, and solids in slurry form.


Q31: Elaborate any three advantages of railways in India. (2016)

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Ans: Railways in India offer several advantages that contribute to the country’s development. Here are three key advantages:
1. Efficient long-distance travel: Railways provide a reliable and efficient mode of transportation for long-distance travel. They offer comfortable and affordable options for individuals to commute between cities and towns.
2. Freight transportation: Railways are instrumental in transporting bulky goods and raw materials across the country. They have a higher carrying capacity compared to other modes of transport, making them ideal for the movement of heavy cargo.
3. Employment generation: The railway sector provides significant employment opportunities. From train operations to maintenance and infrastructure development, railways create jobs for a diverse range of professionals and laborers, contributing to economic growth and livelihoods.


Q32: What is pipeline transportation? Write two merits and demerits of the same. (2016)

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Ans: Pipeline transportation is a mode of transport that involves the movement of liquids, gases, or slurry through pipelines. Here are two merits and two demerits of pipeline transportation:
Merits:
1. Cost-effective: Once the pipeline network is established, the running costs are relatively low compared to other modes of transport. It requires minimal human intervention for operation.
2. Safety and efficiency: Pipelines offer a safe and reliable way to transport liquids and gases, minimizing the risk of accidents and spillage. They also provide a continuous flow of materials without delays or trans-shipment losses.
Demerits:
1. High initial investment: The construction and establishment of pipeline networks require substantial upfront investment. This can be a significant financial barrier, especially for developing countries.
2. Limited versatility: Pipelines are primarily designed for the transportation of specific materials, such as oil, gas, or water. They may not be suitable for transporting a wide variety of goods, limiting their applicability in certain industries or regions.


Q33: How do modern means of transport serve as lifelines for our nation? Explain. (2016)

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Ans: Modern means of transport serve as lifelines for our nation in the following ways:
(i) Economic development: Transport and communication networks are essential for the economic development of a region or country. They connect areas of production with areas of consumption, facilitate the movement of goods and services, and support industrial growth.
(ii) Accessibility and connectivity: Modern means of transport provide accessibility and connectivity to remote areas, ensuring their integration into the national economy. They link villages with towns, connect agricultural areas with industrial centers, and enable trade and commerce across regions.
(iii) Social integration: Transport networks promote social integration by facilitating the movement of people, goods, and ideas. They enable cultural exchange, tourism, and the sharing of knowledge and experiences.
(iv) Emergency response: Modern means of transport play a crucial role in emergency response and disaster management. They enable the quick transportation of relief materials, rescue operations, and the evacuation of affected populations during natural calamities.
(v) National defense: Transport networks are vital for national defense and security. They ensure the rapid movement of troops, equipment, and supplies during times of war or crisis.
(vi) Employment generation: The transport sector creates employment opportunities in various fields, including logistics, maintenance, and administration. It contributes to both formal and informal sectors, supporting livelihoods and economic growth.


Q34: What is the major objective to develop superhighways? (2015)

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Ans: The major objective behind developing superhighways is to reduce the distance and travel time between large cities in India.


Q35: Why was Jawaharlal Nehru port developed? (2015)

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Ans: Jawaharlal Nehru port was developed to decongest the Mumbai port and serve as a hub for the region.


Q36: Why was the Haldia seaport set up? (2015)

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Ans: The Haldia seaport was set up as a subsidiary port to reduce the load on the Kolkata port.


Q37: Describe the rural roads in India. (2015)

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Ans: Rural roads in India are crucial for connecting rural areas and villages with important towns and cities. Here are some key features of rural roads in India:
1. Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana (PMGSY): The government of India launched the PMGSY to improve rural connectivity. Under this scheme, efforts are made to provide all-weather motorable roads to every village, ensuring accessibility throughout the year.
2. Connectivity: Rural roads aim to connect remote and isolated areas with major towns and cities. They promote accessibility to essential services such as healthcare, education, and markets.
3. Infrastructure: Rural roads are often built using cost-effective materials like gravel, crushed stone, or bitumen. They are designed to withstand the local weather conditions and accommodate the transportation needs of rural communities.


Q38: Describe any three features of waterways in India. (AI 2015)

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Ans: Waterways in India have unique features that make them an important mode of transport. Here are three key features of waterways in India:
1. Extensive network: India has a vast network of waterways, including rivers, canals, and coastal areas. These waterways cover a significant portion of the country, providing connectivity to various regions.
2. Cost-effective: Waterways are known for their cost-effectiveness, especially for bulk transportation. Compared to other modes of transport, such as road or rail, water transport is relatively cheaper, making it suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
3. Environment-friendly: Water transport has a lower carbon footprint compared to road or air transport. It is considered a more sustainable mode of transportation as it reduces greenhouse gas emissions and minimizes fuel consumption.


Q39: Describe any three factors that accord prominence to airways as a mode of transportation. (2015)

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Ans: Airways, or air transport, have several factors that make them prominent in the transportation sector. Here are three key factors:
1. Speed and efficiency: Airways are the fastest mode of transportation, allowing people and goods to reach their destinations quickly. Air travel significantly reduces travel time and enables businesses to operate more efficiently.
2. Accessibility to remote areas: Air transport plays a vital role in connecting remote and inaccessible areas. It allows people living in remote regions to access essential services and facilitates economic development in these areas.
3. Emergency response: Airways play a crucial role in emergency situations like natural disasters or medical emergencies. The ability to quickly transport relief materials, medical supplies, and personnel to affected areas can save lives and provide timely assistance.


Q40: Why are metalled roads better than unmetalled roads? What is the role of border roads and national highways in transportation? (2015)

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Ans: Metalled roads, also known as paved roads, offer several advantages over unmetalled roads. Here’s why metalled roads are better:
1. Durability: Metalled roads are made with materials like concrete, asphalt, or bitumen, making them more durable and resistant to wear and tear caused by traffic and weather conditions. They have a longer lifespan compared to unmetalled roads.
2. All-weather usability: Metalled roads can be used year-round, regardless of weather conditions. They can withstand heavy rains, floods, and other adverse weather events, providing reliable transportation throughout the year.
Border roads and national highways play vital roles in transportation:
1. Border roads: Border roads connect strategically important and challenging areas along the country’s borders. They aid in the movement of defense personnel, supplies, and equipment, ensuring the security and accessibility of border regions.
2. National highways: National highways are primary road networks that connect major cities, towns, and industrial centers across the country. They facilitate the movement of goods, services, and people on a large scale, supporting economic development and regional integration.


Q41: “Road transport and Rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to each other.” Justify the statement. (Foreign 2015)

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Ans: Road transport and rail transport in India are not competitive but complementary to each other due to the following reasons:
(i) Different capacities: Road transport is suitable for smaller amounts of goods and a few passengers over short distances, while rail transport is more efficient for bulk transportation and long-distance travel.
(ii) Accessibility and connectivity: Road transport provides last-mile connectivity, linking rural areas and towns to railway stations and other modes of transport. It acts as a feeder route for rail transport, ensuring accessibility to remote areas.
(iii) Flexibility: Road transport offers flexibility in terms of routes and schedules, allowing for quick and customized transportation. Rail transport, on the other hand, provides a fixed and reliable schedule for mass transportation.
(iv) Perishable goods: Road transport is ideal for the transportation of perishable goods over short distances, ensuring their freshness and quality. Rail transport is more suitable for non-perishable goods and bulk commodities.
(v) Cost-effectiveness: Road transport has lower construction and maintenance costs compared to rail transport. It is more economical for transportation over shorter distances and smaller quantities of goods.
(vi) Urban congestion: Road transport helps alleviate urban congestion by providing local transportation within cities and towns. It reduces the burden on rail transport in heavily populated areas.
(vii) Intermodal connectivity: Both road transport and rail transport are essential for intermodal connectivity, facilitating the seamless movement of goods and passengers between different modes of transport, such as ports, airports, and railway stations.

06. Previous Year Questions: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Explain the role of industries in increasing air pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce air pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Industries are one of the main causes of air pollution. Many factories release harmful gases and smoke into the air. The presence of gases like sulphur dioxide and carbon monoxide makes the air impure and dangerous for living beings. Smoke from chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries, and smelting plants, as well as from the burning of fossil fuels in factories, adds to the problem. These industries also release tiny solid and liquid particles such as dust, sprays, mist, and smoke into the atmosphere. This polluted air affects human health, damages plants and buildings, and harms the environment as a whole.

To reduce air pollution caused by industries, the following measures can be taken:

  • Install smoke stacks with devices such as electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators to trap dust and harmful particles before releasing gases into the air.
  • Use cleaner fuels like oil or gas instead of coal in factories to reduce smoke and soot.
  • Plant green belts around industrial areas to absorb pollutants and maintain clean air.

By adopting these steps, industries can help reduce air pollution and protect the environment.

Q2: Explain the role of industries in increasing water pollution and suggest any three measures to reduce water pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

Role of industries in increasing water pollution:

  • Industries release organic and inorganic wastes such as dyes, detergents, acids, salts, and heavy metals like lead and mercury into rivers and ponds.
  • Paper, pulp, chemical, textile, dyeing, petroleum refineries, tanneries, and electroplating industries are the main sources of water pollution.
  • These pollutants make water unsafe for drinking and harmful to aquatic life.
  • Thermal power plants discharge hot water into rivers and ponds without cooling, causing thermal pollution, which affects aquatic organisms.
  • Soil and water pollution are closely related, as rainwater carries pollutants from the soil into groundwater.

Measures to reduce water pollution:

  • Treat industrial effluents before releasing them into water bodies through primary, secondary, and tertiary treatment.
  • Reuse and recycle water in different stages of production to minimise wastage.
  • Harvest rainwater to meet water needs and reduce dependence on polluted or underground sources.

By applying these measures, industries can help reduce water pollution and protect the environment.

Q3: “Manufacturing industries are considered the backbone of the economic development of a country.” Justify the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Manufacturing industries are known as the backbone of economic development because they play a key role in the progress of a country.

  • Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture, which is the main occupation in India. They produce machines, irrigation pumps, fertilisers, pesticides, and tools that increase agricultural productivity and make farming more efficient.
  • These industries reduce dependence on agriculture by providing employment to many people in factories and service-related sectors. This helps in reducing unemployment and poverty in the country.
  • The growth of industries helps to reduce regional disparities by setting up factories in tribal and backward areas, thus promoting balanced regional development.
  • By exporting manufactured goods, the country earns valuable foreign exchange which strengthens trade and commerce.
  • Countries that convert their raw materials into a wide range of finished goods become more prosperous because finished products have higher value.

Therefore, manufacturing industries are essential for India’s growth as they support agriculture, create jobs, promote balanced development, and make the country economically strong.

Q4: “Agriculture and industries complement each other.” Justify the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Agriculture and industries complement each other by providing raw materials, markets, employment, and supporting economic development.

  • Raw Materials for Industries: Agriculture supplies raw materials like cotton, jute, and sugarcane to industries such as textiles, jute, and sugar, as emphasized in the chapter.
  • Market for Industrial Goods: Agricultural communities create demand for industrial products like fertilizers, pesticides, and machinery, boosting industrial growth.
  • Employment Opportunities: Both sectors generate jobs; agriculture supports rural livelihoods, while agro-based industries (e.g., food processing) employ both rural and urban workers.
  • Economic Development: The interdependence of agriculture and industry drives economic growth by ensuring a steady supply of raw materials and markets, as discussed in the chapter.

Q5: Explain the measures taken by ‘National Thermal Power Corporation’ to prevent environmental degradation.  (5 Marks) 

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Ans: The National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) has taken several important steps to prevent environmental degradation while generating power. It has also received ISO certification for Environment Management System (EMS 14001) for its efforts.

  1. NTPC follows a proactive approach to preserve natural resources such as water, oil, gas, and fuel in the areas where its power plants are located.
  2. It ensures the optimum use of equipment by adopting the latest technology and upgrading existing machinery to improve efficiency and reduce pollution.
  3. The corporation focuses on minimising waste generation and promotes maximum utilisation of ash produced in thermal power plants.
  4. NTPC has developed green belts around its plants to maintain ecological balance and support afforestation.
  5. It also works to reduce environmental pollution through ash pond management, ash water recycling systems, and liquid waste management.
  6. NTPC conducts ecological monitoring and maintains an online database for all its power stations to ensure environmental standards are met.

Through these measures, NTPC has set an example of how industrial growth can be achieved along with environmental protection.

Q6: Explain the importance of the manufacturing industry in the Indian economy.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The manufacturing industry plays a very important role in the growth and development of the Indian economy. It is considered the backbone of economic progress because of the following reasons:

  • Modernises agriculture: The manufacturing sector supports agriculture by producing machines, fertilisers, pesticides, irrigation pumps, and other tools that help farmers increase productivity and make farming more efficient.
  • Reduces dependence on agriculture: It provides jobs to a large number of people in the secondary and tertiary sectors, thus reducing the heavy dependence on agricultural income and helping to remove unemployment and poverty.
  • Promotes regional development: By setting up industries in tribal and backward areas, it helps reduce regional disparities and promotes balanced regional growth across the country.
  • Boosts foreign trade: The export of manufactured goods expands trade and brings in valuable foreign exchange, strengthening the country’s position in global markets.
  • Adds value to raw materials: Manufacturing converts raw materials into finished goods of higher value, which increases national income and prosperity.

Hence, the manufacturing industry is vital for India’s progress as it supports agriculture, creates employment, promotes regional balance, enhances exports, and strengthens the overall economy.

Q7: How do industries increase thermal pollution? Suggest any three measures to reduce thermal pollution.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: How industries increase thermal pollution:

  • Industries and thermal power plants often release hot water into rivers, ponds, and lakes without cooling it first.
  • This increases the temperature of water bodies, reducing the amount of dissolved oxygen in the water.
  • As a result, aquatic life such as fish and plants are harmed or even destroyed due to sudden temperature changes.
  • Continuous discharge of hot water disturbs the natural balance of aquatic ecosystems.

Measures to reduce thermal pollution:

  • Cool hot water before discharge — Industries should cool or treat hot water before releasing it into water bodies.
  • Reuse and recycle water — Water should be reused in different stages of industrial processes to reduce the amount of heated water being released.
  • Use modern and efficient equipment — Adopting advanced technologies and energy-efficient machinery can help reduce the generation of excess heat.

By following these measures, industries can significantly reduce thermal pollution and protect aquatic ecosystems.

Q8: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Most of the jute industry in India is located in a narrow belt along the banks of Hugli river.
Reason (R): India is the second largest exporter of jute.  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

It is true that most of the jute industry in India is located along the banks of the Hugli river in West Bengal. This is because of the availability of raw jute, cheap labour, water transport, rail and road connectivity, and abundant water for processing.
It is also true that India is the second largest exporter of jute, but this is not the reason for the industry’s location along the Hugli river.

Q9: On the same political outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following with suitable symbols :   (3 Marks)
(i) Leading state in production of Jute  
(ii) Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat  
(iii) Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand  
(iv) Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

Political Map of India

Ans: 

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Leading state in production of Jute: West Bengal

  • The chapter highlights that West Bengal is the leading state in jute production and jute-based industries, particularly due to its proximity to jute-growing areas and the availability of water for processing. Kolkata and its surrounding areas host major jute mills.

Atomic Power Plant located in Gujarat: Kakrapar

  • The Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a well-known nuclear power plant in Gujarat, located near Surat.

Iron and Steel Plant located in Jharkhand: Bokaro

  •  The chapter specifically mentions the Bokaro Steel Plant in Jharkhand as a major iron and steel plant, part of the Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL), located in the Chhota Nagpur plateau region, rich in mineral resources.

Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport

  • Sri Guru Ram Das Jee International Airport (Amritsar) is the third-largest airport in Northern India.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “The development process of India has experienced transformation due to the significant influence of Information Technology (IT) and Electronic Industry.” Explain the statement with examples.   (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: 

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(1) Products in the electronics sector range widely, from cell phones to televisions, and India’s development in these products and services has been significantly shaped by the Information Technology (IT) and electronics industry.
(2) India’s economy has changed and its GDP has increased dramatically as a result of the country’s emergence as a major global center for IT, especially in cities like Bangalore, Hyderabad, and Pune.
(3) The IT industry has boosted India’s reputation as a leading global technology destination and directly or indirectly generated millions of jobs. This growth was further accelerated by the “Make in India” initiative, which attracted foreign investments in the electronic sector and promoted domestic manufacturing.
(4) The rapidly expanding Business Process Outsourcing (BPO) sector in this industry has made it a significant source of foreign exchange earnings over the past two or three years.
(5) India’s competitiveness in the international market has increased as a result of the growth of the information technology and electronics industry.

IT Innovation

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Why does the textile industry occupy a unique position in the Indian economy? Explain. (2023)

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Ans: The textile industry holds a unique position in the Indian economy for several reasons:

  • It is the only industry that is self-reliant and complete in the value chain, covering everything from raw materials to finished products.
  • The industry generates demand for various sectors, including chemicals, dyes, packaging materials, and engineering.
  • It significantly contributes to industrial production, employment, and foreign exchange earnings.

Overall, the textile industry is vital for the growth and sustainability of the Indian economy.


Q3: Explain any three ways through which industrial pollution can be reduced. (2023)

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Ans: Three ways through which industrial pollution can be reduced are:

  • Use of Efficient Machinery: Equipping machinery and generators with silencers to reduce noise pollution.
  • Recycling Waste: Treat and recycle waste and effluents using biological and mechanical processes.
  • Install Pollution Control Devices: Fit factories with smoke screens, electrostatic precipitators, and scrubbers to minimise emissions.


Q4:  “Agriculture and industry move hand in hand.” Support the statement with examples. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: The agro-industries significantly enhance agriculture by boosting productivity. 
Here are some key points:

  • Supply of Inputs: Agro-industries provide essential tools and materials like irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, and machinery, enabling farmers to increase food production.
  • Transportation: These industries assist in transporting agricultural goods to markets and also consume these products.
  • Job Creation: Manufacturing industries modernise agriculture and create jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors, reducing reliance on agricultural income.
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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q5: Why is the iron and steel industry called the ‘basic industry’? Explain. (Term-ll, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: The iron and steel industry is referred to as a basic industry because:

  • It provides essential materials for various sectors.
  • It is crucial for producing engineering goods.
  • It supplies materials for constructiondefence, and medical equipment.
  • It supports the manufacturing of telephonic and scientific equipment.
  • It is a key component in creating a wide range of consumer goods.

Overall, the production and consumption of steel reflect a country’s development.


Q6: Explain the importance of the ‘cement’ industry. (Term-ll, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: The cement industry is crucial for various reasons:

  • Construction: It is vital for building homes, factories, bridges, and roads.
  • Economic Growth: With rising government spending, this industry significantly contributes to development.
  • Diverse Production: It produces various types of cement to meet different construction needs.


Q7: Read the case given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:      (2022)
NTPC shows the way

NTPC is a major power providing corporation in India. It has ISO certification for EMS (Environmental  Management System) 14001. The corporation has a pro-active approach for preserving the natural environment and resources like water, oil, gas and fuels in places where it is setting up power plants. This has been possible through
(a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment.
(b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
(c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.
(i) Which is the major power providing corporation in India?
(ii) Name the institution which issues ISO certification for Environment Management System.
(iii) Explain the pro-active approach of NTPC for preserving the natural environment. 

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Ans: (i) NTPC is the major power providing corporation in India, which is expanded as National Thermal Power Corporation.
(ii) An ISO certification in India can be issued by a third party certification body that is accredited by the National Accreditation Board of certification.
(iii) (a) Optimum utilisation of equipment adopting latest techniques and upgrading existing equipment,
(b) Minimising waste generation by maximising ash utilisation.
(c) Providing green belts for nurturing ecological balance and addressing the question of special purpose vehicles for afforestation.


Q8: How can the industrial pollution of fresh water be reduced?  (CBSE Term-2 2022)

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Ans: Industrial pollution of fresh water can be reduced by taking the following measures: 
(1) Minimise the usage of water by reusing and recycling it through multiple successive stages. 
(2) Compulsory treatment of hot water and effluents before releasing them in rivers and ponds.


Q9: Classify industries on the basis of raw materials.  (CBSE Term-2 2022)

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Ans: Industries can be classified based on the raw materials they use. 
The main categories are:

  • Agro-Based Industries: These industries rely on agricultural products, such as textiles, sugar, and edible oils.
  • Mineral-Based Industries: These industries use minerals and metals, including iron, steel, and cement.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q10: “Manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of a country.” Support the statement with examples. (2021 C, Foreign 2017)

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Ans: 

The manufacturing sector is considered the backbone of economic development.

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  • Support for Agriculture: The manufacturing sector provides essential inputs for agriculture, such as tractors, harvesting machines, and fertilizers, which modernise farming practices.
  • Employment Opportunities: Establishing industries in tribal and backward areas creates jobs, improving the economic status of local communities.
  • Value Addition: The sector enhances employment by adding value to goods. For instance, countries like the USA export finished products rather than raw materials.
  • Trade Expansion: Exporting manufactured goods boosts trade and generates foreign exchange, contributing to national prosperity.
  • Interdependence: Agriculture and industry complement each other. Agro-industries rely on agricultural raw materials and provide products that enhance farming efficiency.

Agro-Industrial Growth

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q11: Which of the following industries use bauxite as a raw material?   (2020)
(a) 
Cement
(b) Aluminium smelting
(c) Iron and steel
(d) Chemical   

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Ans: (b)
Bauxite is primarily used as a raw material in the production of aluminum through a process called smelting. It is rich in aluminum oxide, which is extracted to produce aluminum metal, making it essential for the aluminum industry. Other industries like cement and iron and steel do not use bauxite as their primary raw material.


Q12: Fill in the blank:
(i)  ___________ industry is used for manufacturing aircraft, utensils, and wires. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Aluminium industry.

(ii) Limestone, silica, alumina, and gypsum are the raw materials of ___________ industry. (2020)

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Ans: Cement industry.


Q13: Suggest any one measure to promote handspun khadi in India. (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Schemes for promoting khadi: Government should promote it by reducing cost of khadi.


Q14: Explain the ways through which the industrial pollution of fresh water can be reduced. (2020)

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Ans: When an industry discharges one litre of polluted water without any proper treatment, it can pollute at least eight times the quantity of freshwater. 
To reduce the pollution of water bodies the following action should be taken:
(i) Minimising water use for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) Harvesting of rainwater to meet water requirements.
(iii) Treating hot water and other effluents before releasing them in water bodies.
(iv) Overdrawing of ground water reserves by industry or even for agricultural purposes need to be regulated and a viable solution needs to be implemented.


Q15: Which one of the following is a private sector industry? 
(a) BHEL 
(b) TISCO 
(c) OIL 
(d) SAIL (CBSE 2020, 12)

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Ans: (b)
(a) BHEL (Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited): This is a public sector company owned by the Government of India.
(b) TISCO (Tata Iron and Steel Company, now Tata Steel): This is a private sector industry owned by the Tata Group.
(c) OIL (Oil India Limited): This is a public sector company.
(d) SAIL (Steel Authority of India Limited): This is also a public sector company.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) TISCO, as it is a private sector industry.

Also read: Infographics: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q16: Describe any five factors responsible for the concentration of iron and steel industry in and around Chota Nagpur Plateau region. (2019,2014)

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Ans: Iron and steel Industry called as the ‘basic industry’ because it is needed to manufacture a variety of engineering goods, construction materials, defence, medical, telephonic, scientific equipments and a variety of consumer goods.


Q17: How are industries responsible for environmental degradation in India? Explain with examples. (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Industries are responsible for environmental degradation in the following ways: 
(i) Many times pollution norms are not followed by the industries. The effluents are not treated before they discharge into air or water bodies. 
(ii) Toxic gas leaks can be very hazardous with long-term effects; as happened after the Bhopal Gas tragedy. Hence meticulous maintenance of equipment is necessary. 
(iii) Thermal pollution of water occurs when hot water from factories and thermal plants is drained into rivers and ponds before cooling; this greatly harms the aquatic plants and animals. 
(iv) They release toxic dyes, detergents, acids, salts and heavy metals like lead and mercury, various pesticides, fertilisers, synthetic chemicals, plastics and rubber etc., into the water bodies. 
(v) Mismanagement of wastes from nuclear power plants can cause cancers and birth defects.


Q18: Describe the importance of manufacturing industries as a backbone of economic development of the country. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: The manufacturing sector is considered as the backbone of economic development of a country because: 
(1) The manufacturing sector provides employment to a large number of people in the industrial as well as service sectors. 
(2) It helps in increasing agricultural productivity by modernising agriculture. 
(3) It also helps in minimising regional disparities by setting up industries in tribal and backward areas of the country.


Q19: ‘The challenge of sustainable development requires control over industrial pollution.’ Substantiate the statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (1) On one hand, Industries lead to extensive growth and expansion, on the other hand, these are also the cause of environmental degeneration. 
(2) There is an urgent need or requirement to use a more sustainable model.
(3) Industries must produce eco-friendly products and dump wastes responsibly. 
(4) Use of latest technology can help industries to control pollution and lead towards sustainable mode of operation.
(5) If necessary, dump waste in specified places, away from the land and water sources. Before dumping, treat well and make useful for other than drinking purpose, stop using thermal plants in some of the locations.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q20: Why is economic strength of a country measured by the development of manufacturing industries? (2018, Delhi 2016) 

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Ans: The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries because manufacturing plays a crucial role in the overall growth and development of an economy. Manufacturing industries contribute to several key aspects: 
1. Utilization of Natural Resources: The development of manufacturing industries allows for the efficient utilization of a country’s natural resources, leading to increased production and economic growth. 
2. Balanced Sectoral Development: Manufacturing industries help achieve a balanced sectoral development by reducing the over-dependence on the agricultural sector. This diversification strengthens the economy and reduces vulnerability. 
3. Enhanced Capital Formation: The growth of manufacturing industries leads to an increase in investment and capital formation. This, in turn, boosts economic growth and development. 
4. Increase in National Income and Foreign Exchange: Manufacturing industries contribute significantly to the national income of a country. Additionally, export-oriented manufacturing sectors generate foreign exchange, which strengthens the overall economy. 
5. Job Creation: The development of manufacturing industries creates job opportunities for a large section of the population, thereby reducing unemployment and poverty.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q21: Analyze the role of chemical industries in the Indian economy. (AI 2017) 

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Ans: The chemical industry plays a vital role in the Indian economy due to the following reasons: 
1. Contribution to GDP: The chemical industry is one of the fastest-growing sectors in India and contributes significantly to the country’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). It provides employment opportunities and generates income, contributing to economic growth. 
2. Export and Import: India ranks 9th in exports and 6th in imports of chemicals globally. The chemical industry contributes to foreign exchange earnings through exports of various chemical products. 
3. Diversification: The chemical industry in India is diversifying rapidly, with growth observed in both organic and inorganic sectors. It includes the production of petrochemicals, fertilizers, synthetic fibers, plastics, adhesives, and paints. This diversification strengthens the industrial base and promotes economic development. 
4. Value Addition: The chemical industry is a significant consumer of its own products. Value addition through various chemical processes adds to the overall economic output of the country. 
5. Employment Generation: The chemical industry provides direct and indirect employment opportunities to a large number of people. It supports various ancillary industries and contributes to job creation, reducing unemployment rates. 


Q22: Explain the contribution of the textile industry to the Indian economy. (Foreign 2017) 

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Ans: The textile industry has a significant contribution to the Indian economy in the following ways: 
1. Industrial Production: The textile industry is one of the largest contributors to industrial production in India. It encompasses various stages of the textile value chain, including spinning, weaving, dyeing, printing, and garment manufacturing. 
2. Employment Generation: The textile industry is a labor-intensive sector and provides employment to a large number of people, particularly in rural areas. It contributes to income generation and poverty reduction. 
3. Export Earnings: The textile industry is a major earner of foreign exchange through exports. India is one of the largest exporters of textiles globally. The industry’s export earnings help improve the country’s balance of trade. 
4. Market Demand: In a developing country like India, the textile industry plays a crucial role in meeting the domestic demand for clothing and textiles. It caters to the diverse needs of the population, providing affordable and fashionable clothing options. 
5. Ancillary Industries: The textile industry supports various ancillary industries such as cotton farming, dyeing, printing, packaging, and garment accessories. These industries contribute to the overall growth and development of the economy.


Q23: Explain with examples the interdependence of agriculture and industries. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The interdependence of agriculture and industries is based on many factors, such as adequate rainfall and good crops. Some examples are:
(i) When the rain fails and the crops fail, the industries suffer, and there are losses in businesses as the purchasing power falls.
(ii) If the cotton crops fail, the clothing industries suffer, and other industries also suffer.
(iii) If poultry farms do not produce enough eggs, the bakery industries that use eggs as their important ingredient also suffer.
(iv) Thus, the success and growth of agriculture are closely linked to the success and growth of industries.


Q24: How do industrial units cause air pollution? Explain. (CBSE 2017, 15)

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Ans: Industrial units cause air pollution in the following ways: 
(1) Industries that ignore pollution norms cause air pollution. They release high proportions of gases. 
(2) Air borne particulate materials contain both solid and liquid particles, which get released into the atmosphere during production. 
(3) Smoke is emitted by chemical and paper factories, brick kilns, refineries and smelting plants and burning of fossil fuels belong to the major polluting industries.

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Previous Year Questions 2016

Q25: Classify industries on the basis of the source of raw materials. How are they different from each other? (2016)

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Ans: On the basis of the sources of raw materials, industries are classified as:
(i) Agro-based Industries: These industries draw their raw materials from agricultural products. For example, textiles, sugar, coffee, tea, and edible oil.
(ii) Mineral-based Industries: These industries draw their raw materials from minerals. For example, iron and steel industries, cement, petrochemicals, etc.
While in agro-based industries, value addition is done at every stage; in the case of mineral-based industries, refining is a more important activity.


Q26: “The textile industry is the only industry in the country which is self-reliant and complete in the value chain.” Justify the statement. (Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The textile industry is considered self-reliant because products produced at each stage are used as raw materials for the next stage of production. The value chain refers to a number of activities that the industry performs right from the production of raw materials to the delivery of finished products. The textile industry completes this value chain within the country itself, without relying on imports or outsourcing. This self-reliance helps the industry maintain control over quality, costs, and timelines.


Q27: Classify industries on the basis of their main role. How are they different from each other? (Foreign 2016)

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Ans: Industries can be classified according to the role they play in the economy of the country. They are:
(i) Basic or Key Industries: These industries supply their products or raw materials to manufacture other goods. For example, iron and steel and copper smelting, aluminum smelting. These industries help in the establishment of other industries.
(ii) Consumer Industries: These industries produce goods for direct use by consumers. Examples include sugar, toothpaste, paper, sewing machines, electric fans, etc.
The main difference between these two types of industries lies in their target market and the purpose of their production.


Q28: Classify industries on the basis of capital investment. How are they different from one another? Explain with examples. (2016)

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Ans:
(i) Small Scale Industry: These industries employ fewer people and less capital. Most of the work is done by small machines and manpower. They use fewer raw materials and produce less. Examples include radio, TV making, agricultural implements, etc.
(ii) Large Scale Industry: These industries employ a large number of people and more capital. Work is done by large machines and manpower. They use a large amount of raw materials and produce more products. Examples include the textile industry, steel industry, etc.
The main difference between these two types of industries lies in their scale of operations, investment, and production capacity.


Q29: Suggest any three steps to minimize the environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India. (Al2016)

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Ans: Three steps to minimize environmental degradation caused by industrial development in India are:
(i) Minimizing the use of water for processing by reusing and recycling it in two or more successive stages.
(ii) Harvesting rainwater to meet water requirements and reduce the strain on natural resources.
(iii) Treating hot water and effluents before releasing them into rivers and ponds to prevent water pollution.
(iv) Implementing measures to reduce air pollution, such as fitting smokestacks with electrostatic precipitators, fabric filters, scrubbers, and inertial separators.
(v) Encouraging the use of cleaner fuels, such as oil or gas instead of coal, in industries.
(vi) Redesigning machinery to increase energy efficiency and reduce noise pollution. 

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q30: Why has the ‘National Manufacturing i Competitiveness Council’ been set-up? (2015)

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Ans: The ‘National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council’ was set up to improve the productivity of the industrial sector. However, this council was wound up in March 2016.


Q31: Explain with examples, how do industries give a boost to the agriculture sector. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The agro-industries give a major boost to agriculture by raising its productivity: 
(1) These industries supply irrigation pumps, fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, plastic and PVC pipes, machines and tools, etc. to the farmers which helps them grow more food. 
(2) Industries help in transporting the goods produced to the markets. They also consume these products themselves. 
(3) Manufacturing industries help in modernising agriculture. They reduce the heavy dependence of people on agricultural income by providing them jobs in secondary and tertiary sectors.

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q32: Why is the ‘least cost’ known as a decision-making factor for the ideal location of an industry? (2014)

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Ans: The ‘least cost’ is known as a decision-making factor for the ideal location of an industry because it considers factors such as the availability of raw materials, labor, capital, power, and market at a lower cost. By choosing a location that minimizes these costs, the industry can ensure that its production costs are low and maximize its profitability.

Also read: Infographics: Manufacturing Industries

Previous Year Questions 2012

Q33: What are software technology parks? State any two of its features. (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: Software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facilities to software experts. Transistor sets, televisions, phones, cellular telecom, telephone exchanges, radars, computers, and many other items needed by the telecommunications sector are all included in the broad spectrum of goods produced by the electronics and IT industry. 

Key features of software technology parks include:

  • Employment generation: The IT sector employs over one million people.
  • Location: Major parks are situated in cities like BangaloreNoidaMumbaiChennaiHyderabad, and Pune.
  • Growth: Continuous advancements in hardware and software drive the success of the IT industry in India.

Previous Year Questions 2011

Q34: Mention any two factors that have contributed to a healthy growth of the automobile industry in India. Name two centres where the industry is located. (CBSE 2011)

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Ans: Two factors that have contributed to a healthy growth of the automobile industry in India are: 

  • The introduction of new and contemporary models stimulated the demand for vehicles in the market. 
  • Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) has brought in new technology. 

Globalisation has led to a heavy rise in demand of these vehicles since products from around the world can be ordered at one click. The two centres of automobile industry are Jamshedpur and Gurgaon.

05. Previous Year Questions: Minerals & Energy Resources

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Assertion (A): Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.
Reason (R): All living things need minerals.
Options:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (a)

Minerals are indeed indispensable to our lives because everything we use — from buildings to vehicles and even the food we eat — contains minerals. Moreover, all living things need minerals for vital life processes, making the reason a correct explanation of the assertion.


Q2: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)Options:
(a) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii
(b) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d-iv
(c) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(d) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i

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Ans: (a)

  • Iron ore → Chandrapur (iii) — found in Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur belt of Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
  • Mica → Gaya (i) — major mica belt lies in Koderma–Gaya–Hazaribagh region of Jharkhand.
  • Bauxite → Maikala (iv) — bauxite deposits occur in the Maikal Hills and Amarkantak Plateau.
  • Coal → Singrauli (ii) — important coalfield located in Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh.

Thus, the correct option is (a) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii.

Q3: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(B) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
(D) a-ii, b-i, c-iii, d-iv

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii

  • Talcher → Odisha (ii) — an important thermal power plant located in Odisha.
  • Ramagundam → Telangana (i) — one of India’s largest thermal power stations.
  • Bhusawal → Maharashtra (iv) — located in Jalgaon district, Maharashtra.
  • Vijayawada → Andhra Pradesh (iii) — a major thermal power station in Andhra Pradesh.


Q4: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Iron Ore
Iron ore is the basic mineral and the backbone of industrial development. India is endowed with fairly abundant resources of iron ore. India is rich in good quality iron ores. Magnetite is the finest iron ore with a very high content of iron up to 70 per cent. It has excellent magnetic qualities, especially valuable in the electrical industry. Hematite ore is the most important industrial iron ore in terms of the quantity used, but has a slightly lower iron content than magnetite (50 – 60 per cent). In 2018 – 19, almost the entire production of iron ore (97%) accrued from Odisha, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka, and Jharkhand. The remaining production (3%) was from other states.

(i) In which iron ore is the maximum iron content found? (1 Mark)

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Ans: The maximum iron content is found in Magnetite, which contains up to 70% iron.

(ii) Which is the most important industrial iron ore? (1 Mark)

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Ans: The most important industrial iron ore is Hematite

(iii) “Iron ore is a basic mineral.” Support the statement. (2 Marks)

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Ans: Iron ore is a basic mineral because it forms the backbone of industrial development. It is the raw material for producing steel, which is essential for manufacturing machinery, tools, vehicles, buildings, railways, and other industrial goods. Thus, iron ore supports the growth of almost all major industries in India. 


Q5: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(a) A-i, B-iii, C-iv, D-ii
(b) A-ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
(c) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i
(d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

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Ans: (d) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

  • Copper → (ii) Used in electric cables and utensils because it is a good conductor of electricity and heat.
  • Bauxite → (iv) Used in aluminium production as aluminium is extracted from bauxite ore.
  • Mica → (iii) Used in electric and electronic industries due to its insulating properties and heat resistance.
  • Manganese → (i) Used in manufacturing of steel and paints and also for making ferro-manganese alloys.


Q6: “It would be beneficial to develop sustainable ways to meet the growing energy demand in India.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Yes, it is beneficial to develop sustainable waysto meet the growing energy demand in India because of the following reasons:

  1. Limited and Exhaustible Conventional Resources:
    Most of India’s energy resources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas are non-renewable and getting depleted rapidly. The geological formation of these resources takes millions of years, but they are being consumed much faster.
  2. Environmental Concerns:
    Burning fossil fuels causes air pollution, global warming, and acid rain, leading to serious environmental problems. Sustainable energy sources like solar, wind, and biogas are clean and eco-friendly.
  3. Energy Security and Self-Reliance:
    India imports a large amount of petroleum and natural gas. Developing renewable sources will reduce dependence on imports and strengthen the country’s energy security.
  4. Economic Development:
    Non-conventional sources such as solar and wind energy have low recurring costs once established. Promoting these will create new employment opportunities and support rural electrification.
  5. Future Sustainability:
    Using renewable energy ensures that future generations also have access to energy resources. Energy saved is energy produced, so promoting energy conservation and efficient use supports sustainable development.

Conclusion:
Therefore, developing sustainable and renewable energy sources is essential to ensure environmental protectioneconomic stability, and long-term energy security for India.


Q7: “We have to use a planned and sustainable manner to conserve our minerals.” Support the statement by giving suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Yes, it is essential to use our minerals in a planned and sustainable manner, because mineral resources are finite and non-renewable. The following points support this statement:

  • Limited Availability:
    The total volume of workable mineral deposits is only about 1% of the Earth’s crust. Minerals take millions of years to form, but they are being extracted and consumed rapidly, making them exhaustible resources.
  • Slow Rate of Formation:
    The geological processes of mineral formation are extremely slow, so replenishment cannot match the present rate of consumption. Once exhausted, these resources cannot be replaced easily.
  • Increasing Extraction Costs:
    Continuous mining leads to the depletion of high-grade ores, forcing extraction from greater depths or lower-grade deposits, which increases costs and environmental degradation.
  • Environmental Impact:
    Mining causes land degradation, deforestation, water pollution, and air contamination. Sustainable use helps reduce environmental damage and maintain ecological balance.
  • Need for Future Generations:
    To ensure that future generations also benefit from these valuable resources, we must recycle metalsuse scrap, and develop substitute materials where possible.


Q8: Study the given table and answer the question that follows:  (1 Mark)
CRUDE OIL RESERVES

Read the following possible outcomes from the table and choose the correct option:
I. If crude oil continues to be extracted at the present pace, it would be exhausted in about 50 years.
II. In Middle Eastern Countries it may take longer than average of the world.
III. To ensure the availability of crude oil in future, its reuse and recycle policy should be adopted.
IV. In United States of America, Crude oil is likely to run out in just about 10 years.
(a) 
Only I, III and IV are correct.
(b) Only I, II and III are correct.
(c) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (B) Only I, II and III are correct.

  • Statement I is correct — The world average shows crude oil reserves will last about 50 years.
  • Statement II is correct — The Middle East has reserves lasting 70 years, which is longer than the world average.
  • Statement III is correct — To ensure future availability, a reuse and recycle policy should be adopted.
  • Statement IV is incorrect — Though the USA’s reserves may last about 10 years, the statement says “just about 10 years” without context, and the focus of the question is on sustainability and average trends.


Q9: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors and the base of hills.
Reason (R): These are usually minerals, that are not corroded by water.  (1 Mark)
(A)
 Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

  • Certain minerals occur as alluvial or placer deposits in the sands of valley floors and at the base of hills. These minerals, such as gold, silver, tin, and platinum, are not corroded by water, which explains why they accumulate in such deposits. Hence, both the Assertion and the Reason are true, and the Reason correctly explains the Assertion.

Therefore, option (A) is correct.


Q10: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(A) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(B) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(D) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii

Hide Answer  

Ans: (C) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

The table below shows the correct matching of atomic power plants with their states:

Thus, option (C) is correct.


Q11: Read the characteristics given in the box and identify the type of coal from the options given below:  (1 Mark)
This is low grade brown coal.
The principal reserves are in Neyveli in Tamil Nadu.
It is soft with high moisture content.
(A)
 Pit Coal
(B) Anthracite Coal
(C) Lignite Coal
(D) Bituminous Coal

Hide Answer  

Ans: (C) Lignite Coal

According to the chapter, Lignite is a low-grade brown coal, soft in texture, and has a high moisture content. Its principal reserves are found in Neyveli, Tamil Nadu, where it is mainly used for electricity generation.


Q12: Why is the conservation of conventional sources of energy significant? Explain any two reasons.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The conservation of conventional sources of energy is significant because:

  • They are non-renewable and exhaustible:
    Conventional sources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas take millions of years to form. Their reserves are limited and may get exhausted soon if overused.
  • They cause environmental pollution:
    Excessive use of these fuels leads to air pollution, global warming, and ecological imbalance. Conserving them reduces environmental damage and helps maintain a clean and sustainable environment.


Q13: Why is it necessary to adopt non-conventional sources of energy? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: It is necessary to adopt non-conventional sources of energy because:

  • Exhaustion of conventional resources:
    Conventional energy sources like coal, petroleum, and natural gas are limited and non-renewable. To meet the growing energy demand sustainably, we must use renewable alternatives such as solar, wind, and biogas.
  • Environment-friendly and sustainable:
    Non-conventional sources are clean and pollution-free, reducing problems like air pollution and global warming. They ensure a sustainable and eco-friendly supply of energy for the future.


Q14: Suggest any two ways for the conservation of minerals.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two ways for the conservation of minerals are:

  • Recycling and reuse of metals:
    Scrap metals and used materials should be recycled and reused to reduce the need for new mineral extraction.
  • Use of substitutes and improved technology:
    Developing substitute materials and using improved mining technologies help in reducing wastage and allow the use of low-grade ores efficiently.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Match Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option.    (CBSE 2024)
(a) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(I)
(b) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(I), (B)-(II), (C)-(IV), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

(A) Ferrous matches with (IV) Cobalt, as ferrous materials are related to iron and cobalt is a metal used in various alloys.

(B) Non-Ferrous matches with (III) Bauxite, since bauxite is a non-ferrous ore primarily used to produce aluminum.

(C) Non-Metallic matches with (II) Granite, because granite is a type of rock and not a metal.

(D) Energy matches with (I) Coal, as coal is a major source of energy.


Q2: (A) How is energy a basic requirement for economic development? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)
OR 
(B) How are conventional sources of energy different from non- conventional sources? Explain. 

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Ans: (A) Energy is a fundamental requirement for economic development because it powers industries, transportation, communication, and daily life. 
Here’s how energy drives economic growth:

  • Industrial Growth: Industries rely on energy to operate machinery, manufacture goods, and process raw materials. Without a stable energy supply, industrial productivity declines, hindering economic growth.
  • Infrastructure Development: Energy is essential for building and maintaining infrastructure such as roads, bridges, and buildings. Construction equipment and materials production depend heavily on energy.
  • Transportation and Trade: Energy fuels transportation systems, including cars, trucks, ships, and airplanes, enabling the movement of goods and people. Efficient transportation networks are vital for trade and commerce, which are key components of economic development.
  • Technological Advancement: Modern technologies, including computers, telecommunications, and medical equipment, require energy to function. Technological innovation drives productivity and economic growth, making energy indispensable.
  • Agriculture and Food Production: Energy is crucial for agricultural activities, such as irrigation, harvesting, and food processing. It also powers the transportation and storage of food, ensuring food security and supporting rural economies.
  • Employment and Income Generation: The energy sector itself creates jobs in production, distribution, and maintenance. Additionally, reliable energy access enables the growth of other sectors, leading to increased employment opportunities and income generation.
  • Quality of Life: Energy improves the quality of life by powering homes, schools, hospitals, and public services. Access to electricity enhances education, healthcare, and overall well-being, which are essential for a productive workforce.

In summary, energy is a cornerstone of economic development as it supports industrial activities, infrastructure, transportation, technology, agriculture, employment, and quality of life. Without adequate and reliable energy, economic progress would be severely constrained.
OR
(B) 
Conventional sources of energy and non-conventional sources of energy are different in the following ways:
1. Source:

  • Conventional Sources: These are traditional sources of energy that have been used for a long time, such as coal, petroleum (oil), natural gas, and hydropower.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These are newer or alternative sources of energy that are not widely used yet, like solar energy, wind energy, biomass, tidal energy, and geothermal energy.

2. Renewability:

  • Conventional Sources: These sources are mostly non-renewable, meaning they are finite and can run out over time. For example, coal and petroleum are limited and take millions of years to form.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These are usually renewable, meaning they can be replenished naturally and are not likely to run out, like solar and wind energy.

3. Environmental Impact:

  • Conventional Sources: They often cause pollution and harm the environment. Burning fossil fuels like coal and petroleum releases harmful gases, contributing to air pollution and climate change.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These sources are generally cleaner and have less impact on the environment. Solar and wind energy, for example, produce little to no pollution.

4. Availability:

  • Conventional Sources: These sources are available in specific regions. For example, coal is found in large quantities in some countries, while oil is concentrated in others.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: These sources can be found anywhere, as long as the natural conditions are right, like sunlight for solar energy or wind for wind energy.

5. Cost:

  • Conventional Sources: They tend to be cheaper initially but can lead to higher long-term costs due to pollution, health effects, and resource depletion.
  • Non-Conventional Sources: They may be expensive to set up initially (like installing solar panels or wind turbines), but they have lower operational costs and are more sustainable in the long run.

In summary, conventional sources are traditional, non-renewable, and polluting, while non-conventional sources are modern, renewable, and environmentally friendly.

Sustainable Energy

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Which one of the following is an example of the Ferrous Metal?       (CBSE 2023)
(a) 
Copper
(b) 
Tin
(c) 
Bauxite
(d
) Nickel

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Nickel is considered a ferrous metal because it is often used in the production of alloys with iron, which enhances the strength and resistance of steel. In contrast, copper and tin are non-ferrous metals, and bauxite is an ore of aluminum, not a metal itself.


Q4: Read the given case and answer the questions that follow:       (2023)
CONSERVATION OF ENERGY RESOURCES
Energy is a basic requirement for economic development. Every sector of the national economy – agriculture, industry, transport, commercial and domestic – needs inputs of energy. The economic development plans implemented since independence necessarily required increasing amounts of energy to remain operational. As a result, consumption of energy In all forms has been steadily rising all over the country. In this background, there is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development. Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources are the twin planks of sustainable energy. India is presently one of the least energy-efficient countries in the world. We have to adopt a cautious approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources. For example, as concerned citizens, we can do our bit by using public transport systems instead of individual vehicles; switching off electricity when not in use, using power-saving devices and using non-conventional sources of energy. At last “Energy Saved is energy produced”.
(i) Why is sustainable energy a key to sustainable development?
(ii) Why is consumption of energy rising in all over India?
(iii) Explain ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) Sustainable energy is a key to sustainable development, as sustainability demands that resource reserves including exhaustible, natural and environmental resources, be maintained.
(ii) After getting independence development of all sectors like agriculture, industry, transport, domestic needs etc. necessarily required to remain in operation, hence consumption of energy in all forms has increased all over India.
(iii) Energy saved is energy produced. We cannot keep on producing non-renewable energy like petrol, diesel and electricity. So the need of the hour is the better utilisation of existing resources. We have to adopt cautions approach for the judicious use of our limited energy resources.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q5: Classify metallic minerals with an example of each. (2020 C)

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Ans:

  • Ferrous minerals: Iron ore, manganese
  • Non-ferrous minerals: Copper, lead, bauxite
  • Precious minerals: Gold, silver, platinum


Q6: “Minerals occur in various forms”. Support this statement with examples. (2020)

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Ans:

  • Minerals can occur in igneous and metamorphic rocks as veins and lodes. Examples include tin, copper, zinc, and lead.
  • Minerals can also occur in sedimentary rocks as beds or layers. Examples include gypsum, potash salt, and sodium salt.
  • Some minerals are formed through the decomposition of surface rocks, leaving behind residual material. Bauxite is an example.
  • Alluvial deposits in sands can also contain minerals. Gold, silver, tin, and platinum are examples.


Q7: “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives”. Support this statement with examples. (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Minerals are used in the construction of buildings and infrastructure, such as iron ore for steel.
  • Minerals are used in transportation systems, such as copper for electrical wiring.
  • Minerals are used in electronic devices, such as lithium for batteries.
  • Minerals are used in everyday items, such as gold and silver for jewelry.

Minerals
Q8: Differentiate between anthracite and bituminous coal on the basis of quality. (2020 C)

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Ans:

  • Anthracite coal is of higher quality, while bituminous coal is comparatively lower grade in quality.
  • Anthracite coal has a higher carbon content, causing less pollution compared to bituminous coal.
  • Anthracite coal is available in small quantities in India, while bituminous coal is available in abundance.


Q9: In which of the following states is Kalpakkam nuclear power plant located ?      (2020)
(a) 
Gujarat
(b) Odisha
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Kalpakkam nuclear power plant is located in Tamil Nadu, near the town of Kalpakkam, which is close to Chennai. This plant is significant as it contributes to India’s energy needs by generating electricity through nuclear power.


Q10: In which of the following States is Narora Nuclear Power Plant located?     (2020)
(a) 
Karnataka
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located in Uttar Pradesh, near the town of Narora, which is about 200 kilometers from Delhi. This plant plays an important role in generating nuclear energy to meet the electricity demands of the region.


Q11: Fill in the blank: ________ is well known for effective use of wind energy in Rajasthan.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Jaisalmer is well known for the effective use of wind energy in Rajasthan.


Q12: Suggest any one way to enhance the use of natural gas in India.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Use of natural gas:
Making people aware about the importance of using this clean energy resources because this gas is considered environment friendly.


Q13:  Fill in the blanks: ‘Gobar gas plants’ provide twin benefits to the farmers in the form of_______and________     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: ‘Gobar gas plants’ provide twin benefits to the farmers in the form of energy and manure.


Q14: Suggest any one way to maximize the use of nuclear energy in the field of medicine.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Nuclear medicine use radio-active substances, mostly to diagnose cancer as well as cardiac and other diseases.

Also read: Infographics: Rocks and Minerals

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q15: In which of the following state is the Narora Nuclear Power Plant located ? 
(a) Karnataka 
(b) Kerala 
(c) Tamil Nadu 
(d) Uttar Pradesh (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Narora Nuclear Power Plant is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh in India. It is situated on the banks of the Ganges River in the Bulandshahr district. This plant is one of India’s key nuclear power facilities, generating electricity through nuclear energy.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) Uttar Pradesh.


Q16: “India has fairly rich and varied mineral resources across different regions”. Support the statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)
OR
“Minerals occur in various forms.” Support this statement with examples. (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (1) Minerals occur in the cracks, crevices, faults or joints in igneous rocks and metamorphic rocks in the form of small occurrences of veins and large occurrences called lodes. Tin and zinc are obtained from veins and lodes. 
(2) Sedimentary Rocks are found in nodes and layers. Minerals like gypsum, coal, iron ore are formed. 
(3) Minerals are also formed by decomposition of surface rocks, and the removal of soluble constituents, leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing ores. For example, bauxite


Q17: ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Assess the statement. (CBSE 2019, 17)

Hide Answer  

Ans: This statement can be supported in the following ways: 
(1) Promotion of energy conservation and increased use of renewable energy sources is an important measure to save resources for the upcoming generations. 
(2) A judicious use in using our limited energy resources is of utmost significance to encourage development without any threat to survival in the future generations. 
(3) Public transport systems can help save fuel and other important energy resources. Fuel will last for a longer time. 
(4) Using power-saving devices and using nonconventional sources of energy helps in preventing excessive usage of conventional energy resources.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q18: Describe any three characteristics of the Ballari-Chitradurga, Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru iron-ore belt in India. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Ballari-Chitradurga, Chikkamagaluru-Tumakuru iron-ore belt is located in Karnataka.
  • The Kudremukh mines in this belt, located in the Western Ghats, are a 100% export unit.
  • The Kudremukh deposits are known to be one of the largest in the world.
  • The ore from these mines is transported as slurry through a pipeline to a port near Mangaluru.


Q19: Describe any three characteristics of the Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-ore belt in India. (AI 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur iron-ore belt is located in Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra.
  • It provides very high-grade hematite iron ore from the famous Bailadila range of hills in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh.
  • The iron ore deposits in this belt have the best physical properties needed for steel making.
  • Iron ore from these mines is exported to Japan and South Korea via Vishakhapatnam port.


Q20: Describe any three characteristics of the ‘Odisha-Jharkhand belt’ of iron ore in India. (Delhi 2017)

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Ans:

  • The Odisha-Jharkhand belt is known for high-grade haematite ore.
  • In Odisha, the iron ore is found in Badampahar mines in the Mayurbhanj and Kendujhar districts.
  • In Jharkhand, haematite iron ore is mined in Gua and Noamundi.
  • These mines supply iron ore to the steel industry in the eastern and other parts of India.


Q21: Why is it necessary to conserve mineral resources? Explain any four ways to conserve mineral resources.  (AI2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: It is necessary to conserve mineral resources because they are limited in availability and the process of mineral formation is slow. Additionally, minerals are non-renewable and exhaustible.
Four ways to conserve mineral resources are:
1. Using minerals in a planned and sustainable manner.
2. Evolving improved technology to allow the use of low-grade ore at a low cost.
3. Practicing recycling of minerals.
4. Using alternative renewable substitutes.


Q22: ‘Energy saved is energy produced.’ Assess the statement. (2017)

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Ans: The statement “Energy saved is energy produced” emphasizes the importance of conserving energy. By reducing energy wastage and using energy-efficient practices, we can save energy and reduce the need for additional energy production. This approach is beneficial for the environment as it reduces the consumption of fossil fuels and decreases greenhouse gas emissions.


Q23: Why should we use renewable energy resources? Explain with arguments. (Foreign 2017)

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Ans: There are several reasons why we should use renewable energy resources:
1. Non-renewable resources are limited and will eventually get exhausted. In contrast, renewable energy resources such as solar power and wind energy are inexhaustible, making them a sustainable choice for long-term energy needs.
2. The depletion of non-renewable resources like coal and petroleum has taken millions of years to occur. By using renewable energy resources, we can avoid further depletion and preserve these non-renewable resources for future generations.
3. Fossil fuels, which are non-renewable resources, contribute to pollution and environmental degradation. Renewable energy sources, on the other hand, are cleaner and emit fewer greenhouse gases, thus mitigating the impact of climate change.
4. The cost of extracting and using non-renewable resources is increasing as these resources become harder to find. In contrast, the cost of renewable energy technologies, such as solar panels and wind turbines, has been decreasing over time. Investing in renewable energy can help reduce energy costs in the long run.


Q24: Why is energy needed? Write one reason. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Energy is required for all kinds of activities like cooking, lighting and heating, propelling vehicles and enabling smooth working of machinery in industries.


Q25: “Natural gas is an important source of energy.” Support the statement. (CBSE 2017)

Ans: Natural gas is an important source of energy because: 
(1) It is an industrial raw material in the petrochemical industry.
(2) It helps build fertiliser plants and encourages the use of fertilisers. It can boost agricultural production. 
(3) It can be easily transported through pipelines


Q26: Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India? Mention any two uses of manganese. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The nation’s top producer of manganese is Madhya Pradesh. 
(1) Manganese manufactures steel and ferro-manganese alloy. Nearly 10 kgs of manganese is used in manufacturing one tonne of steel. 
(2) It is used in the production of bleaching powder, insecticides and paints


Q27: “Minerals are an indispensable part of our lives.” Support the statement with examples.  (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (1) Minerals are used to create or produce almost everything we use everyday. This includes our technology, equipment etc., which are made of steel, silicon, aluminium, copper, gold, silver. Needles, Utensils, Clothes, Jewellery, and containers are all made of minerals. 
(2) Transportation was made possible because of minerals. The railway lines and tarmac (paving) of the roads, cars, buses, trains, airplanes are manufactured from minerals. 
(3) Even the food that we eat contains minerals. Minerals are produced when we digest it and even when we excrete it.


Q28: “There is a pressing need for using renewable energy sources in India.” Justify the statement.  (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources because: 
(1) The growing consumption of energy has resulted in the country becoming increasingly dependent on fossil fuels such as coal, oil and gas.
(2) The rising prices of oil and gas and their potential shortages have raised uncertainties about the security of energy supply in future. 
(3) It has serious repercussions on the growth of the national economy. 
(4) The increasing use of fossil fuels also causes serious environmental problems. 
(5) Non-renewable energy resources take millions of years to regenerate.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q29: Why are there a wide range of colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre and density found in minerals?   (Delhi 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The varied colours, hardness, crystal forms, lustre, and density found in minerals are due to their chemical composition and the parameters such as temperature, pressure, rate of cooling, etc., present during their formation.


Q30: How is iron-ore transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangaluru?  (CBSE 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Iron ore is transported from Kudremukh mines to a port near Mangaluru as slurry through pipelines.


Q31: Why should the use of cattle cake as fuel be discouraged?   (Al 2016)

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Ans: The use of cattle cake as fuel should be discouraged because it creates pollution and by burning it, a valuable manure resource is destroyed, which could otherwise improve soil fertility.


Q32: How are ‘Gobar Gas Plants’ beneficial to the farmers?   (CBSE 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: ‘Gobar Gas Plants’ are beneficial to the farmers in two ways. Firstly, they provide a clean fuel for domestic cooking and lighting. Secondly, they produce high-quality manure that can be used to enhance soil fertility.


Q33: “India is an important iron and steel producing country in the world. Yet we are not able to perform to our full potential.” Suggest and explain any three measures to reach our full potential. (Foreign 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Modernizing technology and machinery in the iron and steel industry to improve efficiency and productivity.
  • Streamlining the supply of inputs such as iron ore and coke to ensure a steady and sufficient availability.
  • Developing a supportive infrastructure, such as adequate electricity capacity, to meet the demands of the industry.
  • Implementing effective customer demand and supply management strategies to optimize production and distribution.


Q34: ‘Consumption of energy in all forms has been rising all over the country. There is an urgent need to develop a sustainable path of energy development and energy saving.’ Suggest and explain any three measures to solve this burning problem. (AI 2016)

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Ans:

  • Increase the use of renewable energy resources like solar power, wind power, biogas, tidal energy, and geothermal energy. This will reduce dependence on non-renewable sources and promote sustainable energy development.
  • Promote energy conservation by encouraging the judicious use of energy resources. This can be achieved through awareness campaigns, energy-efficient practices, and the use of power-saving devices.
  • Improve energy efficiency in industries, transportation, and buildings by adopting energy-saving technologies and practices. This can be done through government regulations, incentives, and public-private partnerships.


Q35: “There is a pressing need to use renewable energy resources.” Justify the statement with suitable arguments. (AI 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • The growing consumption of energy has led to increased dependence on fossil fuels like coal, oil, and gas, which are finite resources. The use of renewable energy resources can help reduce this dependence and ensure a sustainable energy future.
  • Rising prices and potential shortages of fossil fuels have raised concerns about the security of energy supply. Renewable energy resources are more abundant and can provide a more reliable and secure source of energy.
  • The use of renewable energy resources can help mitigate the adverse environmental impacts of fossil fuel use, such as air pollution and greenhouse gas emissions. Renewable energy sources like solar, wind, and hydroelectric power are cleaner and have a lower carbon footprint.
  • Investing in renewable energy technologies can stimulate economic growth and create jobs in sectors like manufacturing, installation, and maintenance.


Q36: Which minerals are used to obtain nuclear energy? Name all the six nuclear power stations of India. (AI 2016)

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Ans:

  • The minerals used to obtain nuclear energy are uranium and thorium.
  • The six nuclear power stations in India are: Narora Nuclear Power Station, Kakrapara Nuclear Power Station, Tarapur Nuclear Power Station, Kaiga Nuclear Power Station, Rawat Bhata Nuclear Power Station, and Kalpakkam Nuclear Power Station.


Q37: Explain the importance of conservation of minerals. Highlight any three measures to conserve them. (AI2016)

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Ans: Conservation of minerals is important for the following reasons:
1. Minerals are the backbone of the economy and are essential for various industries.
2. The total volume of workable mineral deposits is very limited, representing only 1% of the Earth’s crust.
3. Mineral resources are being consumed at a rapid rate, while the geological processes of mineral formation are slow. This means that the rate of consumption far exceeds the rate of replenishment.
Three measures to conserve minerals are:
1. Using minerals in a sustainable manner by planning their extraction and usage.
2. Developing improved technologies that allow the use of low-grade ore at a lower cost.
3. Promoting recycling and reuse of minerals to reduce the demand for new extraction.


Q38: Highlight the importance of petroleum. Explain the occurrence of petroleum in India. (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: The importance of petroleum can be highlighted as follows:
1. Petroleum is a major source of energy in India, providing fuel for heat, lighting, and transportation.
2. It serves as a lubricant for machinery, ensuring their smooth operation.
3. Petroleum is a crucial raw material for various manufacturing industries.
4. Petroleum refineries play a significant role in supporting industries such as synthetic, textile, fertilizer, and chemical industries.
In India, petroleum occurs in the following ways:
1. Most petroleum reserves in India are associated with anticlines and fault traps.
2. In regions of folding anticlines or domes, petroleum is trapped in the crust of the upfold.
3. Petroleum is also found in fault traps between porous and non-porous rocks.


Q39: Suggest and explain any three measures through which every citizen can help to conserve energy resources. (CBSE 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three ways in which citizens can help conserve energy resources are: 
(1) Reduction in usage of individual vehicles. 
(2) Minimisation of electricity usage.
(3) Reduction in usage of water resources

Also read: Infographics: Rocks and Minerals

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q40: Why does aluminium metal have great importance?  (2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Aluminium metal has great importance because it combines the properties of great strength, lightness, malleability, and conductivity.


Q41: “Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel.” Explain the statement in two points. (AI 2015)

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Ans:

  • Natural gas is considered an environment-friendly fuel because it causes less pollution compared to other fossil fuels like coal and oil. It has a lower carbon content and emits fewer greenhouse gases when burned, reducing the impact on climate change.
  • Natural gas is a clean-burning fuel that produces fewer air pollutants such as sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxide, and particulate matter. This improves air quality and reduces the health risks associated with pollution.


Q42: How is geothermal energy produced? Explain. (AI 2015)

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Ans:

  • Geothermal energy is produced by harnessing the heat from the Earth’s interior.
  • In areas with high geothermal gradients, where temperatures increase with depth, groundwater absorbs heat from the rocks and becomes hot.
  • This hot water or steam rises to the Earth’s surface and can be used to drive turbines and generate electricity.


Q43: How can biogas solve the energy problem mainly in rural India? Give your suggestions. (AI 2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Biogas can solve the energy problem in rural India by providing a renewable source of energy that is readily available.
  • The raw materials for biogas production, such as agricultural waste, animal manure, and kitchen waste, are abundant in rural areas.
  • By promoting the use of biogas plants, rural communities can generate their own energy for cooking, lighting, and other domestic uses, reducing their dependence on traditional sources like firewood and kerosene.
  • Biogas production also has environmental benefits, as it helps in waste management by converting organic waste into a useful energy resource and reducing greenhouse gas emissions.

Biogas Energy


Q44: Describe any three features of ferrous minerals found in India. (Foreign 2015)

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Ans:

  • Ferrous minerals in India account for approximately three-fourths of the total value of metallic mineral production.
  • They provide a strong foundation for the expansion of metallurgical industries in the country.
  • India is a leading exporter of ferrous minerals, with magnetite and hematite being some of the common ferrous minerals.
  • States like Odisha, Chhattisgarh, and Maharashtra are rich in ferrous mineral deposits.


Q45: How is the mining activity injurious to the health of the miners and the environment? Explain. (Delhi 2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Mining activities can lead to respiratory diseases and other health issues for miners due to the inhalation of dust and toxic fumes.
  • The roofs and walls of mines can pose a risk of collapsing, leading to accidents and injuries.
  • Flooding and fire hazards are common risks in mining operations.
  • Mining can result in the contamination of water bodies with mineral dust, affecting aquatic life and human consumption.
  • The dumping of waste and slurry from mining operations can degrade the land and contribute to environmental pollution.


Q46: How can solar energy solve the energy problem to some extent in India? Give your opinion. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Solar energy can contribute to solving the energy problem in India in the following ways:
1. India receives abundant sunlight throughout the year, especially in rural and remote areas. Harnessing solar energy through solar panels and solar power plants can provide a reliable source of electricity in these areas.
2. Establishing solar plants in rural and remote areas can help minimize the dependence on traditional sources of energy such as firewood and dung cakes. This, in turn, contributes to environmental conservation and reduces indoor air pollution.
3. Solar energy can provide electricity for various applications, including lighting, cooking, and powering electronic devices. By utilizing solar energy, India can reduce its reliance on fossil fuels and decrease greenhouse gas emissions, thereby mitigating climate change.

04. Previous Year Questions: Agriculture

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Imagine you are travelling from Delhi to Chandigarh to attend a wedding, by road in January. Which of the following crops will you notice prominently in the fields during the journey? (1 Mark)
(a) Paddy
(b) Maize
(c) Wheat
(d) Jowar

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Wheat
In January, the rabi crops are growing in the fields. Wheat is a major rabi crop cultivated in Punjab and Haryana, the region between Delhi and Chandigarh.


Q2: Read the story of Rinjha and answer the question that follows:  (3 Mark)

Rinjha lived with her family in a small village at the outskirts of Diph in Assam. She enjoys watching her family members clearing, slashing and burning a patch of land for cultivation. She often helps them in irrigating the fields with water running through a bamboo canal from the nearby spring. She loves the surroundings and wants to stay here as long as she can, but this little girl has no idea about the declining fertility of the soil and her family’s search for a fresh patch of land in the next season.

What type of farming is Rinjha’s family doing? Describe any two of its characteristics.

Hide Answer  

Ans: Rinjha’s family is practising Primitive Subsistence Farming, also known as ‘slash and burn’ agriculture or Jhumming in Assam.

Two characteristics:

  1. Use of primitive tools: It is practised with the help of simple tools like hoe, dao, and digging sticks using family or community labour.
  2. Shifting cultivation: Farmers clear a patch of land, burn it, and grow crops for some time. When the soil fertility decreases, they shift to a new patch of land, allowing the old one to regain fertility naturally.


Q3: Mrs. Monica, along with her family, clears a piece of land and grows grain and other food crops to feed her family. When the soil’s fertility decreases, she prepares another piece of land for agriculture. Which of the following methods of agriculture does she use?  (1 Mark)
(a) Plantation farming
(b) Slash and burn farming
(c) Intensive subsistence farming
(d) Commercial farming

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Slash and burn farming

Mrs. Monica practises Primitive Subsistence Farming, also called ‘slash and burn’ agriculture, in which farmers clear a patch of land, grow food mainly for their family, and when the soil loses fertility, they shift to a new patch for cultivation.

Q4: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Primitive Subsistence Farming
It is a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce cereals and other food crops to sustain their family. When the soil fertility decreases, the farmers shift and clear a fresh patch of land for cultivation. This type of shifting allows Nature to replenish the fertility of the soil through natural processes; land productivity in this type of agriculture is low as the farmer does not use fertilisers or other modern inputs. It is known by different names in different parts of the country. It is jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

(i) ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture comes under which type of farming?
(ii) Why is productivity low in ‘Slash and Burn’ system?
(iii) Describe any two features of ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture.

Hide Answer  

Ans:

(i) The ‘Slash and Burn’ system of agriculture comes under Primitive Subsistence Farming.
(ii) Productivity is low in this system because farmers do not use fertilizers or modern inputs, and the land is cultivated only for a short period before shifting.
(iii) Two features of this system are:

  • Farmers clear and burn a patch of land to grow cereals and food crops for their family’s use.
  • When soil fertility decreases, they shift to a new patch of land, allowing the old one to regain fertility naturally.


Q5: Swapna is a small farmer. Swapna wants to cultivate cotton. What kind of geographical conditions will be suitable for this? Choose the most appropriate option.  (1 Mark)
(a) Laterite soil, Moderate rainfall, Low temperature and Bright sunshine
(b) Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine
(c) Laterite soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Moderate sunshine
(d) Black soil, High rainfall, Low temperature and Moderate sunshine

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Black soil, Light rainfall, High temperature and Bright sunshine

Cotton grows well in the drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau and requires high temperaturelight rainfall or irrigation, and bright sunshine for its growth.


Q6: Identify the crop with the help of the below information:  (1 Mark)

– This crop is a major cash crop in India.
– It is cultivated mainly in the states of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
– It is known for its aroma.
(a) 
Tea
(b) Coffee
(c) Jute
(d) Cotton

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Coffee

Coffee is a major cash crop grown mainly in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu, known for its aroma and high-quality Arabica variety originally brought from Yemen.


Q7: With the help of following information identify the agricultural crop from the given options:  (1 Mark)
I. It requires more than 200 cm rainfall and temperature above 25°C.
II. It is mainly used as raw material in industries.
III. It is primarily a crop of the equatorial region.
(a) 
Cotton
(b) Rubber
(c) Groundnut
(d) Mustard

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Rubber

Rubber is an equatorial crop that requires a moist and humid climaterainfall above 200 cm, and temperature above 25°C, and it serves as an important industrial raw material.


Q8: Which among the following crop is known as ‘Golden Fibre’?  (1 Mark)
(a) Cotton
(b) Wool
(c) Jute
(d) Silk

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Jute

Jute is called the ‘Golden Fibre’ because of its shiny appearance and high economic value. It is used to make gunny bags, ropes, mats, carpets, and other artefacts.


Q9: Examine the measures taken by the government to make agriculture profitable in India.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The government has taken several measures to make agriculture more profitable in India. These include:

  • Institutional Reforms: Steps like abolition of zamindariconsolidation of holdings, and promotion of cooperative societies and Grameen banks to support farmers.
  • Technological Reforms: Introduction of the Green Revolution and White Revolution (Operation Flood) to increase production.
  • Farmer Welfare Schemes: Launch of Kisan Credit Card (KCC)Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS)crop insurance, and announcement of minimum support prices to protect farmers from exploitation and losses.


Q10: Explain any three features of intensive subsistence farming.  (3 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three features of Intensive Subsistence Farmingare:

  • It is labour-intensive farming, where a large amount of human labour is used to cultivate small plots of land.
  • High doses of biochemical inputs such as fertilisers and irrigation are used to obtain higher productivity.
  • Due to high population pressure on land and lack of alternative livelihoods, farmers try to produce maximum output from their small holdings, even though the land size is uneconomical.


Q11: Mention any three features of commercial farming.  (3 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three features of Commercial Farming are:

  • It involves the use of modern inputs like HYV seeds, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, and pesticides to achieve high productivity.
  • The degree of commercialisation varies by region — for example, rice is commercial in Punjab and Haryana but a subsistence crop in Odisha.
  • It is market-oriented farming, where crops are grown mainly for sale and profit rather than for family consumption.


Q12: Explain any three features of Plantation Agriculture.   (3 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three features of Plantation Agriculture are:

  • It involves the cultivation of a single crop on a large area, such as tea, coffee, rubber, sugarcane, or banana.
  • It uses capital-intensive inputs and migrant labourers, showing an interface between agriculture and industry.
  • The entire produce is used as raw material in industries, and a well-developed network of transport and communication connects plantations with processing units and markets.


Q13: The Government of India has invited some suggestions for institutional reforms in agriculture. Propose any five institutional reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Some important institutional reforms that can help improve agriculture in India are as follows:

  • The government should ensure proper land reforms so that land is fairly distributed and small fragmented holdings are consolidated, allowing farmers to use their land more efficiently.
  • The abolition of the zamindari system should be strictly implemented so that farmers become the real owners of the land they cultivate and can get the full benefit of their work.
  • More cooperative societies and Grameen banks should be established to provide farmers with easy loans at low interest rates, reducing their dependence on moneylenders.
  • The minimum support price (MSP) and procurement system should be strengthened so that farmers always get fair and guaranteed prices for their crops.
  • Farmers should be given better insurance and credit facilities, such as Kisan Credit Cards (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS), to protect them from losses caused by droughts, floods, or other natural disasters.


Q14: Suppose you are a farmer. You want to cultivate rice in India. Describe any three geographical conditions which will be suitable for rice cultivation in India and write the names of two leading rice-producing states of India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Rice is the staple food crop of most Indians and requires specific geographical conditions for its cultivation.

  • Rice needs a high temperature of more than 25°C throughout its growing season for proper growth.
  • It requires high humidity and heavy rainfall of more than 100 cm annually, though in areas with less rainfall, it can be grown with the help of irrigation.
  • Rice grows well in alluvial soil found in the plains and deltaic regions, and it also needs standing water during its early stages of growth.

The two leading rice-producing states in India are West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.


Q15: The Government of India has invited some suggestions for technological reforms in agriculture. Propose any five technological reforms to the Government for the betterment of agriculture.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Some important technological reforms that can improve agriculture in India are as follows:

  • The government should promote the use of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds to increase the production of food grains and ensure better productivity.
  • Greater use of chemical fertilisers, insecticides, and pesticides should be encouraged to protect crops and enhance yield, while maintaining soil health carefully.
  • Expansion of irrigation facilities such as canals and tube wells should be prioritised so that farmers are not fully dependent on the monsoon.
  • More awareness and access to modern agricultural equipment and machinery, like tractors, threshers, and harvesters, should be provided to reduce labour and increase efficiency.
  • The government should continue to support programmes like the Green Revolution and White Revolution (Operation Flood) to raise both crop and milk production, ensuring food security and rural income growth.


Q16: Suppose you are a farmer. You want to cultivate rice in India. Describe any three geographical conditions which will be suitable for rice cultivation in India and write the names of two leading rice producing states of India.  (5 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Rice is the most important food crop of India and needs specific natural conditions for its successful cultivation.

  • It requires a high temperature of above 25°C throughout the growing period, as rice is a crop of warm and humid regions.
  • The crop grows best in areas of high humidity and heavy rainfall, receiving more than 100 cm of annual rainfall. In regions of lesser rainfall, rice is grown with the help of irrigation.
  • Rice grows well in fertile alluvial soil found in plains and deltaic regions and needs standing water during the early stages of its growth.

The two leading rice-producing states in India are West Bengal and Uttar Pradesh.


Q17: Describe the features of cropping patterns in India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: India has diverse physical conditions and cultural practices, which are reflected in its cropping patterns. The main features of cropping patterns in India are as follows:

  • India has three main cropping seasons — Rabi, Kharif, and Zaid, based on temperature and rainfall conditions.
  • Rabi crops like wheat, gram, barley, and mustard are sown in winter (October–December) and harvested in summer (April–June), mainly in Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • Kharif crops like paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, cotton, and soyabean are sown with the onset of monsoon and harvested around September–October.
  • The Zaid season falls between the rabi and kharif seasons, during summer months, when crops like watermelon, cucumber, and fodder crops are grown.
  • The variety in soil, climate, and rainfall across India leads to regional diversity in crops, making India one of the world’s largest producers of both food and cash crops.


Q18: Describe the main characteristics of major millet crops grown in India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Millets are important coarse grains grown in India and are known for their high nutritional value. The main millet crops are jowar, bajra, and ragi, and their main characteristics are as follows:

  • Jowar is the third most important food crop in India. It is a rain-fed crop grown mostly in moist areas and does not require irrigation. The major jowar-producing states are Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
  • Bajra grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soils. It is mainly cultivated in Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Haryana.
  • Ragi is a crop of dry regions and grows well on red, black, sandy, loamy, and shallow black soils. It is rich in iron, calcium, and roughage, making it a very nutritious food. The major producing states are Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Jharkhand.
  • Millets are known as coarse grains, but they are extremely valuable for health and play a vital role in ensuring food security in dry and semi-arid regions.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Read the following information and identify the crop.   
(I) It is the staple food crop of majority of people in India.
(II) India is the second largest producer of this crop.
(III) It is a Kharif crop.
(IV) It requires high humidity with 100 cm of annual rainfall.    (CBSE 2024)
Crops:
(a) 
Ragi
(b) Bajra
(c) Wheat
(d) Rice

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Rice is the staple food for most people in India, making it essential for daily meals. India is the second-largest producer of rice in the world, and it is classified as a Kharif crop, which means it is grown during the monsoon season when conditions are humid and rainfall is abundant.Rice Farming


Q2: Explain the initiation taken by the government to ensure the increase in agriculture production.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: India is essentially an agricultural country where two-third of its total population are engaged in agricultural activities. Considering, the importance of agriculture in India, following steps have been taken by the government to increase its production:
(1) Governments has established Indian Council of Agricultural Research.
(2) The government has founded veterinary clinics, animal breeding facilities, and agricultural universities.
(3) It has prioritised the advancement of meteorology and weather forecasting research and development.
(4) The infrastructure in rural areas has been enhanced.
(5) Indian farmers now have access to lowcost finance to purchase essential inputs like machinery, fertiliser, seeds, etc.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Explain any two features of Intensive Subsistence farming.    (2023)

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Ans: Two features of Intensive Subsistence farming are:
(i) It is practiced in densely populated area.
(ii) It involves high degree of use of bio-chemical inputs and irrigation.


Q4: Identify the crop with the help of the following information and choose the correct option.     (2023)

  • This is the second most important Cereal Crop. 
  • This a Rabi crop. 
  • It requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine at the time of ripening. 
  • It requires 50 to 75 cm annual rainfall. 

(a) Wheat
(b) 
Maize
(c) 
Rice
(d)
 Sugarcane

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Ans: (a)
Wheat is the second most important cereal crop in India, following rice. It is classified as a Rabi crop, which means it is sown in the winter and harvested in the spring. Wheat thrives in a cool growing season and needs plenty of sunshine during ripening, along with an annual rainfall of 50 to 75 cm for optimal growth.

Q5: Explain any three institutional reforms taken for the development of Indian agriculture.    (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: The institutional reforms introduced by the Government, to help the farmers are given below.
(i) Crop insurance was provided for disease, fire, cyclone, flood, and drought.
(ii) To provide loans to farmers at low interest rates, banks, cooperative societies, grameen banks were established.
(iii) For the benefit of farmers, some of the schemes introduced were the Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS), Kissan Credit Card (KCC).
(iv) To help the farmers, special agricultural programmes and special weather bulletins were introduced on television and radio.
(v) To check exploitation of farmers by middlemen and speculators, procurement and remunerative prices, minimum support price was introduced by the Government for many important crops

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q6: Which of the following is not a characteristic of ‘Intensive Subsistence Farming’?      (2021)
(a) 
This is practised in areas of high population.
(b) 
It is an example of labour-intensive farming.
(c) 
High doses of biochemical inputs are used,
(d) 
It is an example of commercial farming

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Ans: (d)
Intensive subsistence farming is not considered commercial farming because it primarily focuses on producing enough food for the farmer’s family rather than for sale. This type of farming typically occurs in densely populated areas and relies heavily on labor and biochemical inputs to maximize crop yields.


Q7: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:
Jhumming : The ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam. In India, this primitive form of cultivation is called ‘Bewar’ or ‘Dahiya’ in Madhya Pradesh, ‘Podu’ or ‘Penda’ in Andhra Pradesh, ‘Pama Dabi’ or ‘Koman’ or ‘Bringa’ in Odisha, ‘Kumari’ in Western Ghats, ‘Valre’ or ‘Waltre’ in South-eastern Rajasthan, ‘Khil’ in the Himalayan belt, ‘Kuruwa’ in Jharkhand, and ‘Jhumming’ in the North-eastern region. 
(i) How is Primitive Subsistence Agriculture related to Jhumming? 
(a) It is based on shifting cultivation. 
(b) It is intensive in nature. 
(c) It is based on plantation cultivation. 
(d) It depends upon the cash crop.   (CBSE 2021)

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Ans: (a)
Primitive Subsistence Agriculture, also known as shifting cultivation, is a type of farming where farmers clear a patch of land, cultivate it for a few years, and then move to a new area once the soil fertility declines. Jhumming is a traditional form of shifting cultivation practiced in various parts of India, especially in the northeastern states. In this method, a piece of land is cleared by cutting and burning vegetation, crops are grown for a few seasons, and then the land is left fallow to regain fertility.
Thus, the correct answer is (a) It is based on shifting cultivation.

(ii) Identify the major problem of Jhumming cultivation. 
(a) Single crop dominance 
(b) Modern inputs 
(c) High cost 
(d) Low production 

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Ans: (d)
Jhumming Cultivation or the primitive subsistence agriculture is practised on small patches of land with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks, and family/community labour. This type of farming depends upon monsoon, natural fertility of the soil and suitability of other environmental conditions to the crops grown. Hence, the crop production is low.

(iii) In India ‘slash and burn’ agriculture is known as ‘Bewar’, in which one of the following States? 
(a) Andhra Pradesh 
(b) Madhya Pradesh 
(c) Rajasthan 
(d) Jharkhand 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
In India, slash and burn agriculture is known by different names in various regions. In Madhya Pradesh, this form of agriculture is called Bewar (or sometimes Dahiya). It involves clearing a patch of land by cutting and burning vegetation, then cultivating it for a few seasons before moving to a new plot when the soil loses fertility.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Madhya Pradesh.

(iv) Match Column (A) with Column (B) and choose the correct options :

(a) (A)–(III) (B)–(IV ) (C)–(II) (D)–(I) 
(b) (A)–(I) (B)–(II) (C)–(III) (D)–(IV ) 
(c) (A)–(II) (B)–(I) (C)–(IV ) (D)–(III) 
(d) (A)–(IV ) (B)–(III) (C)–(I) (D)–(II)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
The practice of slash and burn agriculture is given different names as mentioned in the question. Apart from them, this practice of farming is also known as jhumming in north-eastern states like Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram and Nagaland; Pamlou in Manipur, Dipa in Bastar district of Chhattisgarh, and in Andaman and Nicobar Islands.

Also read: Mind Map: Agriculture

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q8: Describe any three main features of ‘Rabi crop season.’   (Delhi 2020, 2019)

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Ans: (a) Rabi crops are also known as winter crops. They are sown from October to December and harvested from April to June.
(b) Wheat, barley, pea, gram and mustard are the important rabi crops. Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are the important producers of rabi crops.
(c) Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western disturbances helps in the success i of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh ; and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops.

Rabi Crops
Q9: Analyse any five features of Commercial Farming.    (2020)

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Ans:
(i) In commercial farming, most of the produce is sold in the market to earn money (as opposed to subsistence farming).
(ii) In this system, farmers use inputs like irrigation, chemical fertilisers, insecticides, pesticides, and high yielding varieties of seeds, etc.
(iii) Some of the major commercial crops grown in different parts of India are cotton, jute, sugarcane, groundnut, etc.
(iv) Rice farming in Haryana is mainly for commercial purpose as people of this area are predominantly wheat eaters.
(v) However, in East and North-Eastern states of India, rice cultivation would be largely of subsistence type.

Q10: Write the temperature requirement of Maize crop.   (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: It requires the temperature range between 21°C – 27°C.

Q11: Complete the following table with correct information for A and B:    (2020)

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Ans: A-75cm to 100 cm
B-21° to 27°C

Q12: Why is agriculture called the backbone of the Indian economy? Explain.   (Delhi 2020)

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Ans: Agriculture is called the backbone of the Indian economy due to the following reasons:

  • It is the main occupation of the majority of people in India, providing employment to a significant portion of the population.
  • Agriculture provides raw materials to the manufacturing sector, supporting industrial development.
  • It ensures food security by producing food grains for the growing population.
  • Agriculture contributes to the development of the tertiary sector, as it requires services like transportation, storage, and marketing of agricultural produce.
  • It is the main source of the country’s national income, contributing to the GDP.
  • Agriculture also plays a crucial role in the country’s export sector, earning foreign exchange.
  • It helps in the overall development of rural areas and contributes to poverty alleviation.

Q13: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: 
Assertion (A): The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price.
Reason ( R): The public sector contributes to economic development.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. 
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.    (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Assertion (A): The statement is true. The Government of India buys wheat and rice from farmers at a fair price, known as the Minimum Support Price (MSP), to ensure farmers get a stable income and are protected from market fluctuations.
Reason (R): This statement is also true. The public sector contributes to economic development by providing essential services, stabilizing prices, and supporting various sectors, including agriculture.
However, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). The government’s action of buying wheat and rice at a fair price is more specifically aimed at supporting farmers and ensuring food security, rather than being solely about the public sector’s contribution to economic development.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

Q14: Write the amount of annual rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat. (CBSE 2020, 11)

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Ans: 50-75 cm of rainfall is the amount of rainfall required for the cultivation of wheat.

Q15: Describe the technological reforms taken by the Indian Government in the field of agriculture. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: To improve the Indian agriculture, the government of India began introducing technological reforms in the 1960s. Some of them have been listed below: 
(1) Widespread use of radio and television for providing knowledge to farmers about new and improved techniques of cultivation and introduction of special weather bulletins. 
(2) The Green Revolution based on the use of package technology was one of the best strategies of government to improve agriculture sector. 
(3) The White Revolution with some technical innovation increased the production in dairy industry which somehow give a direct boost to the Indian agriculture sector.

Q16: Describe any five features of primitive subsistence farming. (CBSE 2020, 12)

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Ans: The features of primitive subsistence farming are: 
(1) Primitive subsistence farming is a type of farming practice in which the farmer and his family raise crops for home consumption and not trade. 
(2) This is practiced with the help of primitive tools like hoe, dao and digging sticks. The farming totally depends on the monsoon and natural fertility of the soil. 
(3) It is done on small areas of land and is labour intensive. 
(4) It is practiced as a ‘slash and burn’ agriculture. Farmers clear a patch of land and produce crops for their sustenance. 
(5) Land productivity is low. No artificial fertilisers are used.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q17: Describe any three main features of ‘Rabi crop season.’   (Delhi 2020, 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Rabi crops are also known as winter crops. They are sown from October to December and harvested from April to June.
(b) Wheat, barley, pea, gram and mustard are the important rabi crops. Punjab, Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh are the important producers of rabi crops.
(c) Availability of precipitation during winter months due to the western disturbances helps in the success i of these crops. However, the success of the green revolution in Punjab, Haryana, western Uttar Pradesh ; and parts of Rajasthan has also been an important factor in the growth of the above mentioned rabi crops.

Q18: Describe any three main features of ‘Kharif crop season.’   (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: (i) Kharif crops are also known as summer crops. They are sown at the beginning of monsoon and harvested in September-October.
(ii) Paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut and soybean are important kharif crops. Assam, West Bengal, coastal regions of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Bihar are important rice growing states.
(iii) In Assam, West Bengal and Odisha; three crops of paddy are grown in a year. These are called Aus, Aman and Boro.

Q19: Describe the geographical conditions required for rubber cultivation.  (2019 C)

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Ans: Rubber is a crop that is primarily grown in equatorial regions, but it can also be cultivated in tropical and subtropical regions. The geographical conditions required for rubber cultivation are as follows:

  • Moist and humid climate: Rubber plants thrive in areas with high humidity and abundant rainfall. The annual rainfall should be more than 200 cm.
  • Temperature: Rubber cultivation requires a temperature range above 25°C. It cannot withstand extreme cold temperatures.
  • Soil: Rubber plants prefer well-drained, fertile soil. Sandy loam and laterite soils are suitable for rubber cultivation.
  • Growing regions in India: Rubber is mainly grown in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andaman & Nicobar Islands. The Garo hills of Meghalaya also have rubber plantations.

Q20: Categorise the following as ‘Rabi crops’ and ‘Zaid crops’:  (Al 2019)

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Ans: 
(i) Wheat – Rabi crop
(ii) Watermelon – Zaid crop
(iii) Fodder crops – Rabi crop
(iv) Mustard – Rabi crop
(v) Cucumber – Zaid crop
(vi) Peas – Rabi crop

Q21:  Describe the geographical conditions required for tea cultivation.   (2019 C)

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Ans: The geographical conditions required for tea cultivation are as follows:
(a) Temperature: Tea bushes require a hot and wet climate. The ideal temperature range for their growth is between 20°C to 30°C. Extreme temperatures below 10°C and above 35°C can be harmful to the plants.
(b) Rainfall: Tea plants need a good amount of rainfall ranging between 150-300 cm. The annual rainfall should be well-distributed throughout the year, as long dry spells can be detrimental to tea cultivation
(c) Soil: Tea bushes thrive in well-drained, deep, and loamy soil. The presence of humus and iron content in the soil is beneficial for tea cultivation. Shady areas with trees are preferred for tea plantations.

Q22: Describe the geographical conditions required for the growth of ‘wheat’ in India. (2019 C, 2014)

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Ans: The geographical conditions required for the growth of wheat in India are as follows:

  • Cool growing season: Wheat requires a cool growing season and bright sunshine during the ripening period.
  • Rainfall: Wheat cultivation requires an annual rainfall of 50 to 75 cm, which should be evenly distributed throughout the growing season.
  • Soil: Wheat grows well in fertile alluvial soil or mixed soil. Well-drained plain lands or gentle slopes are ideal for wheat cultivation.
  • Growing regions in India: The major wheat-producing regions in India are the Ganga-Satluj plains in the northwest and the black soil region of the Deccan. The states of Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, and parts of Madhya Pradesh are the main wheat-producing states.

Q23: Name the two major beverage crops grown in India. Describe their growing areas.   (2019)

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Ans: The two major beverage crops grown in India are tea and coffee.
Tea cultivation is mainly done in Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala. Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya, Andhra Pradesh, and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country. India is the second-largest producer of tea after China.
Coffee cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu. Karnataka accounts for 70% of the coffee produced in India.


Q24: Name the two major fibre crops grown in India. Describe the conditions required for the growth of these two crops with their growing areas.   (2019)

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Ans: The two major fibre crops grown in India are cotton and jute.
Conditions required for cotton:

  • Temperature: Cotton is the crop of tropical and subtropical areas and requires uniformly high temperature varying between 21°C and 30°C.
  • Rainfall: It grows mostly in the areas having at least 210 frost-free days in a year. It requires a modest amount of rainfall of 50 to 100 cm.
  • Soil: Cotton cultivation is closely related to Black soils of Deccan and Malwa plateau.

Conditions required for jute:

  • Jute grows well on well-drained fertile soils in the flood plains where soils are renewed every year.
  • High temperature is required during the time of growth.

Q25: Categorise the following as kharif crops and rabi crops: 
(I) Wheat  
(II) Maize 
(III) Barley  
(IV) Peas  
(V) Bajra 
(VI) Tur (arhar)    (CBSE 2019)

Ans: 
(I)
 Wheat – Rabi crop
(II) Maize – Kharif crop
(III) Barley – Rabi crop
(IV) Peas – Rabi crop
(V) Bajra – Kharif crop
(VI) Tur (arhar) – Kharif crop

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q26: The government of India has introduced various institutional and technological reforms to improve agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s. Support this statement with examples.   (Delhi 2018)

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Ans: The government of India introduced various institutional and technological reforms to improve agriculture in the 1980s and 1990s. Some examples of these reforms are:

  • Provision for crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, and disease to protect farmers from crop losses.
  • Establishment of Grameen banks, cooperative societies, and banks for providing loan facilities to farmers at lower interest rates.
  • Introduction of Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) to provide financial support and insurance coverage to farmers.
  • Special weather bulletins and agricultural programs for farmers on radio and television to provide them with timely information and guidance.
  • Announcement of minimum support price (MSP) and remunerative prices for important crops to ensure fair prices for farmers’ produce and protect them from exploitation by intermediaries.
  • Promotion of technological advancements in agriculture, such as the use of improved seeds, fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation techniques to increase productivity.


Q27: Explain any three steps for agriculture reforms taken by the Government of India, after the independence.  (Delhi 2018)

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Ans: Three steps taken for agriculture reforms by the Government of India after independence are as follows: (i) From the earliest days, agriculture was given great importance in the “five year plans”. Other important steps included: (ii) Abolishment of zamindari system. The right to own the land was given to the actual cultivators which then led to an increase in the production. (iii) Cooperative societies were formed which provided quality seeds and fertilizers to farmers at a low price. (iv) Another act called ‘land ceiling act’ was passed, according to which the land could not be held by a person beyond a defined limit.


Q28: Compare ‘intensive subsistence farming’ with that of ‘commercial farming’ practiced in India.   (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: ‘Intensive Subsistence farming’ and ‘Commercial farming’ can be compared and described using these points: 
(1) In regions of intensive subsistence farming, pressure of population on land is high whereas in commercial farming, population density is low. 
(2) In intensive subsistence farming, farming is labour-intensive whereas in commercial farming, mechanised form of farming is used. 
(3) In intensive subsistence farming, there is low capital investment whereas in commercial farming, high capital investment is seen. 
(4) In intensive subsistence farming, farmers produce for their own consumption whereas in commercial farming, production is mainly for the market. 
(5) In intensive subsistence farming, processing industries are not associated with farms whereas in commercial farming, processing industries are associated with plantations.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q29: By which name is specialised cultivation of fruits and vegetables known?    (2017)

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Ans: Horticulture


Q30: Describe ‘Jhumming cultivation’ in one sentence.    (2017)

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Ans: Jhumming cultivation, also known as the slash and burn agriculture, is the process of growing crops by first clearing the land of trees and vegetation and burning them thereafter.


Q31: Which factors has helped Punjab and Haryana to grow more and more of rice?   (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Development of dense canal network and inputs like fertilisers and pesticides.


Q32: What is the importance of pulses in our country? Why are pulses grown as a rotation crop?   (2017)

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Ans: Pulses hold great importance in our country due to the following reasons:

  • Protein source: Pulses are rich in proteins and serve as a significant source of protein in the Indian diet. They are the second most important constituent after cereals.
  • Soil fertility: Pulses are grown as rotation crops because they help in restoring soil fertility. Being leguminous crops, they have the ability to fix nitrogen from the air, which improves soil health.
  • Water requirement: Pulses require less moisture compared to other crops, making them suitable for dry conditions.
  • Major pulse-producing states: Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh are the major pulse-producing states in India.


Q33: Name any four oilseeds produced in India. Explain the importance of oilseeds in our day to day life.   (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Four oilseeds produced in India are groundnut, mustard, coconut, and sesamum.
Importance of oilseeds:

  • Most of these oilseeds are edible in the form of oil, which is an essential ingredient in cooking.
  • They are used as raw materials for manufacturing paints, varnishes, soaps, perfumes, etc.
  • Oil cake, the by-product of oilseeds, is used as cattle feed and fertilizer.


Q34: What are millets? Give a brief description of the climatic conditions and producing states of the millets grown in India.   (2017)

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Ans: Millets are coarse grains that have high nutritional value, such as ragi, which is rich in iron and calcium.

  • (i) Jowar: It is a rain-fed crop that mostly grows in moist areas. It is grown in states like Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • (ii) Bajra: It grows well on sandy soils and shallow black soil. It is grown in states like Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Gujarat, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh.
  • (iii) Ragi: It grows well in dry regions on red, black, sandy, and loamy soils. It is grown in states like Tamil Nadu, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, and Sikkim.


Q35: Explain any five initiatives taken by the government to ensure an increase in agricultural production.   (2017)

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Ans: Five initiatives taken by the government to ensure an increase in agricultural production are:

  • Land reforms: The government implemented collectivization, consolidation of land holdings, cooperation, and abolition of zamindari to improve land productivity and reduce inequalities.
  • Agricultural reforms: The introduction of the Green Revolution and White Revolution (Operation Flood) aimed at increasing agricultural productivity and promoting dairy farming.
  • Land development programs: The government provided crop insurance against drought, flood, cyclone, etc., and established Grameen banks, cooperative societies, and banks to provide financial support and loans to farmers.
  • Introduction of schemes like Kisan Credit Card (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS) to provide financial assistance and insurance coverage to farmers.
  • Promotion of modern agricultural practices and technologies such as soil testing facilities, cold storage, and transportation to improve agricultural productivity and reduce post-harvest losses.
Also read: Mind Map: Agriculture

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q36: Which is the leading coffee producing state in India?   (2016)

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Ans: Karnataka


Q37: What is the importance of millets?   (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In addition to their good nutritional value, an important feature of these crops is that they require much less water to grow than rice and wheat. They can be successfully cultivated in semi-arid tropics and on poor soils


Q38: Which crop is known as the ‘golden fibre’? Explain any two geographical conditions essential for the cultivation of this crop. Mention its any four uses.   (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:
(i) Jute is known as the ‘golden fibre’.
(ii) Geographical conditions required for the cultivation of jute:

  • It grows well in drained fertile soil of the flood plains where the soil is renewed every year.
  • High temperature is required during the time of growth.

Uses of jute:

  • Jute can be used to manufacture gunny bags, mats, ropes, yarn, carpets, and other artifacts.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q39: What are the growing conditions required for the main staple food crop of India? Mention the main growing regions.   (2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The main staple food crop of India is rice. The growing conditions required for rice cultivation are as follows:
(a) High temperature: Rice is a Kharif crop and requires high temperatures above 25°C for its growth.
(b) High humidity and rainfall: Rice cultivation requires high humidity and an annual rainfall of over 100 cm. It thrives in areas with a high water table or near river valleys.
(c) Main growing regions: Rice is grown in various regions of India, including the northern plains, northeastern India, coastal areas, deltaic plains, and river valleys.


Q40: How many cropping seasons are found in India? Name them and write a short note on each. (CBSE 2015, 2014)

Hide Answer  

Ans: India has three cropping seasons, namely:
(i) Rabi: The rabi season begins with the onset of winter in October-November and lasts until March-April. It is characterized by low-temperature conditions, which are suitable for the cultivation of temperate and subtropical crops. Major rabi crops include wheat, gram, and mustard.
(ii) Kharif: The kharif season largely coincides with the southwest monsoon, which provides the necessary water for cultivation. It is suitable for the cultivation of tropical crops such as rice, cotton, jute, jowar, bajra, and tur.
(iii) Zaid: The zaid season is a short-duration summer cropping season that begins after the harvesting of rabi crops. It includes crops such as watermelon, cucumber, and other vegetables that can be grown during the summer months. 


Q41: Mention any two geographical conditions required for the growth of the maize crop in India. Describe any three factors that have contributed to an increase in maize production.   (2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Geographical conditions required for the growth of the maize crop in India:

  • It is a kharif crop that requires a temperature between 21°C to 27°C.
  • It grows well in alluvial soil.

Factors contributing to the increase in maize production:

  • Use of modern inputs such as high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, fertilizers, and irrigation.
  • Adoption of improved farming techniques and practices.
  • Government support through subsidies and incentives to maize farmers.


Q42: Explain any three geographical conditions required for the growth of rice in India. How is it possible to grow rice in areas of less rainfall? Explain with examples.   (2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three geographical conditions required for the growth of rice in India:

  • High temperature (above 25°C)
  • Annual rainfall above 100 cm
  • High humidity

Rice can be grown in areas of less rainfall with the help of irrigation. For example, in Punjab and Haryana, rice cultivation is possible despite receiving less rainfall because these states have a well-developed canal irrigation system. Water is supplied to the fields through canals, ensuring sufficient moisture for rice cultivation.

03. Previous Year Questions: Water Resources

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(a) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(b) a-i, b-ii, c-iv, d-iii
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
(d) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
The table below shows the correct matching of dams with their respective rivers:

Correct Matches:

  • a-iv (Hirakud – Mahanadi)
  • b-i (Gandhi Sagar – Chambal)
  • c-ii (Nagarjuna Sagar – Krishna)
  • d-iii (Mettur – Kaveri)

Thus, option (C) is correct.


Q2: Choose the correct option regarding major states involved in the Krishna-Godavari issue:  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu
(b) Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh
(c) Gujarat, Maharashtra, and Madhya Pradesh
(d) Jharkhand, Andhra Pradesh, and Odisha

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh

The Krishna–Godavari dispute arose because Maharashtra diverted more water at Koyna for a multipurpose project, to which Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh raised objections.


Q3: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(a) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
(b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(d) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii

The table below shows the correct matching of rivers with their respective dams:

Correct Matches:

  • a-iii (Chambal – Gandhi Sagar)
  • b-iv (Ganga – Tehri)
  • c-i (Chenab – Salal)
  • d-ii (Satluj – Bhakra Nangal)

Thus, option (C) is correct.


Q4: Choose the correct option of the states that have been majorly benefitted by the Sardar Sarovar Dam.  (1 Mark)
Options:
(a) 
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Punjab, and Haryana
(b) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan
(c) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh
(d) Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Karnataka, and Chhattisgarh

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the Narmada River in Gujarat. It covers four states — Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Rajasthan — providing irrigation facilities, drinking water, and drought-proofing especially in arid regions like Barmer and Jalore in Rajasthan.


Q5: How has the overuse of underground water created a serious crisis in many parts of India? Explain with examples in the context of sustainable development. (5 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

The overuse of underground water has created a serious problem in many parts of India:

  1. Declining Water Table – Farmers use their own wells and tube-wells to irrigate crops. This has caused the groundwater level to fall rapidly.
  2. Food Security at Risk – Over-exploitation of water for irrigation reduces availability in the future and may threaten food production.
  3. Urban Areas – In many cities, housing societies depend on private pumps. This leads to depletion of fragile water resources.
  4. Industrialisation – Industries use huge amounts of water and also pollute it, further reducing usable freshwater.
  5. Need for Sustainable Use – Government programmes like Jal Jeevan Mission and Atal Bhujal Yojana promote conservation and smart management to protect this resource.

Hence, overuse of groundwater has caused a serious water crisis and can only be solved through conservation and sustainable development.


Q6: How have industrialization and urbanization impacted water supply? Explain.  (3 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Industrialisation and urbanisation have put immense pressure on water supply in India:

  1. Industrial Use – Industries are heavy users of water and also need large amounts of power, much of which comes from hydroelectric sources.
  2. Pollution of Water – Many industries discharge wastes, chemicals, and effluents, making freshwater hazardous for use.
  3. Urban Overuse – Rapid growth of cities with dense populations has increased demand. Most colonies have their own pumps, leading to over-exploitation and depletion of fragile groundwater resources.

Thus, industrialisation and urbanisation have worsened the problem of water scarcity.


Q7: Explain any three aims of Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM).  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was started by the Government of India with the goal of providing safe water in rural areas. Its aims are:

  • Assured Water Supply – To provide every rural household with a regular supply of potable piped water.
  • Service Level – To ensure at least 55 litres per person per day is available.
  • Long-term Functionality – To make sure tap connections remain functional on a long-term basis.

Thus, JJM focuses on improving the quality of life and ensuring safe drinking water for all rural households.


Q8: Choose the correct option to fill the blank.  
An artificial lake built in the 11th century for water conservation is:  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Sambhar Lake
(b) Wular Lake
(c) Bhopal Lake
(d) Chilka Lake

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Bhopal Lake

The Bhopal Lake, built in the 11th century, was one of the largest artificial lakes of its time for water conservation.


Q9: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)

(a) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii
(b) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(c) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
(d) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i

The table below shows the correct matching of dams with their respective rivers:

Thus, option (C) is correct.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Which one of the following is the irrigation system in Meghalaya?   (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
To irrigate land only during rainy season.
(b) To use large volumes of water for irrigation.
(c) To remove water from soil.
(d) To use bamboo drip irrigation system.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
In Meghalaya, farmers use a unique method called bamboo drip irrigation, which involves directing water through bamboo tubes to irrigate their fields. This traditional system is efficient and well-suited to the hilly terrain of the region, allowing for sustainable agriculture even in areas with limited water resources.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: In which of the following States Tungabhadra Dam is located?    (2023)
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Kerala
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The Tungabhadra Dam is located in the state of Karnataka. Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Karnataka. 


Q3: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:    (2023)
RAINWATER HARVESTING
Many thought that, given the disadvantages and rising resistance against the multi-purpose projects, the water harvesting system was a viable alternative, both socio-economically and environmentally. In ancient India, along with the sophisticated hydraulic structures, there existed an extraordinary tradition of water harvesting systems. People had in-depth knowledge of rainfall regimes and soil types and developed wide-ranging techniques to harvest rainwater, groundwater, river water and flood water in keeping with the local ecological conditions and their water needs. In hill and mountainous regions, people built diversion channels like the ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ of the Western Himalayas for agriculture. ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was commonly practised to store drinking water, particularly in Rajasthan. In the floodplains of Bengal, people developed inundation channels to irrigate their fields. In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain-fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
(i) Why is water harvesting system a viable alternative?
(ii) Describe the process of ‘rooftop rainwater harvesting.’
(iii) Mention any two methods adopted by ancient India for water conservation.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) The water harvesting system emerges as a viable alternative due to its dual benefits—socio-economic and environmental friendliness.
(ii) ‘Rooftop Rainwater Harvesting’ involves capturing rainwater from the roof, storing it in reservoirs, and providing a sustainable source of drinking water, especially notable in Rajasthan.
(iii) Ancient India employed diverse water conservation methods, such as building diversion channels like ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ in the Western Himalayas for agriculture and creating rainfed storage structures like ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan’s other regions.

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q4: Which one of the following factors is mainly responsible for declining water level in India?    (2022)
(a) Irrigation
(b) Industrialisation
(c) Urbanisation
(d) Over-utilisation

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Over-utilisation is mainly responsible for declining water level in India. A s the population increases, the consumption of water also increases.

Also watch: Quick Revision: Water Resources

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q5: How are traditional rainwater harvesting methods being carried out to conserve water resources in different regions? Explain with examples.    (2019 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) In hilly regions, people engineered diversion channels like ‘guls’ or ‘kuls’ in the Western Himalayas to support agriculture.

(ii) ‘Rooftop rainwater harvesting’ was a common practice in Rajasthan for storing drinking water.

(iii) In Bengal’s floodplains, people ingeniously developed inundation channels for field irrigation.

(iv) Arid and semi-arid regions transformed agricultural fields into rainfed storage structures like ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in Rajasthan, while regions like Bikaner, Phalodi, and Barmer adopted underground tanks for drinking water.

Q6: “Archaeological and historical records show that from ancient times we have been constructing sophisticated hydraulic structures in India.” Substantiate the statement by giving three pieces of evidence.   (2019 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Archaeological and historical records reveal India’s rich tradition of sophisticated hydraulic structures:

  • In the 1st century B.C., Sringaverapura near Allahabad showcased advanced water harvesting, channeling Ganga’s floodwaters.
  • During Chandragupta Maurya’s rule, extensive construction of dams, lakes, and irrigation systems occurred.
  • Evidence of sophisticated irrigation works is found in places like Kalinga, Nagarjunakonda, Bennur, and Kolhapur. In the 11th century, the construction of Bhopal Lake and the 14th-century tank in Hauz Khas, Delhi, further demonstrates India’s historical prowess in hydraulic engineering.


Q7: “Water scarcity may be an outcome of large and growing population in India.” Analyse the statement.    (Delhi 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Water scarcity in India is exacerbated by its large and growing population:

  • Greater demands for water arise not only from domestic use but also from increased food production.
  • Densely populated areas experience groundwater over-exploitation, significantly lowering water tables.
  • Industrial demands and associated pollution further strain freshwater resources, contributing to water scarcity in many Indian cities.


Q8: “Multi-purpose projects and large dams have been the cause of many new social movements.” Highlight the concerns related to such movements.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Resistance to these projects (Narmada Bachao Andolan and Tehri Dam Andolan) has primarily been due to the large-scale displacement of local communities. So, if the local people are not benefiting from such projects then who is benefited? With abundance of water many farmers shifting to water intensive and commercial crops. This has great ecological consequences like salinization of the soil. It has transformed the social landscape i.e. increasing the social gap between the richer landowners and the landless poor.


Q9: “Urbanisation has added to water scarcity.” Support the statement with arguments.  (Al 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Urbanization exacerbates water scarcity in India due to:

  • Increased water demand for personal use in densely populated urban centers.
  • Over-exploitation of groundwater by housing societies and colonies.
  • Industries in urban areas contribute to water stress through high consumption and pollution.


Q10: “The dams that were constructed to control floods have triggered floods.” Analyze the statement.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Damming of rivers affects their natural flow causing poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, and poorer habitat for the rivers’ aquatic life. Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially for spawning. Reservoirs created on the floodplains also submerge the existing vegetation and soil leading to its decomposition.


Q11: “Water harvesting system is an effective measure to reduce the problem of water scarcity.” Justify the statement.    (Al 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A large amount of this precious water just drains away. The only way to save this water from wastage is by rainwater harvesting. In its simplest form it involves storing the rainwater in tanks, or by making embankments etc. The different methods of rainwater harvesting used in India have been as follows:
(a) Guls or Kuls in the Western Himalayas.
(b) Rooftop rainwater harvesting in Rajasthan associated with tankas. Khadins in Jaisalmer and Johads in other parts of Rajasthan were also popular.
(c) Inundation channels in West Bengal
(d) In Meghalaya which gets copious rain, rainwater harvesting is commonly practiced.
(e) In modern civil construction and housing societies provision for rainwater harvesting.


Q12: How has Shillong solved the problem of acute shortage of water ?   (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In Meghalaya, a system of tapping stream and spring water by using bamboo pipes is prevalent. This system solved the problem of acute shortage of water, to some extent.


Q13: How has Tamil Nadu solved the problem of acute shortage of water ?   (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Tamil Nadu has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state. This provision helped the state Tamil Nadu to solve the problem of acute shortage of water.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q14: Explain any three reasons for which the multi-purpose projects and large dams have come under great scrutiny and opposition in the recent years.     (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Regulating and damming of rivers affect their natural flow causing poor sediment flow and excessive sedimentation at the bottom of the reservoir, resulting in rockier stream beds and poorer habitats for the rivers’ aquatic life.
(b) Dams also fragment rivers making it difficult for aquatic fauna to migrate, especially for spawning.
(c) The reservoirs that are created on the floodplains also submerge the existing vegetation and soil leading to its decomposition over a period of time.

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q15: Water scarcity in most cases is caused by over-exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups.” Explain the meaning of statement with the help of examples.     (CBSE 2016-17)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Water scarcity in most cases results from over-exploitation, excessive use, and unequal access among social groups:

  • Over-exploitation is evident through extensive tubewell use for irrigation and industrial purposes.
  • Excessive use is seen in urban areas where water is wasted due to inadequate recycling.
  • Unequal access is apparent with affluent individuals having ample water while the poor face limited supply.


Q16: What is rainwater harvesting ?
Or
How is rainwater harvesting carried out in semi-arid regions of Rajasthan ? 
Explain.      (CBSE 2016-17)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Rainwater harvesting is a technique of increasing the recharge of groundwater by capturing and storing rainwater by constructing structures, such as dugwells, percolation pits, checkdams.
(b) (i) In arid and semi-arid regions, agricultural fields were converted into rain fed storage structures that allowed the water to stand and moisten the soil like the ‘Khadins’ in Jaisalmer and ‘Johads’ in other parts of Rajasthan.
(ii) In Bikaner, Phalodi and Banner, almost all the houses had underground tanks for storing drinking water.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q17: “India has a monsoon type of climate, even then it faces water scarcity in many parts of the country”. Elucidate the given sentence by providing some examples. 
OR

What is water scarcity? Write the main reasons for water scarcity.   (CBSE 2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Water scarcity means shortage of water. It is usually associated with regions having low ground water but it can also be about inferior quality of the water available. There are many other reasons which can cause scarcity of water. 
India has a monsoon type of climate which guarantees appropriate rainfall, yet it has water scarcity because: 
(1) 
The availability of water resources varies over space and time, mainly due to the variations in seasonal and annual precipitation. 
(2) Over-exploitation, excessive use and unequal access to water among different social groups of citizens also causes scarcity. 
(3) Water scarcity may be an outcome of a large and growing population and consequent greater demand for water. 
(4) Most farmers have their personal wells and tubewells in their farms for irrigation to increase their production. Excessive exploitation of groundwater can cause water scarcity. 
(5) Water scarcity can also be caused due to availability of inferior quality of water. This happens because industrial and domestic waste are released into water bodies making them unfit for use.

Also watch: Quick Revision: Water Resources

Previous Year Questions 2012

Q18: How has intensive industrialisation and urbanisation posed a great pressure on existing fresh water resources in India? Explain with two examples for each.   (CBSE 2012)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Intensive industrialisation and urbanisation has put greater pressure on existing fresh water resources as: 
(1) With the rising number of industries, the demand for water, as a consequence, has grown tremendously. 
(2) Industries are heavy users of fresh water as water is required for cooling the machines and processing of goods. 
(3) The untreated industrial effluents which are discharged into water bodies pollute the water making it hazardous for human consumption causing qualitative scarcity. 
(4) Urban lifestyles have further aggravated the problem. Urban population overdraws the groundwater by using their own groundwater pumping devices. 
(5) Large populations have greater demand of water for consumption and domestic purposes which in turn has increased the stress on water bodies in regions surrounding them.

02. Previous Year Questions: Forest and Wildlife Resources

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Which of the following characteristics of the Indian Wild Life (Protection) Act are correct?  (1 Mark)
Characteristics:
I. To make provisions for habitat for wild animals.
II. To publish list of protected species.
III. To ban hunting to save endangered species.
IV. To include important subjects like forests and wildlife in the Union List.
(a) 
Only I, II and III are correct.
(b) Only I, II and IV are correct.
(c) Only II, III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, III and IV are correct.  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Only I, II and III are correct.  
The Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972 provided provisions for protecting habitats, published an all-India list of protected species, and banned hunting to save endangered species. But forests and wildlife are not mentioned in the Act as Union List subjects in the chapter.


Q2: Choose the correctly matched pair from the following:  (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam  

  • Manas Tiger Reserve is located in Assam. The other pairs are incorrectly matched:
    • Corbett National Park → Uttarakhand
    • Sunderban National Park → West Bengal
    • Bandhavgarh National Park → Madhya Pradesh

Or

Choose the correctly matched pair:  (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Manas Tiger Reserve – Assam  


Q3: Match Column I with Column II and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)

(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
(b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
(c) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
(d) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i  
The table below shows the correct matching of each national park or wildlife sanctuary with its respective state:  

The correct mapping is:  

  • a-ii (Sariska – Rajasthan)  
  • b-iii (Manas – Assam)  
  • c-iv (Periyar – Kerala)  
  • d-i (Corbett – Uttarakhand)

Thus, option (b) is correct.


Q4: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
Sacred Groves – a wealth of diverse and rare species
Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred. Indian society comprises several cultures, each with its own set of traditional methods of conserving nature and its creations. Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants, and animals which are closely protected. You will find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees. In and around Bishnoi villages in Rajasthan, herds of blackbuck (chinkara), nilgai, and peacocks can be seen as an integral part of the community and nobody harms them.  

(i) How do sacred groves show the inter-connectivity of spirituality and ecology?  (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

(i) Sacred groves show the inter-connectivity of spirituality and ecology because nature is worshipped as divine, leading to protection of forests, trees, springs, plants, and animals.

(ii) How do tribal practices promote conservation of forests?  (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (ii) Tribal practices promote conservation as communities like Mundas, Santhals, and tribals of Odisha and Bihar preserve and worship trees like mahua, kadamba, tamarind, and mango, leaving forests untouched and banning interference. 

(iii) Why is conservation of wildlife important for all of us? Explain.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Conservation of wildlife is important because it preserves ecological diversity and life-support systems (water, air, soil). It also maintains genetic diversity of plants and animals, supporting agriculture, fisheries, and overall human survival.


Q5: Which state of India has the maximum area under permanent forest?  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Haryana
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Madhya Pradesh  

Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting about 75% of its total forest area.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:   (CBSE 2024)
Nature worship is an age-old tribal belief based on the premise that all creations of nature have to be protected. Such beliefs have preserved several virgin forests in pristine form called Sacred Groves (the forests of God and Goddesses). These patches of forest or parts of large forests have been left untouched by the local people and any interference with them is banned. Certain societies revere a particular tree which they have preserved from time immemorial. The Mundas and the Santhal of Chota Nagpur region worship mahua (Bassia latifolia) and kadamba (Anthocaphalus cadamba) trees, and the tribals of Odisha and Bihar worship the tamarind (Tamarindus indica) and mango (Mangifera indica) trees during weddings. To many of us, peepal and banyan trees are considered sacred. Indian society comprises several cultures, each with its own set of traditional methods of conserving nature and its creations. Sacred qualities are often ascribed to springs, mountain peaks, plants and animals which are closely protected. You will find troops of macaques and langurs around many temples. They are fed daily and treated as a part of temple devotees. In and around Bishnoi villages in Rajasthan, herds of blackbuck, (chinkara), nilgai and peacocks can be seen as an integral part of the community and nobody harms them.

(i) How does the sacred grove relate to the belief in nature worship?

Hide Answer  

Ans: Many cultures, especially Indian tribal communities, hold sacred groves in high regard as places where the natural world’s divinity is recognised and honored. These groves serve as physical representations of the idea that all natural objects are sacred and deserve preservation.

(ii) How do communities incorporate trees into their cultural practices? Explain with an example. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Communities include trees in their cultural practices in a variety of ways, primarily by giving sacred or symbolic meaning. For example, certain trees, like the tamarind, mango, kadamba, and mahua, have great significance and are worshipped during weddings and other ceremonies in many Indian tribal communities. Similarly, sacred trees like banyan and peepal are frequently connected to places of worship like temples.

(iii) Explain the cultural values that contribute to the coexistence of nature.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (1) Numerous societies have customs regarding the preservation of particular natural regions, like sacred woods, where particular species of trees or ecosystems are respected. These places hold rituals and ceremonies that uphold the cultural value of honoring and protecting the natural world.
(2) Natural elements such as trees, animals, and other features are frequently symbolic in cultural belief systems. For instance, groups of macaques and langurs that surround numerous temples receive daily food and are regarded as members of the temple community. Herds of blackbuck, nilgai, and peacocks are regarded as essential members of the community in certain villages of Rajasthan.
This perspective demonstrates a shared understanding of how crucial it is to coexist with nature.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: Which of the following options represent potential measures that can be taken to mitigate the threats posed on the tiger population and biodiversity?
(I) Banning hunting, giving legal protection to their habitats, and restricting trade in wildlife.
(II) Prohibiting the visit of public into forest area.
(III) Establishing wildlife sanctuaries and National Parks.
(IV) Converting forests into Reserved and Protected forests.  (CBSE SQP 2023)
Options:
(a)
 Statements (I) and (II) are correct.
(b) Statements (II), (III) and (IV) are correct.
(c) Statement (II) is correct.
(d) Statements (I), (III), and (IV) are correct.

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Ans: (d)

Statement (I) suggests banning hunting and protecting tiger habitats, which helps in conserving the tiger population and maintaining biodiversity.
Statement (III) about establishing wildlife sanctuaries and national parks provides safe areas for tigers and other wildlife to thrive, promoting biodiversity.
Statement (IV) on converting forests into reserved and protected forests ensures that these areas are safeguarded from exploitation and development.
Statement (II), which proposes prohibiting public visits to forest areas, might not be practical or beneficial for conservation efforts. Allowing controlled visits can raise awareness and support for wildlife protection.

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q3: Which of the following descriptions of forest is NOT correct?   (2022)
(a) Reserved Forest – Reservation of more than half of forests
(b) Protected Forest – Reservation of 1/3 of the forests
(c) Unclassed Forest – Reservation of forest under government and private individuals.
(d) Permanent Forest – Reserved and unclassed forest for the production of timber.

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Ans: (d)
Reserved and protected forests are referred to as permanent forest. It is maintained for the purpose of prod ucing ti mber and ot her forest product. 


Q4: Match the items in Column A with those of Column B.  (Delhi Gov. SQP 2022)
(a)
 (A)-(III), (B)-(I), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(b) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
(c) (A)-(II), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(III)
(d) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(II), (D)-(I)

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Ans: (c)

(A) Sariska Tiger Reserve is located in (II) Rajasthan. It is a well-known tiger reserve famous for its tiger population.

(B) Bhairodev Dakav ‘Sonchuri‘ is in (IV) Alwar, which is part of Rajasthan, and this area is noted for its unique wildlife and conservation efforts.

(C) Chipko movement began in (I) Uttarakhand as a grassroots movement to protect trees and forests.

(D) Navdanya is an organization that promotes biodiversity and organic farming, and it is associated with (III) Karnataka.


Q5: How do human beings influence the ecology of a region?  (Delhi Gov. SQP 2022)

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Ans: Human beings influence the ecology of a region in several ways:

  • Breathing: Humans inhale oxygen and exhale carbon dioxide, which are essential for plant life.
  • Anthropogenic activities: Actions such as agriculture, grazing, and industrial development permanently alter the ecology of a region.
  • Consumption: Humans use various products from plants and animals, affecting their demand and consequently altering ecosystems.


Q6: What is a wildlife sanctuary? How is it different from national parks?  (Delhi Gov. SQP 2022)

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Ans: A protected area set aside for the preservation and conservation of wildlife and their habitats is known as a wildlife sanctuary. Governments or private organisations created these areas with the intention of protecting biodiversity, fostering ecological balance, and offering refuge to threatened or endangered species.
The difference between wildlife sanctuaries and national parks are:


Q7: The destruction of forests and wildlife is not just a biological issue. The biological loss is strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity.” Explain the statement by giving relevant examples.   (Delhi Gov. SQP 2022)

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Ans: The destruction of forests and wildlife is not just a biological issue. The biological loss is strongly correlated with the loss of cultural diversity.

This can be proved using the following points:

  • Marginalisation: The loss of biological diversity has pushed many native and forest communities into poverty, as they rely on forests for food, shelter, and livelihoods.
  • Cultural Impact: These communities have lifestyles and cultures that are deeply tied to the forests. When forests disappear, their cultures are directly affected.
  • Gender Disparity: Women, who are primarily responsible for gathering produce, fuel, fodder, and water, face greater challenges. Their increased workload affects their health and family roles.
  • Generational Loss: As women struggle, they may neglect their children, leading to a loss of cultural transmission and values.
  • Traditional Practices: Many communities have unique rituals linked to forests, such as worship and marriage ceremonies. The loss of forests can mean the disappearance of these important traditions.
Also read: Mnemonics: Forest and Wildlife Resources

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q8: In which year was the ‘Indian Wildlife Protection Act’ implemented in India? Describe the main thrust area of this program.  (2017)

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Ans: (i) In the 1960s and 1970s, the conservationists demanded some rules to protect the wildlife. Conceding to their demand, the government enacted the Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972. Under this act, an all-India list of protected species was published.
(ii) Hunting was banned to protect the remaining population of some endangered species.
(iii) Trade in wildlife was restricted and the habitats of wildlife were given legal protection. Many national parks and wildlife sanctuaries were established by central state governments and the state governments.
(iv) Several projects were announced for protecting specific animals, e.g. Project Tiger. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 to protect tigers from becoming extinct.


Q9: What is biodiversity? Why is biodiversity important for human lives? Analyse.  (2017)

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Ans: Biodiversity refers to diverse flora and fauna that exist in a given area. Plants, animals and human beings are interdependent. It is necessary for human beings as we get fresh air, water, food etc., from them. Thus, the existence of human beings depends on them.
Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, all have an important role to play. For example, a larger number of plant species means a greater variety of crops. Greater species diversity ensures natural sustainability for all life forms. Healthy ecosystems can better withstand and recover from a variety of disasters. And so, while we dominate this planet, we still need to preserve the diversity in wildlife. Each species depends on the services provided by other species to ensure survival. It is a type of cooperation based on mutual survival that is provided by a balanced eco system. That is why when the ecosystem is disturbed survival of the species becomes difficult.

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Previous Year Questions 2016

Q10: ‘Forests and wildlife are vital to the quality of life and environment’. Justify the statement by giving three reasons.    (2016)

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Ans: Forests and wildlife are vital to the quality of life and environment. This is because the destruction of forests and wildlife leads to:

  • Loss of cultural diversity: Communities relying on forest products suffer greatly due to the decline of flora and fauna.
  • Impact on women: In rural areas, women are responsible for gathering firewood, fodder, and water. The depletion of these resources increases their workload and can lead to health issues.
  • Poverty: When tribal populations cannot access basic supplies, they must purchase them, creating greater economic strain.


Q11: ‘Large-scale development projects have also contributed significantly to the loss of forests’. Justify this statement with relevant examples.    (2016)

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Ans: (i) Since 1951, over 5000 sq km of forest was cleared for River Valley Projects.
(ii) Clearing of forests is still continuing with projects like the Narmada Sagar Project in Madhya Pradesh which would inundate 40,000 hectares of forest.
(iii) Mining is another important factor behind deforestation.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q12: Analyse any four reasons for the depletion of forest resources in India.    (2015)

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Ans: Reasons for the depletion of forest resources in India are:
(i) Extensive use of forest products such as wood, barks, leaves, rubber, medicines, dyes, food, fuel, fodder, manure etc.
(ii) Agricultural expansion, development of railways, mining, commercial and social forestry.
(iii) Substantial forests in the tribal belts of northeastern states have been degraded by shifting cultivation (Jhumming) or slash and burn agriculture.
(iv) Large scale developmental projects like Narmada Sagar Project of Madhya Pradesh which would inundate 40,000 hectares of forests.
(v) Mining is another important factor, as in the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal is seriously threatened by dolomite mining. It has disturbed the natural habitat of many species and migration route of animals, especially the great Indian elephant.


Q13: Describe the steps taken to conserve the flora and fauna of the country.   (2015,2014)

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Ans: The various steps taken to conserve the flora and fauna of the country include:

  • Implementation of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act 1972.
  • Controlling deforestation and promoting afforestation programmes.
  • Providing legal protection to animals by enforcing laws against hunting and poaching.
  • Raising public awareness about the importance of forests and their biodiversity.
  • Establishing biosphere reserves; India has set up 18 such reserves.
  • Offering financial and technical support to various botanical gardens.
  • Implementing focused projects like Project Tiger, Project Rhino, and Project Great Indian Bustard.
  • Creating 106 national parks and 565 wildlife sanctuaries to protect natural heritage.
Important Questions (1 Mark): Forest & Wildlife Resources

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q14: Explain any three factors responsible for the depletion of flora and fauna in India.  (2014)

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Ans: Three major reasons which are responsible for the depletion of flora and fauna in India: 

(i) Agricultural expansion: After Independence agricultural expansion became the major cause of depletion of forest resources. Between 1951 and 1980, according to the Forest Survey of India, over 26,200 sq. km of fore are was converted into agricultural land all over India
(ii) Mining: It is another major factor responsible for deforestation, eg. dolomite mining has been seriously three attended the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal. This ongoing mining has disturbed the natural habitat and blocked the migration route of a great Indian elephant.
(iii) Large-scale development projects: Since 1951, over 5000 sq km of forest was cleared for River Valley Projects Large hydro projects have inundated large forest areas.

01. Previous Year Questions: Resources & Development

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Explain any two problems of the ‘global ecology’ arising due to indiscriminate use of resources.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two problems of global ecology arising due to indiscriminate use of resources are:

  • Global warming – Excessive exploitation of resources has increased greenhouse gases, leading to rise in global temperatures.
  • Ozone layer depletion – Indiscriminate use of resources has resulted in emissions that damage the ozone layer, affecting ecological balance.


Q2: “The development goals of different categories of people may differ.” Evaluate the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The development goals of different categories of people may differ because:

  • Different needs: A rich farmer may want better irrigation, electricity and fair prices for crops, while a landless labourer may need more days of work and higher wages.
  • Different occupations: An industrialist may aim for more profits and cheap raw materials, but factory workers may want better working conditions and higher income.
  • Economic status: Rich people may focus on expanding their wealth, while poor people may aim to fulfil basic needs like food, clothing, shelter and education.
  • Living conditions: Urban people may demand better transport, education and health facilities, while rural people may focus on land, water and agricultural development.
  • Social position: Different social groups also set different goals depending on their culture, traditions and opportunities available to them.

Thus, development has different meanings for different people according to their situation.


Q3: Why is planning necessary for judicious use of resources? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Planning is necessary for judicious use of resources because resources are unevenly distributed in our country, some regions have plenty while others face shortages. Proper planning helps in balanced development, avoids over-exploitation, and ensures resources are used carefully to meet present as well as future needs.

Or

“Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources.” Explain the statement.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Planning is the widely accepted strategy for judicious use of resources because it helps in proper utilisation of resources according to the needs of different regions. Some areas are rich in certain resources while others face shortages, so planning ensures balanced development, prevents wastage and over-exploitation, and supports sustainable growth.


Q4. Describe any two measures to solve the problem of land degradation.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two measures to solve the problem of land degradation are:

  • Afforestation and proper management of grazing can help to restore the land and check further damage.
  • Control of mining activities and proper disposal of industrial effluents after treatment can reduce land and water pollution.


Q5: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (a) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option:
Assertion (a): India has enormous possibilities of production of solar energy.
Reason (R): Most of the land area of India falls under the cold zone.  (1 Mark)
(a) 
Both (a) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (a).
(b) Both (a) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (a).
(c) (a) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (a) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (c) (a) is true, but (R) is false.

  • India has great potential for solar energy because it receives abundant sunlight, but most of its land area does not fall under the cold zone.


Q6: Describe any two features of ‘arid soils’.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two features of arid soilsare:

  1. They are sandy in texture, red to brown in colour, and generally saline in nature.
  2. They lack humus and moisture due to dry climate and high temperature, but with proper irrigation they can be made cultivable.


Q7: Describe any two features of ‘forest soils’. (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two features of forest soils are:

  1. They are found in hilly and mountainous areas and their texture varies – loamy and silty in valleys, coarse grained on upper slopes.
  2. In snow-covered areas of Himalayas, these soils are acidic with low humus, but in river terraces and alluvial fans they are fertile.


Q8: A researcher is examining a soil type which is formed by the weathering of volcanic rock and is rich in minerals. Which one of the following soils is it?  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Laterite soil
(b) Alluvial soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Desert soil

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Ans: (c) Black soil

Black soil (also called regur soil) is formed from volcanic rock (basalt), is rich in minerals, and is ideal for cotton cultivation.


Q9: “An equitable distribution of resources has become essential for a sustained quality of human life.” Explain the statement.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: An equitable distribution of resources is essential because if resources are used only by a few individuals or countries, it leads to division of society into rich and poor and causes over-exploitation. Fair sharing of resources ensures a sustained quality of life for all and maintains global peace and environmental balance.


Q10: Describe two main characteristics of ‘Alluvial Soil’.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two main characteristics of alluvial soil are:

  1. It is very fertile, containing adequate amounts of potash, phosphoric acid and lime, suitable for crops like sugarcane, paddy and wheat.
  2. It consists of sand, silt and clay in different proportions, and is found mainly in the northern plains and river deltas.


Q11: Explain the main features of alluvial soil.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The main features of alluvial soilare:

  1. Widespread distribution: Alluvial soil is the most important and widely spread soil in India. It is mainly found in the northern plains, Rajasthan and Gujarat, and in the deltas of rivers like the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
  2. Composition: It is made up of sand, silt and clay in varying proportions. Coarse particles are found near river valleys, while fine particles are found in the plains.
  3. Classification by age: It is divided into Bangar (old alluvial) and Khadar (new alluvial). Bangar has more kankar nodules and is less fertile, while Khadar is finer and more fertile.
  4. Fertility: It is very fertile and rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime, which makes it suitable for crops like sugarcane, paddy, wheat and pulses.
  5. Cultivation and population: Due to its high fertility, areas with alluvial soils are densely populated and intensively cultivated.

Thus, alluvial soil is the backbone of Indian agriculture.


Q12: Describe any two characteristics of laterite soil.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Two characteristics of laterite soilare:

  1. It develops in areas of tropical and subtropical climate with heavy rainfall and alternate wet and dry seasons, leading to intense leaching.
  2. It is generally acidic, nutrient-poor and prone to erosion, but with proper conservation it is suitable for crops like tea, coffee and cashew nut.


Q13: Explain the various stages of resource planning and its need in India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: 

Need of Resource Planning in India:
Resources in India are not evenly distributed. Some states like Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh are rich in minerals, while Rajasthan has solar and wind energy but lacks water. Arunachal Pradesh has water resources but poor infrastructure. Hence, resource planning is needed to ensure balanced development and sustainable use of resources.

Stages of Resource Planning:

  • Identification and inventory of resources – This includes surveying, mapping, and qualitative and quantitative estimation of resources in different regions.
  • Evolving a planning structure – Developing a framework with appropriate technology, skill and institutions to implement resource development plans.
  • Matching with national plans – The resource development plans must be linked with the overall national development goals for effective use.

Thus, resource planning in India is essential to avoid resource misuse, achieve balanced growth, and secure resources for future generations.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Choose the correctly matched pair.    (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
Ferrous – Natural Gas 
(b) Non-Ferrous – Nickel 
(c) Non-Metallic Minerals – Limestone 
(d) Energy Minerals – Cobalt 

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Ans: (b) Non-Ferrous – Nickel
(a) Ferrous – Natural Gas: This is incorrect. Ferrous refers to metals that contain iron, such as iron and steel. Natural gas is a fossil fuel, not a metal, so this pair is not correctly matched.
(b) Non-Ferrous – Nickel: This is correct. Non-ferrous metals are those that do not contain iron. Nickel is a non-ferrous metal, often used in making alloys like stainless steel, so this is the correctly matched pair.
(c) Non-Metallic Minerals – Limestone: This is incorrect. Non-metallic minerals are minerals that do not have metallic properties. Limestone is indeed a non-metallic mineral, but it’s typically classified under building materials rather than a generic category like non-metallic minerals. However, it’s not the best answer in this list.
(d) Energy Minerals – Cobalt: This is incorrect. Energy minerals are minerals used for energy production, like coal, oil, and natural gas. Cobalt is a metal used in alloys and electronics, not primarily as an energy mineral.
So, the correct pair is (b) Non-Ferrous – Nickel.

Q2: Suggest any two ways to solve the problem of land degradation.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: There are two ways to address the issue of land degradation:
(1) Planting more trees and managing grazing activity can both help to some extent.
(2) In arid regions, planting plant shelter belts and stabilising sand dunes with thorny bushes are two of the most effective techniques.
(3) In industrial and suburban areas, wasteland management,  control of mining activity, and control of industrial effluent disposal and discharge will all help to lessen land degradation.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Match the column – 1 with column – 2 and choose the correct option:    (2023)
(a) 
I,1 – II,3 – III,2
(b) 
I,3 – II,2 – III,1
(c) 
I,2 – II,3 – III,1
(d)
 I,1 – II,2 – III,3

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Ans: (c)

(I) Biological matches with 2. Wildlife because wildlife includes living organisms, which are biological resources.

(II) Renewable matches with 3. Solar Energy since solar energy can be replenished naturally and is sustainable.

(III) Non-renewable matches with 1. Coal because coal is a fossil fuel that cannot be replaced once used.


Q4: Which of the following is correctly matched?    (2023)
(a) Alluvial Soil – Gangetic plain
(b) Black Soil – Himalayan Region
(c) Arid Soil  – Western Ghats
(d) Laterite Soil – Desert Area

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Ans: (a)
Alluvial soil is formed by the deposition of fine particles such as silt, clay, and sand carried by rivers and streams. The Gangetic plain, which includes regions around the Ganges and its tributaries, is known for having extensive deposits of alluvial soil. This type of soil is fertile and supports agriculture, making it suitable for the cultivation of various crops.
On the other hand, the other options do not represent accurate soil-geography matches:
(b) Black Soil is commonly found in the Deccan Plateau, not the Himalayan Region.
(c) Arid Soil is typically found in arid and semi-arid regions, not in the Western Ghats.
(d) Laterite Soil is often found in tropical regions with high rainfall and temperature, such as parts of the Western Ghats, but it is not associated with desert areas.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Alluvial Soil – Gangetic plain.


Q5: Which of the following is correctly matched?     (CBSE 2023)
(a) Alluvial Soil – Consists of sand and silt
(b) Black Soil – Salt content is high
(c) Arid Soil – Diffusion of iron in crystalline
(d) Laterite Soil – Made up of Lava flows

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Ans: (a)
(a) Alluvial Soil consists of sand, silt, and clay, as it is formed by the deposition of sediments carried by rivers and streams. This type of soil is typically fertile and well-drained, making it suitable for agriculture.
(b) Black Soil is characterised by its high clay content, not high salt content. It is known for its moisture retention and nutrient richness, including calcium carbonate and potash.
(c) Arid Soil is associated with arid and semi-arid regions and is characterized by low organic content and high salinity, but the diffusion of iron in crystalline is not a defining characteristic of arid soil.
(d) Laterite Soil is formed through the weathering of rocks and typically contains high amounts of iron and aluminum oxides. It is not directly made up of lava flows.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) Alluvial Soil – Consist of sand and silt.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q6: Which among the following is NOT a problem of resource development?     (2022)  [Old NCERT]
(a) Depletion of resources to satisfy the greed of a few individuals
(b) Accumulation of resources in a few hands
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources
(d) An equitable distribution of resources      
      

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Ans: (d)

Equitable distribution of resources is essential for effective resource development.

  • It ensures that all communities benefit from available resources.
  • Without equity, some regions may remain underdeveloped despite having resources.
  • Fair distribution helps in reducing economic disparities.


Q7: In which one of the following states overgrazing is the main reason for land degradation?      (2022)
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Punjab
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttar Pradesh

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Ans: (a)
 Overgrazing is the main cause of land degradation in states like, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan and Gujarat


Q8: Deforestation due to mining has caused severe land degradation in which one of the following states?      (2022)
(a) Odisha
(b) Tamil Nadu 
(c) Kerala
(d) Gujarat

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Ans: (a)
 Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of overburdening. This is a major cause of land degradation in Odisha.


Q9: Which one of the following human activities has contributed most in land degradation?      (2022)
(a) Deforestation
(b) Overgrazing
(c) Mining
(d) Over-irrigation

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Ans: (a)
 Deforestation has contributed most in land degradation. It makes the soil infertile for any use therefore it causes droughts and land pollutions.


Q10: Two statements are given below as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the most appropriate option.     (2022)
Assertion (A): Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. 
Reason (R): This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. 
(a) Both A and R are correct, and R is the correct explanation of the A.
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the correct explanation of the A.
(c) A is correct, but R is incorrect.
(d) A is incorrect, but R is correct.
 

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Ans: (a)
Indian farmers should diversify their cropping pattern from cereals to high-value crops. This will increase income and reduce environmental degradation simultaneously. Because fruits, medicinal herbs, flowers, vegetables, bio-diesel crops like jatropha and jojoba need much less irrigation than rice or sugarcane. India’s diverse climate can be harnessed to grow ranges of high-value crops.


Q11: Identify the soil which ranges from red to brown in colour and saline in nature.     (2022)
(a) Red soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Arid soil
(d) Alluvial soil

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Ans: (c)
Arid soil is red to brown in colour and saline in nature. It is sandy in texture and lacks humus and moisture.


Q12: Which one of the following forces leads to maximum soil erosion in plains?     (2022)
(a) Wind
(b) Glacier
(c) Running water
(d) Earthquake

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Ans: (c)
Running water leads to the maximum soil erosion in plains. It is of different types like gully erosion and sheet erosion.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q13: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:    (2021 C)
Mining sites are abandoned after excavation work is complete leaving deep scars and traces of overburdening. In states like Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Madhya Pradesh and Odisha, deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation. In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, overgrazing is one of the main reasons for land degradation. In the states of Punjab, Haryana, Western Uttar Pradesh, over-irrigation is responsible for land degradation due to water logging leading to increase in salinity and alkalinity in the soil. The mineral processing like grinding of limestone for cement industry and calcite and soapstone for ceramic industry generates huge quantity of dust in the atmosphere. It retards the process of infiltration of water into the soil after it settles down on the land. In recent years, industrial effluents as waste have become a major source of land and water pollution in many parts of the country.
Answer the following MCQs by choosing the most appropriate option:
(i) In which one of the following states is over grazing the main reason for ‘land degradation’?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Punjab
(d) Madhya Pradesh

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Ans: Both (a) & (d)

Overgrazing is a significant cause of land degradation in several states. The states primarily affected include:

  • Maharashtra
  • Madhya Pradesh
  • Rajasthan
  • Gujarat

These areas experience severe land degradation due to excessive grazing by livestock.

(ii) Which one of the following is a major source of water pollution?
(a) Rainfall
(b) Landslide
(c) Over-irrigation
(d) Industrial waste

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Ans: (d)  Industrial waste
Industrial waste is a significant contributor to water pollution. It introduces harmful substances into water bodies through improper disposal.

(iii) Why is ‘over-irrigation’ responsible for land degradation?
(a) Increases the salinity of soil
(b) Decreases the water absorption capacity of soil
(c) Increases landslides
(d) Decreases the fertility of soil

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Ans: (d) Decreases the fertility of soil
Over-irrigation leads to land degradation by (d) decreasing the fertility of soil through leaching away essential nutrients.

(iv) Which one of the following is the main reason of ‘land degradation’ in Jharkhand?
(a) Overgrazing
(b) Over-irrigation
(c) Industrial waste
(d) Mining

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Ans: (d) Mining
The main reason for ‘land degradation’ in Jharkhand is (d) Mining.


Q14: Which among the following is not a problem of resource development ? 
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of few individuals 
(b) Accumulation of resources in few hands 
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources 
(d) An equitable distribution of resources (CBSE Term-1 2021)  [Old NCERT]

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Ans: (d)
The problems of resource development include:
(a) Depletion of resources for satisfying the greed of a few individuals: This leads to unsustainable resource use.
(b) Accumulation of resources in a few hands: This creates inequality and limits access for the broader population.
(c) Indiscriminate exploitation of resources: This results in environmental degradation and resource depletion.
However, (d) An equitable distribution of resources is not a problem; rather, it is a solution or goal for fair and sustainable resource development. Equitable distribution ensures that resources are accessible to all and are used responsibly.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) An equitable distribution of resources.

Also read: Worksheet: Resources and Development

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q15: Fill in the blanks of the following table with suitable information:   (2020)
Resource on the basis of exhaustibility

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Ans: (A) – Renewable (B) – Non-renewable


Q16: Fill in the blanks.    (Delhi 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) – Fishery, Water (B) – Water, Fossil fuels


Q17: Fill in the blanks of the following table with suitable information.     (2020)
Type of resources: On the basis of ownership

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) – Community owned resources (B) – Individual resource


Q18: Describe the importance of judicious use of resources.   (2020)

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Ans: The importance of judicious use of resources includes:

  • Sustainability: It helps maintain the availability of resources for future generations.
  • Limited Availability: Resources are finite and must be used wisely.
  • Development: Resources are essential for any developmental activities.


Q19: Describe the different steps of ‘resource planning”.    (2020,2017,2014)

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Ans: The different steps of resource planning are:
(i) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country.
(ii) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set-up.
(iii) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.


Q20: “Resource Planning is essential for the sustainable existence of all forms of life.” Support the statement with examples.  (2020 C)

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Ans: Resource planning is crucial for the sustainable existence of all forms of life. It plays a key role in managing resources effectively. 
Here are some important points:

  • Identification of Resources: Resource planning helps to identify various resources available in different regions.
  • Reducing Waste: It aids in minimising the wastage of resources, ensuring they are used efficiently.
  • Equal Distribution: It promotes fair distribution of resources, especially in areas facing shortages.


Q21: How much percentage of forest area is desired in a geographical area to maintain ecological balance as outlined in the National Forest Policy?   (2020 C)

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Ans: 33%

According to India’s National Forest Policy, it is desirable to have 33% of the geographical area under forest cover to maintain ecological balance. This target aims to ensure environmental stability, preserve biodiversity, and support sustainable development.


Q22: Explain with examples, the ways to solve the problem of land degradation in the Himalayan region.  (2020 C)

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Ans: Ways to solve the problem of land degradation in Himalayan region.
(i) Afforestation is the solution for any kind of land degradation.
(ii) Proper management of grazing. It is the one of the main reasons of land degradation in hilly areas.
(iii) Adopting terrace farming in hilly areas, as it increase water retention capacity of soil.


Q23: Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil:    (2020)
(a) Develops in high rainfall area
(b) Intense leaching process takes place.
(c) Humus content is low.

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Ans: Laterite soil

Develops in high rainfall areas: Laterite soil forms in regions with heavy rainfall and high temperatures, which accelerate the process of leaching.

Intense leaching process takes place: Due to heavy rainfall, soluble minerals are washed away, leaving the soil poor in essential nutrients.

Humus content is low: The leaching process also reduces the organic content in the soil, resulting in low humus.

These characteristics are typical of Laterite soil, which is commonly found in parts of India with tropical monsoon climates, such as Kerala, Karnataka, and parts of Maharashtra.


Q24: Give one example of the main commercial crop cultivable in laterite soil.    (2020)

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Ans: Tea, coffee, and cashew nut are the main commercial crops that thrive in laterite soil.

  • Tea is widely cultivated in regions with suitable rainfall.
  • Coffee grows well in the hilly areas of Karnataka and Kerala.
  • Cashew nut is primarily found in Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.


Q25: Why is the issue of sustainability important for development? Explain. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Sustainable economic development means development that is viable keeping the requirements of both the present and future generations in mind. 
(1) It is a development that doesn’t compromise with the environment, provides equal opportunities to grow, utilise resources for both the present and upcoming generations. 
(2) The issue of sustainability is important for development because without the same, man will use resources without care, destroying the environment, preventing all chances of survival and development in future. 
(3) If not for sustainability, people would start exploiting finitely available resources and end up finishing them soon, thus destroying Earth’s balance


Q26: Describe the importance of judicious use of resources.  (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: The importance of judicious use of resources are : 
(1) Multiple environmental and socioeconomic problems may arise if resources are used in an indiscriminate manner. 
(2) Most of the resources are non-renewable. The continuous usage of these resources may result in exhaustion of the resources. This may stunt development and growth of the people. 
(3) It will enhance the status of a person and would not impede development in general for future generations. They have to be used with caution.


Q27: Read the features of a soil and name the related soil: 
(1) This soil ranges from red to brown in colour. 
(2) It is generally sandy in texture and is saline. 
(3) It lacks humus and moisture.
  (CBSE 2020, 14)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Arid soil is characterised by the following features:

  • Ranges in colour from red to brown.
  • Generally has a sandy texture and is saline.
  • Lacks humus and moisture.

This type of soil is typically found in dry regions and can be made cultivable with proper irrigation.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q28: How is over irrigation responsible for land degradation in Punjab?    (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Over irrigation in Punjab leads to significant land degradation through the following processes:

  • Water logging: Excessive irrigation saturates the soil, preventing proper drainage.
  • Increased salinity: Water logging raises the salt concentration in the soil, harming plant growth.
  • Alkalinity issues: The accumulation of alkaline substances further reduces soil fertility.

These factors collectively lower the soil’s fertility, making it less suitable for agriculture.


Q29: How is cement industry responsible for land, degradation?    (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Grinding and crushing of limestone for the cement industry generate a large amount of dust. As the dust settles down on the soil it reduces the process of infiltration of water into the soil.


Q30: Highlight the importance of contour ploughing.    (AI 2019)

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Ans: Contour ploughing is a vital agricultural practice that involves tilling sloped land along lines of consistent elevation. 
Its importance includes:

  • Water conservation: Helps to retain rainwater, reducing runoff.
  • Soil erosion reduction: Minimises soil loss from surface erosion.
  • Improved crop yield: Enhances soil moisture retention, benefiting crops.

By following the natural contours of the land, contour ploughing effectively slows down water flow, preventing erosion and promoting sustainable farming.


Q31: Which type of soil is most suitable for growing the crop of cashew nut?    (2019)

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Ans: Laterite soil is the most suitable type for growing cashew nuts. 
Key characteristics include:

  • Develops in tropical and subtropical climates.
  • Forms due to intense leaching from heavy rainfall.
  • Typically deep and acidic (pH < 6.0).
  • Commonly found in southern states, especially in the Western Ghats.
  • Rich in humus where vegetation is dense; otherwise, it can be nutrient-poor.

In regions like Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh, and Kerala, red laterite soils are particularly favourable for cashew cultivation.


Q32: Which soil type is the most widely spread and important soil in India?    (2019,2015)

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Ans: Alluvial soil is the most widely spread and significant type of soil in India.

  • It covers the entire northern plains, formed by deposits from three major Himalayan river systems: the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra.
  • Alluvial soil also extends into Rajasthan and Gujarat through a narrow corridor.
  • In the eastern coastal plains, it is found particularly in the deltas of the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri rivers.

This soil is known for its high fertility, making it ideal for growing crops like:

  • Sugarcane
  • Paddy
  • Wheat
  • Other cereals and pulses

Regions with alluvial soil are often intensively cultivated and densely populated due to their agricultural productivity.


Q33: Describe any three main features of ‘Alluvial soil’ found in India.    (2019)

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Ans: Alluvial soil is a significant type of soil found in India, characterised by the following features:

  • Widespread Presence: Alluvial soil is the most important and widely distributed soil type across India.
  • Fertility: It contains essential nutrients like potash, phosphoric acid, and lime, making it ideal for crops such as sugarcane, paddy, and wheat.
  • High Productivity: Regions with alluvial soil are highly fertile, leading to intensive cultivation and dense populations. In drier areas, the soil can be treated and irrigated to enhance productivity.


Q34: Describe any three main features of the black soil.    (CBSE 2019, 32/2/3)

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Ans: Black soil has several important features:

  • Composition: It consists of very fine, clayey material.
  • Moisture retention: This soil is known for its ability to hold moisture effectively.
  • Nutrient-rich: It contains essential nutrients like calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and lime.
  • Aeration: During hot weather, it develops deep cracks, which aids in soil aeration.


Q35: Which one of the following is an example of Cultivable Wasteland? 
(a) Gross cropped Area 
(b) Uncultivable Land 
(c) Barren Wasteland 
(d) Current fallow Land   (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (b)

Cultivable wasteland refers to land that has the potential for cultivation but has not been farmed for at least five years. 
Key points include:

  • This land may be fallow or overgrown with shrubs, making it currently unused for agriculture.
  • With appropriate efforts, it can be converted into productive agricultural land.
  • Therefore, uncultivated land can be considered an example of cultivable wasteland if it has the potential for farming.


Q36: Highlight the importance of Contour ploughing.  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Contour ploughing is essential for maintaining soil health and preventing erosion. 
Here are its key benefits:

  • Reduces soil erosion caused by wind and water.
  • Helps retain moisture in the soil, promoting better crop growth.
  • Improves soil structure, making it more fertile.
  • Minimises runoff, allowing water to soak into the ground.

By following the natural contours of the land, contour ploughing effectively slows down water flow and protects the soil.


Q37: How are mining activities responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand?  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Mining activities are responsible for land degradation in Jharkhand due to several factors:

  • Mining sites are often abandoned after excavation, leaving behind deep scars on the landscape.
  • This abandonment leads to significant land disruption and loss of vegetation.
  • Deforestation caused by mining further exacerbates the problem, contributing to severe land degradation.


Q38: Why should we use natural resources properly and judiciously? Explain your views.  (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: The importance of judicious use of resources are: 
(1) Multiple environmental and socioeconomic problems may arise if resources are used in an indiscriminate manner. 
(2) Most of the resources are non-renewable. The continuous usage of these resources may result in exhaustion of the resources. This may stunt development and growth of the people. 
(3) It will enhance the status of a person and would not impede development in general for future generations. They have to be used with caution.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q39: Classify resources based on origin. [2018,2015,2014]

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Ans: Resources can be categorised on the basis of origin:

  • Abiotic resources: These are non-living elements, including landwaterair, and minerals.
  • Biotic resources: These come from the biosphere and include living things such as humansplants, and animals.


Q40: ‘Sustainable Development is a crucial step for the development of a country’. Explain with suitable examples. (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: Sustainable development is crucial for development of a country as it: 
(1) Promotes use of renewable resources like solar energy, tidal energy, etc. 
(2) Puts a check on over usage of resources. 
(3) Promotes protection and conservation of resources for future generation

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q41: Explain the three stages of Resource Planning in India.    (CBSE 2017-16)

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Ans: Three stages of Resource Planning in India are as given below:
(a) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of resources.
(b) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(c) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.


Q42: What are the three stages of resource planning in India? Why is it essential to have resource planning?    (2017,2014)

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Ans: 

The three stages of resource planning in India are:

  • Identification and inventory of resources: This includes surveying, mapping, and estimating the resources available across the country.
  • Planning structure: Developing a framework that incorporates appropriate technology, skills, and institutions to implement resource development plans.
  • Matching plans: Aligning resource development strategies with national development goals.

Resource planning is essential because:

  • Resources are limited, so planning ensures their proper use and conservation for future generations.
  • Resources are unevenly distributed across the country, necessitating careful planning.
  • It helps in the production of resources and protects them from over-exploitation.


Q43: Name the soil type which is widely found in western Rajasthan. Explain two important characteristics of the soil type which makes it unsuitable for cultivation.   (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Arid Soil is commonly found in Western Rajasthan. 
Its two main characteristics that make it unsuitable for cultivation are:

  • Sandy texture: The soil is primarily sandy, which leads to poor water retention.
  • High salt content: It has a high level of salinity, making it difficult for most plants to grow.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q44: Give one difference between renewable and nonrenewable resources.    (2016)

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Ans: Renewable: Replenished by nature e.g., crops and plants.
Non-renewable: Resources which get exhausted after years of use, e.g., crude oil.


Q45: What is Agenda 21? List its two principles.    (2016)

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Ans: Agenda 21 was adopted at first International Earth Summit held in 1992 at Rio de Janeiro, Brazil. 
The two principles are as follows:
(i) Combat environmental damage, poverty, and disease through global cooperation, focusing on common interests and shared responsibilities.
(ii) Each local government should create its own local Agenda 21.


Q46: Classify the resources on the basis of exhaustibility. State two characteristics of each.    (2016)

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Ans: (i) Renewable Resources: Resources that can be replenished after a short period of time are called renewable resources.
For example: agricultural crops, wind energy, water, forest, wildlife, etc.
(ii) Non-renewable Resources: Resources which take million years of time to replenish are called non-renewable resources.
For example: fossil fuels. We must remember that some resources like metals are recyclable.


Q47: “In India, some regions are rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other resources”. Do you agree with the statement? Support your answer with any three examples.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Yes, there are regions which are rich in certain types of resources but are deficient in some other resources.
(i) Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh are rich in minerals and coal deposits.
(ii) Arunachal Pradesh has abundance of water resources but lacks in infrastructural development.
(iii) Rajasthan is endowed with solar and wind energy but lacks in water resources.
(iv) Ladakh has rich cultural heritage but lacks in water resources and infrastructure.


Q48: Explain the two types of soil erosion mostly observed in India. Explain three human activities responsible for soil erosion.   (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Types of soil erosion:

  • Gully erosion: This occurs when running water cuts through clayey soil, forming deep channels known as gullies. The affected land becomes unfit for cultivation and is referred to as badland or ravines.
  • Sheet erosion: In this type, water flows as a sheet over large areas, washing away the topsoil.

Human activities causing soil erosion:

  • Deforestation: The removal of trees leads to a loss of soil stability.
  • Over-grazing: Excessive grazing by livestock can strip the land of vegetation.
  • Mining: Excavation activities disturb the soil and leave it vulnerable to erosion.
Important Questions (1 Mark): Resources & Development

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q49: Which is the most widespread relief feature of India?    (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Plains are the most widespread relief feature of India.


Q50: Suggest any six measures to solve the problem of land degradation.    (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The problem of land degradation can be addressed through several effective measures:

  • Afforestation: Planting trees to restore forest cover.
  • Thorny bushes: Growing these in arid areas to combat desertification.
  • Grazing management: Implementing proper practices on permanent pastures.
  • Industrial waste disposal: Ensuring safe disposal of industrial waste.
  • Shelter belts: Planting rows of trees to protect against wind erosion.
  • Mining control: Regulating mining activities to prevent land damage.

Land Degradation


Q51: Discuss the factors responsible for land degradation in India.  (2015,2014)

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Ans: The important factors responsible for land degradation in India are as follows:
(i) Deforestation: By an estimate over one million hectares of forest is lost every year in India.
(ii) Erosion: Loss of vegetation cover makes land more susceptible to erosion. Wind and water have left vast tracts of land barren. Water erodes top soil to an extent of around 12,000 million tons per annum
(iii) Over-irrigation : Successive cropping and overirrigation, leads to water-logging and consequent salinisation and alkalisation. This situation mainly arises due to poor drainage.
(iv) Floods and Droughts : Drought is both man-made and environment-induced. Man has played a key role in the creation of drought-prone areas by over-exploitation of natural resources like forests, degradation by grazing, excessive withdrawal of ground water, silting of tanks, rivers, etc. Floods, on the other hand, are caused by heavy rains in a very short period. Each situation could have been altered had there been good vegetation cover. Vegetation helps in reducing run-off, increasing infiltration and reducing soil erosion.
(v) Over-grazing : India has the worlds largest cattle population, but not enough pasture land. This has led to serious problems as animals have encroached into forest lands and even agricultural lands. Land degradation due to over-grazing leads to desert like conditions.
(vi) Pollution : Pollution of land is caused by disposal of solid waste, leftover from domestic, industrial and agricultural sectors. Another major source of land pollution is the creation of derelict land due to mining particularly due to surface and underground mining activities.


Q52: Consequences of environmental degradation do not respect national or state boundaries. Support the statements with examples.    (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Environmental degradation has far-reaching consequences that cross national and state boundaries. 
Here are some examples:

  • Air Pollution: Emissions from factories in one country can affect air quality in neighbouring countries, leading to health issues.
  • Water Contamination: Rivers that flow across borders can carry pollutants from one nation to another, impacting the health of communities downstream.
  • Climate Change: Greenhouse gas emissions from one country contribute to global warming, affecting weather patterns and ecosystems worldwide.
  • Deforestation: Logging activities in one region can lead to loss of biodiversity and disrupt ecosystems in adjacent areas, impacting wildlife and local communities.

These examples illustrate how environmental issues are interconnected and require cooperative international efforts for effective management.


Q53: Describe any five distinct characteristics of ‘Arid soils.    (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: 

  • Colour: Arid soils vary from red to brown.
  • Texture: They are typically sandy and saline.
  • Evaporation: High temperatures lead to faster evaporation, resulting in low humus and moisture.
  • Kankar: The soil often contains Kankar, a layer that forms due to calcium accumulation.
  • Water Infiltration: The Kankar layer restricts the infiltration of water.


Q54: Why is soil considered as a resource? Explain with five arguments.    (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Soil is considered a resource for several reasons:

  • Essential for survival: Soil is vital for fulfilling our basic needs.
  • Renewable resource: It is the most important renewable natural resource.
  • Supports plant growth: Soil serves as the medium for plants, containing both organic (humus) and inorganic materials.
  • Habitat for organisms: It supports various living organisms on Earth.
  • Foundation of life: Soil is fundamental to our existence.

Previous Year Questions 2013

Q55: How is the cement industry responsible for land degradation?  (CBSE 2013)

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Ans: The cement industry is responsible for land degradation in various ways:

  • It generates a significant amount of dirt and dust that accumulates on the ground.
  • This dust obstructs the infiltration of water into the soil.
  • Consequently, it hampers proper percolation of water, which negatively impacts soil health.

05. Previous Year Questions: Print Culture & the Modern World

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the following characteristics of ‘Jikji’ of Korea carefully and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)
I. It is one of the oldest existing printed books in the world. 
II. It contains the main beliefs of Christianity. 
III. Its second volume is available in the National Library of France. 
IV. It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001.
(a) Only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct. 
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. 
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

  • Jikji of Korea is among the world’s oldest existing books printed with movable metal type (I – correct).
  • It contains the essential features of Zen Buddhism, not Christianity (II – incorrect).
  • Its second volume is available in the National Library of France (III – correct).
  • It was inscribed on the UNESCO Memory of the World Register in 2001 (IV – correct).


Q2: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 marks)
Print Culture and the French Revolution

Many historians have argued that print culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Some arguments have been usually put forward in this context.
First: print popularised the ideas of the Enlightenment thinkers. Collectively, their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism. They argued for the rule of reason rather than custom, and demanded that everything be judged through the application of reason and rationality. They attacked the sacred authority of the Church and the despotic power of the state, thus eroding the legitimacy of a social order based on tradition. The writings of Voltaire and Rousseau were read widely; and those who read these books saw the world through new eyes, eyes that were questioning, critical and rational.
Second: print created a new culture of dialogue and debate. All values, norms and institutions were re-evaluated and discussed by a public that had become aware of the power of reason, and recognised the need to question existing ideas and beliefs. Within this public culture, new ideas of social revolution came into being.
(i) What impact did the ideas of Enlightenment thinkers have on society?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Their writings provided a critical commentary on tradition, superstition and despotism, encouraging people to use reason and rationality instead of custom, and to question the authority of the Church and the state.

(ii) How did print culture affect religion in France?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Print attacked the sacred authority of the Church, eroding its legitimacy and weakening the social order based on religious tradition.

(iii) How did print culture contribute to the social revolution in France?  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Print created a culture of dialogue and debate where people re-evaluated all norms, values and institutions. This public culture made people aware of the power of reason and questioning, which gave rise to new ideas of social revolution and helped prepare the ground for the French Revolution.


Q3: “Not everyone welcomed the printed book.” Explain the statement with examples from sixteenth century Europe.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Not everyone in sixteenth-century Europe welcomed the printed book. While many saw it as a means of spreading knowledge, others feared its consequences.

  1. Apprehension of authorities and elites: Religious leaders, monarchs, writers and artists worried that uncontrolled printing would spread rebellious and irreligious ideas, weakening the authority of valuable literature.
  2. Fear of spreading dissent: In 1517, Martin Luther’s Ninety Five Theses against the practices of the Roman Catholic Church spread rapidly due to print, leading to the Protestant Reformation. The Church feared further divisions and loss of control.
  3. The case of Menocchio: A miller in Italy, Menocchio, used printed books to reinterpret the Bible and form his own views of God and Creation. The Church saw this as dangerous and eventually executed him for heresy.
  4. Strict controls by the Roman Church: To repress heretical ideas, the Church maintained an Index of Prohibited Books from 1558, restricting what people could read.
  5. Scholars’ anxieties: Erasmus, a Catholic reformer, warned that the glut of printed books included many “ignorant, scandalous, irreligious and seditious” writings, which could harm true scholarship.

Thus, the arrival of print provoked deep anxieties, as people feared it could spread dissenting, heretical and subversive ideas, undermining existing authorities and traditions.


Q4: “By the seventeenth century, the flourishing of urban culture in China also led to diversity in the use of printing.” Explain the statement with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: By the seventeenth century, China’s urban culture flourished and this led to greater diversity in the use of printing:

  • Beyond scholars and officials: Earlier, print was mainly used by scholar-officials for civil service examinations. But with urban growth, its use spread widely.
  • Merchants and trade: Merchants began using printed material for collecting trade information in their everyday business.
  • Leisure reading: Reading turned into a popular leisure activity. People read fictional narratives, poetry, autobiographies, anthologies of literary works, and romantic plays.
  • Women as readers and writers: Rich women started reading, and many published their own poetry and plays. Wives of scholar-officials and even courtesans wrote about their lives.
  • Technological advancement: This cultural change was accompanied by new printing technology — in the late nineteenth century, Western mechanical presses were imported, and Shanghai became the hub of new print culture.

Thus, urbanisation in China gave rise to a vibrant print culture, where printing served trade, entertainment, personal expression, and women’s voices, beyond its earlier official role.


Q5: Explain the measures taken by the colonial government to censor the press in India and analyse their effects on the nationalist movement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The colonial government in India imposed strict censorship on the press, especially when it criticised British rule.

  1. Early phase: Before 1798, censorship was directed at Englishmen in India who attacked the Company’s misrule. By the 1820s, laws were passed to restrict press freedom, though Macaulay’s rules of 1835 briefly restored it.
  2. After 1857: The government grew harsher. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 gave officials power to warn newspapers, seize presses, and confiscate printing machinery if reports were judged “seditious.”
  3. 20th century controls: During World War I and II, under the Defence of India Acts, many newspapers were forced to shut down and reports on nationalist movements like Quit India (1942) were heavily censored.

Effects:
Despite restrictions, nationalist newspapers expanded, reported colonial misrule, and mobilised opinion. Repressive laws provoked stronger protests, such as Tilak’s imprisonment in 1908, and Gandhi in 1922 declared that the fight for Swaraj was also a fight for liberty of speech, press and association.
Thus, censorship could not silence nationalism; instead, it strengthened the struggle for freedom.


Q6: “How did easy access to books develop a new culture of reading during the 18th century?” Analyse.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: During the eighteenth century, easy access to books created a new culture of reading:

  • Cheaper books: With printing, the cost of books reduced. Multiple copies could be produced quickly, making them available to larger sections of society.
  • Shift from oral to reading culture: Earlier, knowledge was shared orally through recitations, ballads and performances. Now, books reached common people and a reading public emerged alongside the older hearing public.
  • Blurring oral and print traditions: Since literacy rates were still low, printers produced ballads, folk tales and illustrated books that could be read aloud in villages and taverns. Thus, oral culture entered print, and both traditions overlapped.
  • Wider audiences: Pedlars carried books to villages, and gatherings where books were read aloud helped even the illiterate enjoy printed material.
  • Resulting change: Reading became a collective as well as individual activity. It created curiosity, dialogue, and wider participation in cultural life.

Hence, the easy availability of books transformed people’s relationship with knowledge, giving rise to a vibrant new reading culture in eighteenth-century Europe.


Q7: Analyse the contribution of Johann Gutenberg in the development of the printing press.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Johann Gutenberg made a revolutionary contribution to the development of the printing press in the 1430s at Strasbourg, Germany.

  • Background and skills: He was the son of a merchant and grew up on an agricultural estate. He had seen wine and olive presses, learnt polishing stones, became a master goldsmith, and could make lead moulds.
  • Innovation: Drawing on these experiences, he designed the first printing press. The olive press inspired the press mechanism, and moulds were used to cast metal types for letters.
  • Moveable type machine: Gutenberg developed metal types for each of the 26 Roman alphabet characters. These could be rearranged to compose words, making printing flexible and efficient.
  • First printed book: By 1448, he perfected the system. His first major printed work was the Bible (about 180 copies), which took only three years to produce — fast by the standards of that time.
  • Impact: His press could print 250 sheets per hour. Between 1450 and 1550, printing presses spread across Europe, producing millions of books. This marked the beginning of the print revolution.

Thus, Gutenberg’s innovations in adapting existing technology and inventing moveable type laid the foundation of modern printing.


Q8: Analyse the development journey of print culture in India.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The development of print culture in India passed through several stages:

  • Manuscripts before print: India had a rich tradition of handwritten manuscripts in Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic and vernacular languages, written on palm leaves or handmade paper. These were expensive, fragile, and not easy to use.
  • Arrival of print: The first printing press came with Portuguese missionaries to Goa in the mid-sixteenth century. They printed in Konkani, Kanara, Tamil and Malayalam. By 1710, Dutch missionaries had also printed many Tamil texts.
  • English press: From 1780, James Augustus Hickey started the Bengal Gazette, the first English weekly. It published advertisements and gossip about Company officials but faced persecution by Governor-General Hastings.
  • Indian language press: Soon, Indian newspapers appeared. Gangadhar Bhattacharya brought out an Indian Bengal Gazette. By the early nineteenth century, newspapers in Persian, Gujarati and other languages were also published.
  • 19th century onwards: Print expanded rapidly, used in religious reform debates, nationalist struggles, and social reforms. Cheap lithographic presses printed religious texts, newspapers, novels, tracts, cartoons and calendars, reaching wider audiences.

Thus, print culture in India grew from fragile manuscripts to a vibrant, diverse print world that shaped public opinion, reform, and nationalism.


Q9: How did the British East India Company use Print Culture to promote its interests in India? Choose the correct option from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) By censoring the Indian newspapers, 
(b) By funding the regional language newspapers, 
(c) By encouraging the development of independent Press, 
(d) By using print media to spread eastern culture

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) By censoring the Indian newspapers
The East India Company encouraged only officially sanctioned newspapers that praised British rule and imposed press regulations to control criticism. Later, strict censorship laws like the Vernacular Press Act (1878) were used to suppress Indian newspapers that opposed colonial policies.


Q10: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:  (4 marks)
New Forms of Publication
By the end of the nineteenth century, a new visual culture was taking shape. With the setting up of an increasing number of printing presses, visual images could be easily reproduced in multiple copies. Painters like Raja Ravi Varma produced images for mass circulation. Poor wood engravers who made woodblocks set up shop near the letterpresses, and were employed by print shops. Cheap prints and calendars, easily available in the bazaar, could be bought even by the poor to decorate the walls of their homes or places of work. These prints began shaping popular ideas about modernity and tradition, religion and politics, and society and culture. By the 1870s, caricatures and cartoons were being published in journals and newspapers, commenting on social and political issues. Some caricatures ridiculed the educated Indians’ fascination with Western tastes and clothes, while others expressed the fear of social change. There were imperial caricatures lampooning nationalists, as well as nationalist cartoons criticising imperial rule.

(i) How did the development of printing technology impact visual culture?  (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Printing technology allowed easy reproduction of visual images in multiple copies, making art and illustrations widely accessible.

(ii) How did Raja Ravi Varma contribute to the mass circulation of art in India? (1 Mark)

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Ans: He produced mythological paintings which were printed at the Ravi Varma Press and circulated widely as cheap prints and calendars, reaching even the poor.

(iii) How did visual culture shape the memory of the 19th century social landscape? Explain.  (2 Mark)

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Ans: Cheap prints, calendars, caricatures, and cartoons influenced people’s ideas about modernity, tradition, religion, politics, and culture. They commented on social issues, ridiculed Westernised tastes, expressed fears of social change, and even criticised imperial rule. This visual culture reflected and shaped the 19th-century social and political landscape.


Q11: Identify the appropriate reason for the slow growth of the English Language Press during the 18th century from the following options:  (1 Mark)
(a) Restriction of British government on the regional press, 
(b) English Press worked on commercial perspectives, 
(c) Increase in the demand for the regional press in the market, 
(d) Reason and rationality were not prominent in press

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) English Press worked on commercial perspectives.
Although the East India Company imported presses in the late seventeenth century, the English language press did not grow rapidly in the eighteenth century because it focused mainly on commercial purposes and remained limited, while regional and missionary presses were more active.


Q12: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow: (4 Marks)
Pages of Gutenberg’s Bible, the first printed book in Europe.
Gutenberg printed about 180 copies, of which no more than 50 have survived.
Look at these pages of Gutenberg’s Bible carefully. They were not just products of new technology. The text was printed in the new Gutenberg press with metal type, but the borders were carefully designed, painted and illuminated by hand by artists. No two copies were the same. Every page of each copy was different. Even when two copies look similar, a careful comparison will reveal differences. Elites everywhere preferred this lack of uniformity: what they possessed then could be claimed as unique, for no one else owned a copy that was exactly the same.
In the text you will notice the use of colour within the letters in various places. This had two functions: it added colour to the page, and highlighted all the holy words to emphasise their significance. But the colour on every page of the text was added by hand. Gutenberg printed the text in black, leaving spaces where the colour could be filled in later.

(i) Mention the contribution of Gutenberg in the field of printing.  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Gutenberg developed the first moveable type printing press in the 1430s and printed the Bible, marking the beginning of the print revolution in Europe.

(ii) How were the books borders painted and illuminated?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Though the text was printed with metal type, the borders were designed, painted, and illuminated by hand by artists

(iii) Describe any two benefits of colouring in the letters.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: 

  • It added beauty and colour to the page, making the book visually attractive.
  • It highlighted holy words, emphasising their religious importance.

Thus, Gutenberg’s Bible combined new printing technology with traditional artistic decoration, making each copy unique.


Q13: Match the Column-I with Column-II and choose the correct option from the following:   (1 Mark)

(a) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv, 
(b) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i, 
(c) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii, 
(d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii

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Ans: (c) a-ii, b-iv, c-i, d-iii

  • Bengal Gazette (a) – James Hickey (ii): First English newspaper in India (1780), published by Hickey.
  • Kesari (b) – Bal Gangadhar Tilak (iv): Marathi newspaper advocating nationalism.
  • Ramcharitmanas (c) – Tulsidas (i): 16th-century epic poem, not a print publication but listed here.
  • Samvad Kaumudi (d) – Ram Mohan Roy (iii): Bengali newspaper promoting social reforms.


Q14: Analyze the significant changes in printing technology during 19th century in the world.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The nineteenth century witnessed major innovations in printing technology that transformed the speed and scale of production:

  • Metal presses: By the late eighteenth century, presses began to be made of metal, improving durability and efficiency compared to wooden ones.
  • Power-driven cylindrical press: Richard M. Hoe of New York perfected this press by the mid-nineteenth century. It could print about 8,000 sheets per hour, making it especially useful for newspapers.
  • Offset press: Developed in the late nineteenth century, it could print in multiple colours (up to six at a time), enhancing visual quality.
  • Electrically operated presses: From the early twentieth century, electrically driven machines further accelerated printing operations, replacing manual labour.
  • Other improvements: Automatic paper reels, better quality plates, and photoelectric controls of colour register increased accuracy and speed.

These changes made books, newspapers, and periodicals cheaper, faster to produce, and widely available, thereby deepening mass literacy and expanding reading audiences globally.


Q15: How did printing technology affect the lives of Indian women? Analyse.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Printing technology had a deep impact on the lives of Indian women in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries:

  • Access to education: Liberal families began educating women at home, and journals published reading material and syllabi for women’s schooling.
  • Autobiographies and writings: Women themselves started writing. For example, Rashsundari Debi wrote Amar Jiban (1876), the first full-length autobiography in Bengali, while writers like Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde, and Pandita Ramabai highlighted women’s hardships and social injustices.
  • Journals and magazines: Many journals carried writings by women and discussed issues such as education, widowhood, and remarriage. In the early twentieth century, women edited their own journals, making their voices more visible.
  • Conservative resistance: Some orthodox families opposed women’s literacy, fearing it would corrupt them or bring misfortune. Yet, many women defied restrictions and learnt secretly, showing the empowering effect of print.
  • Cultural influence: Through novels, tracts, and periodicals, women’s experiences, emotions, and social concerns entered public debate, shaping the discourse on reform and gender roles.

Thus, print culture opened new avenues for women’s education, expression, and participation in social reform, despite opposition from conservative sections of society.


Q16: Explain the features of manuscripts found in India before the advent of printing culture.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Before the advent of printing, India had a long tradition of producing manuscripts with distinctive features:

  • Languages: Manuscripts were written in Sanskrit, Persian, Arabic and various regional vernaculars.
  • Materials used: They were copied on palm leaves or handmade paper, often pressed between wooden covers or sewn together for preservation.
  • Illustrations and calligraphy: Many manuscripts were beautifully illustrated and decorated with fine calligraphy and artistic designs.
  • Expensive and fragile: Manuscripts were highly costly, delicate, and had to be handled with care. They were not easily accessible to ordinary people.
  • Limited use in education: Since scripts differed in styles and were hard to read, manuscripts were not widely used in everyday teaching. In Bengal, for example, teachers often dictated from memory while students wrote, meaning many became literate without reading printed texts.

Thus, manuscripts preserved India’s rich literary and cultural heritage, but their fragility, cost, and limited accessibility created barriers that print later helped to overcome.


Q17: How did the advent of print culture affect the poor people in India? Explain.  (5 marks)

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Ans: The advent of print culture had a significant effect on the poor people in India in the nineteenth and early twentieth centuries:

  • Access to cheap books: Very small, inexpensive books were sold at crossroads and in markets, especially in towns like Madras. This allowed even poor travellers and villagers to buy reading material.
  • Public libraries: From the early twentieth century, public libraries were set up in towns and prosperous villages. For poor people, these libraries provided free access to books and knowledge.
  • Social protest: Print gave voice to movements against caste discrimination. Writers like Jyotiba Phule (Gulamgiri, 1871)B.R. Ambedkar, and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (Periyar) used print to highlight injustices, and their writings were widely read by poor and marginalised groups.
  • Workers’ expression: Some factory workers began to write about their own struggles. For example, Kashibaba, a Kanpur millworker, wrote Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal (1938), linking caste and class exploitation. Others like Sudarshan Chakr composed poems later collected as Sacchi Kavitayan.
  • Self-improvement and literacy: Workers and reformers set up libraries (e.g., in Bombay and Bangalore) to spread literacy, discourage drinking, and promote nationalism among the poor.

Thus, print culture gave the poor access to knowledge, tools for social protest, and opportunities for self-expression, helping them participate in debates about justice and reform.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Who among the following published ‘Samvad Kaumudi’?    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
Rashsundari Debi
(b) Tarabai Shinde
(c) Raja Rammohan Roy
(d) Ram Chaddha

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
‘Samvad Kaumudi’ was published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy. Ram Mohan Roy started publishing the Bengali weekly newspaper Samvad Kaumudi in Kolkata around the beginning of the nineteenth century.


Q2: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow:    (4 & 5 marks )(CBSE 2024)
WHY NEWSPAPERS?

‘Krishnaji Trimbuck Ranade, inhabitant of Poona, intends to publish a News Paper in the Marathi Language with a view of affording useful information on every topic of local interest. It will be open for free discussion on subjects of general utility, scientific investigation and the speculations connected with the antiquities, statistics, curiosities, history and geography of the country and of the Deccan especially… the patronage and support of all interested in the diffusion of knowledge and Welfare of the People is earnestly solicited.’ Bombay Telegraph and Courier, 6 January, 1849
“The task of the native newspapers and political associations is identical to the role of the Opposition in the House of Commons in Parliament in England. That is of critically examining government policy to suggest improvements, by removing those parts that will not be to the benefit of the people, and also by ensuring speedy implementation.
These associations ought to carefully study the particular issues, gather diverse relevant information on the nation as well as on what are the possible and desirable improvements, and this will surely earn it considerable influence.
Native Opinion, 3 April, 1870


(i) Analyse the primary objective proposed by Ranade for publishing Marathi Language newspaper.

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Ans: In order to educate the people, Krishnaji intended to publish important information regarding developments in society in the fields of science, politics, and other subjects.

(ii) Why did the Bombay Telegraph emphasize the role of newspaper in promoting welfare of Deccan region?

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Ans: The deccan region is geographically separated from Bombay by western ghats so, Bombay telegraph could have acted as a bridge, informing the people of the deccan about relevant developments and bring attention to the specific problems faced by deccan people.

(iii) What were the key responsibilies attributed to native newspapers? Mention any two.

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Ans: The following were the key responsibilities attributed to newspapers during 19th-century:
(1) Newspapers were instrumental in shaping public opinion and creating a sense of shared identity which was important during the rise of the Indian national movement.
(2) Newspapers often serves as a watcher on the british colonial government, criticise policies, exxposed corruptions and highlight injustice faced by Indians.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: “The shift from hand printing to mechanical printing led to the print revolution in Europe.” Explain the statement with examples. (3 Marks) (2023)

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Ans: The shift from hand printing to mechanical printing brought about the print revolution in Europe. This revolution was characterized by the following:

  • With the invention of the printing press, books started to be printed on a large scale, reaching wider sections of people. This led to the emergence of a new reading public.
  • The printing press enabled the production of books in larger numbers and at a faster pace, making them more accessible and affordable.
  • Publishers began printing popular ballads and folk tales, accompanied by beautiful pictures and illustrations, further attracting readers.
  • The spread of new ideas and knowledge became easier with the print revolution. For example, Martin Luther’s translation of the New Testament sold thousands of copies within a short period, contributing to the spread of the Protestant Reformation.

Q4: Who was Menocchio?   (1 Mark) (2023)

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Ans: Menocchio was an Italian miller and self-educated philosopher who was put on trial by the Inquisition for his unorthodox beliefs and interpretations of religious texts.


Q5: Which one of the following aspects was common between the writings of B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker?  (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 
Wrote on the caste system in India
(b) Highlighted the experiences of woman
(c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage
(d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom   

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Both B.R. Ambedkar and E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker (also known as Periyar) focused on the issues related to the caste system in India. They criticized the discrimination faced by lower castes and worked towards social justice and equality for all.


Q6: Which one of the following aspects was common among the writings of Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai? (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 
Demanded economic equality for masses
(b) Highlighted the experiences of women
(c) Raised awareness about cultural heritage
(d) Motivated Indians for their national freedom

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde, and Pandita Ramabai all wrote about the struggles and experiences of women in society. They focused on issues like women’s rights, education, and social reform, advocating for better treatment and opportunities for women in India.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q7: Fill in the blank. Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand printing technology into ______ around A.D. 768-770.  (2020)

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Ans: Japan
Buddhist missionaries from China brought hand printing technology to Japan around A.D. 768-770. This technology allowed for the production of printed texts, which helped spread Buddhist teachings and literature throughout Japan.

Ancient printing techniques
Q8: ‘Vellum’ is 
(a) 
Printing on palm leaves
(b) Printing on paper
(c) A parchment made from the skin of animals
(d) Printing on cloth.

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Ans: (c)
‘Vellum’ is a high-quality writing material made from the prepared skin of animals, usually calves or goats. It was commonly used in the past for important documents, manuscripts, and books because of its durability and smooth surface for writing.


Q9: Who invented the Printing Press?  (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Johannes Gutenberg is credited with inventing the Printing Press.


Q10: Who brought the knowledge of the woodblock printing technique to Italy during the 13th century?  (2020)

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Ans: Marco Polo is believed to have brought the knowledge of woodblock printing technique to Italy during the 13th century.


Q11: By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system of printing. The first book he printed was the ______.  (2020)

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Ans: The first book printed by Gutenberg was the Bible.


Q12: Wooden or Metal frames in which types are laid and the text composed for printing was known as?  (2020)

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Ans: The frames in which types are laid and the text composed for printing are known as printing plates or printing blocks.


Q13: Name the first book printed by Gutenberg Press.   (2020)

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Ans: The first book printed by Gutenberg Press was the Gutenberg Bible or the 42-line Bible.


Q14: Who were called ‘Chapmen?  (2020)
(a) 
Bookseller
(b) Paper seller
(c) Workers of the printing press
(d) Seller of penny chapbooks

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
‘Chapmen’ were itinerant traders or peddlers who sold cheap books known as chapbooks, often for just a penny. These chapbooks included stories, poems, and other entertaining content, making literature accessible to a wider audience in earlier times.


Q15: Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of scientific ideas among the common people in eighteenth century Europe?  (2020)
(a)
 Printing of ideas of Isaac Newton
(b) Development of printing press
(c) Interest of people in science and reason
(d) Traditional aristocratic groups supported it 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
In the eighteenth century, traditional aristocratic groups often resisted scientific ideas because they threatened their authority and long-standing beliefs. Instead, the popularity of scientific ideas among common people was mainly driven by the printing press, the works of thinkers like Isaac Newton, and a growing interest in science and reason.


Q16: Why was reading of manuscript not easy in India ? Choose the appropriate reason from the following options:  (CBSE 2020, 15)
(a)
 Manuscripts were highly cheap
(b) Manuscripts were widely spread out
(c) Manuscripts were written in English and Hindi
(d) Manuscripts were fragile. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Manuscripts in India were often made from materials like palm leaves or handmade paper, which made them delicate and prone to damage. This fragility made it difficult to read and handle them frequently, limiting access for many people.


Q17: Select the correct pair from the following Column A and Column B.  (2020)

(a) a
(b) b
(c) c
(d) d

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Sol: Raja Ram Mohan Ray – Sambad Kaumudi

  • The Sambad Kaumudi was a significant publication.
  • It was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy in 1821.
  • This newspaper played a crucial role in the reform movements of the time.


Q18: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: 
From the early nineteenth century, there were intense debates around religious issues. Different groups confronted the changes happening within colonial society in different ways, and offered a variety of new interpretations of the beliefs of different religions. Some criticised existing practices and campaigned for reform, while others countered the arguments of reformers. These debates were carried out in public and in print. Printed tracts and newspapers not only spread the new ideas, but they shaped the nature of the debate. A wider public could bow participate in these public discussions and express their views. New ideas emerged through these clashes of opinions. This was a time of intense controversies between social and religious reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation, monotheism, Brahmanical priesthood and idolatry. In Bengal, as the debate developed, tracts and newspapers proliferated, circulating a variety; of arguments. To reach a wider audience, the ideas were printed in the everyday, spoken language of ordinary people.  (2020)
(i) Analyse any one issue of intense debate around religious issues. (1 mark)
(ii) Examine the role of print media in these debates. (2 marks)

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Ans: (i) Issue of intense debate around religious issues – widow immolation.
(ii) Role of print media:
(a) Print spread the new ideas as well as shaped these ideas.
(b) It increased public participation in public discussions.
(c) Public discussions and expression of views
(d) Argumentative ideas were circulated


Q19: Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:   (2020)
Source – (i): Religious Reform and Public Debates
 
There were intense controversies between social and religious reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy over matters like widow immolation, monotheism, brahmanical priesthood and idolatry. In Bengal, as the debate developed, tracts and newspapers proliferated, circulating a variety of argument.
Source – (ii): New Forms of Publication 
New literary forms also entered the world of reading lyrics, short stories, essays about social and political matters. In different ways, they reinforced the new emphasis on human lives and intimate feelings, about the political and social rules that shaped such things.
Source – (iii): Women and Print 
Since social reforms and novels had already created a great interest in women’s lives and emotions, there was also an interest in what women would have to say about their own lives.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Source – (i): Religious Reform and Public Debates
(i) Evaluate how did the print shape the nature of the debate in the early nineteenth century in India.
Ans: Print played a significant role in shaping the nature of debate in early 19th century India. Here are some points to consider:

  • The print culture facilitated intense controversies between social and religious reformers and the Hindu orthodoxy on various issues like widow immolation, monotheism, brahmanical priesthood, and idolatry.
  • Tracts and newspapers proliferated, circulating a variety of arguments and allowing for a wider dissemination of ideas.
  • The print medium provided a platform for individuals and groups to express their opinions and challenge established authorities.
  • The emergence of new literary forms, such as lyrics, short stories, and essays about social and political matters, reinforced the new emphasis on human lives, intimate feelings, and the rules that shaped them.
  • The print culture also reflected a great interest in women’s lives and emotions, giving them a voice to express their own experiences and perspectives.

Source – (ii): New Forms of Publication
(ii) To what extent do you agree that print opened up new worlds of experience and gave a vivid sense of diversity of human lives?
Ans: 
Print indeed opened up new worlds of experience and provided a vivid sense of diversity of human lives. Here’s why:

  • The print revolution enabled the wide circulation of ideas and knowledge, allowing people to gain exposure to different perspectives and experiences.
  • Through printed literature, individuals were exposed to various cultures, societies, and historical events, expanding their understanding of the world.
  • The emergence of new literary forms, such as lyrics, short stories, and essays, explored diverse themes and provided insights into different aspects of human lives.
  • Print publications portrayed the political and social rules that shaped human lives, shedding light on various social issues and inequalities.
  • By printing popular ballads, folk tales, and illustrations, publishers catered to a diverse readership, engaging them in different narratives and experiences.

 Source – (iii): Women and Print
(iii) To what extent did the print culture reflect a great interest in women’s lives and emotions? Explain.
Ans: 
The print culture did reflect a great interest in women’s lives and emotions. Here’s why:

  • Social reforms and novels had already created a significant interest in women’s lives and emotions, and the print culture further amplified this interest.
  • With the emergence of the print medium, women were given a platform to express their own experiences, thoughts, and emotions.
  • Women’s issues and perspectives were addressed and discussed in newspapers, tracts, and novels.
  • Female authors emerged during this period, writing about women’s lives and advocating for their rights and empowerment.
  • The print culture allowed women to voice their concerns, challenge societal norms, and contribute to public debates on various topics.
  • This reflected a growing recognition of women’s agency and their role in shaping society.


Q20: Why was ‘Gulamgiri’ book written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871?  (2020)

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Ans: The book ‘Gulamgiri’ was written by Jyotiba Phule in 1871 to criticize the caste system and advocate for the rights and upliftment of lower-caste and oppressed individuals in Indian society.


Q21: Name the book published by Raja Ram Mohan Roy.  (2020)

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Ans: Raja Ram Mohan Roy published the book ‘Tuhfat-ul-Muwahhidin’ (A Gift to Monotheists).


Q22:  Name the author of ‘Amar Jiban’.  (2020)

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Ans: The author of ‘Amar Jiban’ is Rassundari Devi.


Q23: Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed in 1878?  (2020)

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Ans: The Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878 by the British colonial government in India to control and regulate the vernacular press, which was seen as a threat to their rule and criticized British policies.


Q24: Examine the steps taken by the British under the Vernacular Press Act, 1878. (2020 C)

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Ans: 

  • The Vernacular Press Act provided the government with extensive rights to censor reports and editorials in the Vernacular press.
  • The government kept regular track of the Vernacular newspapers published in different provinces.
  • When a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned.
  • If the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the printing machinery could be confiscated.
Also read: Mnemonics: Print Culture and the Modern World

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q25: Which one of the following was the oldest Japanese book printed in 868 AD? 
(a) Bible 
(b) Diamond Sutra 
(c) Kokoro 
(d) Kojiki (CBSE 2019, 15)

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Ans: (b)
The Diamond Sutra is considered the oldest known printed book, dated to 868 AD. It is a Buddhist scripture and was printed in China using woodblock printing techniques. Although it is a Chinese text, the Diamond Sutra is significant in Japanese and East Asian Buddhism as well. The book is recognized for its historical importance as an early example of printed literature.
Thus, the correct answer is (b) Diamond Sutra.

Japanese BooksQ26: Which one of the following was NOT the reason for the popularity of scientific ideas among the common people in eighteenth-century Europe? 
(a) Printing ideas of Isaac Newton 
(b) Development of printing press 
(c) Interest of people in science and reason 
(d) Traditional aristocratic group supported it   (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
In eighteenth-century Europe, scientific ideas became popular among the common people due to several factors:
(a) Printing ideas of Isaac Newton: The spread of Newton’s ideas through printed materials made scientific knowledge more accessible.
(b) Development of printing press: The printing press played a crucial role in distributing scientific ideas widely and quickly.
(c) Interest of people in science and reason: The Enlightenment period sparked curiosity and an interest in science, logic, and rational thought among the general populace.
Thus, the correct answer is (d) Traditional aristocratic group supported it.


Q27:  Explain the meaning of the term ‘Calligraphy’.    (Al 2019,2014)

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Ans: Calligraphy is the art of decorative handwriting or lettering.


Q28: How had the Imperial State in China been the major producer of printed material for a long time? Explain with examples.     (Delhi) 2019)

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Ans: The Imperial State in China had been the major producer of printed material for a long time due to the following reasons:

  • China had a large bureaucracy, and the Chinese civil services examinations required the use of a large number of textbooks for preparation. These textbooks were printed under the sponsorship of the Imperial state.
  • The production of books and study materials increased as the number of examination candidates went up. This led to the rapid printing of books all over the nation.
  • Authors and rich merchants also sponsored the printing of books, further contributing to the production of printed material.


Q29: “Print Revolution in the sixteenth-century Europe transformed the lives of people.” Support the statement with suitable arguments.    (AI 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Print Revolution in sixteenth-century Europe had a significant impact on the lives of people. The following arguments support this statement:

  • Access to printed books became easier and more affordable, leading to the emergence of a new reading public. Previously, reading was restricted to the elites, while the common people relied on oral culture. The print revolution enabled a wider section of the society to access and engage with written texts, thereby transforming their relationship to information and knowledge.
  • The print revolution facilitated the spread and dissemination of ideas, leading to the questioning of traditional beliefs and practices. This led to social and intellectual transformations, such as the Protestant Reformation, which challenged the authority of the Catholic Church.
  • Printing helped in the preservation and transmission of knowledge. It ensured the accuracy and uniformity of texts, reducing errors and variations that were common in handwritten manuscripts.
  • The print revolution also contributed to the growth of literacy rates as more people learned to read and write. This, in turn, led to increased social mobility and the democratization of knowledge.


Q30: How had a large number of new readers among children, women and workers increased in nineteenth century Europe? Explain with examples. (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Primary education was made compulsory in the 19th century. 
(1) In 1857, a children’s press was set up in France. 
(2) One such publishing company was the Grimm Brothers who collected several folktales and poems and eventually edited them which proved unsuitable for the readers and thus published in 1812. 
(3) For women many penny magazines were being written. 
(4) For workers libraries were devoted where the tired workers from their daily chores can come and even write about their life. 
(5) They wrote political tract and autobiographies too.


Q31: ‘‘Printing brought the reading public and hearing public closer.’’ Substantiate the statement with appropriate argument. (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: New reading and hearing public intermingled because: 
(1)
 Large numbers of books were printed and available. These books were written with every class and group in mind and hence it attracted every section. 
(2) Books were available at ease and at cheap cost. 
(3) Text was recited and narrated which made the illiterate interested in knowing the subject and matter of the books.
(4) Knowledge was transferred orally or through performances. The books were filled with pictures for the hearing public to relate to. 
(5) The hearing public began formally educating themselves through schools to read these books.

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q32: Why did Roman Catholic church impose control over publishers and booksellers?     (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: The Roman Catholic church imposed control over publishers and booksellers to maintain control over the spread of information and to ensure that religious teachings were not challenged or misrepresented.


Q33: Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas and introduced a new world of debate and discussion.” Analyse the statement in the context of religion in Europe. (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas and introduced a new world of debate and discussion. (1) Even the dissenting authors could now publish and present their ideas. This would further lead to debates and discussions. (2) Through the printed message, they could persuade people to think differently, and move them to action. (3) Various ideas could be widely accessed by common people which made them consider other options as this widened their perspectives.


Q34:  Why could not manuscripts satisfy the increasing demand of books in Europe during the fourteenth century? (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Manuscripts could not satisfy the increasing demand for books in Europe during the fourteenth century because they were fragile, difficult to handle and could not be carried around or read easily.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q35: Mention any three reasons for the limited circulation of manuscripts in Europe before Marco Polo introduced the printing technology.    (2017)

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Ans: The limited circulation of manuscripts in Europe before the introduction of printing technology can be attributed to the following reasons:

  • The production of handwritten manuscripts could not satisfy the ever-increasing demand for books.
  • Copying manuscripts was an expensive, laborious, and time-consuming process.
  • Manuscripts were fragile, awkward to handle, and could not be easily carried around or read.


Q36: What are the factors that lead to the reading mania in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries in Europe?     (2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The reading mania in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries in Europe can be attributed to the following factors:

  • The demand for books increased significantly as literacy spread among peasants and artisans. In some parts of Europe, the literacy rate rose as high as 60 to 80 percent. This created a need for more books, leading to a reading frenzy.
  • The belief that books were a means of spreading progress and enlightenment became widespread. Many people believed that books could bring about positive social change and liberation from despotism and tyranny.
  • The power of print to disseminate ideas and knowledge was recognized and appreciated. People started to realize the potential of books in shaping public opinion and influencing society.
  • The availability of a wide range of books on various subjects and genres further fueled the reading mania. The publishing industry flourished, catering to the diverse interests of readers.
Also read: Mnemonics: Print Culture and the Modern World

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q37: What is a manuscript? Mention any two limitations of it during the nineteenth century.    (2016)

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Ans: A manuscript is a handwritten document, typically written on palm leaves or handmade paper. During the nineteenth century, manuscripts had the following limitations:

  • Manuscripts were highly expensive and fragile, making them inaccessible to the common people.
  • The script used in manuscripts was written in different styles, making it difficult to read and understand.


Q38: How had the earliest printing technology developed in the world? Explain with an example.   (2016)

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Ans: The earliest printing technology in the world developed in China, Japan, and Korea. In China, woodblocks were used for hand printing. This technology was initially used exclusively by scholar officials. However, it later became common and widespread. The Buddhist missionaries introduced hand printing technology from China to Japan, and Marco Polo brought the knowledge of woodblock printing from China to Italy.


Q39: How did a new reading public emerge with the printing press? Explain.     (2016)
OR
‘With the printing press, a new public emerged in Europe.’ Justify the statement.

Hide Answer  

Ans: The printing press played a crucial role in the emergence of a new reading public in Europe. The following points explain how this happened:

  • The printing press reduced the cost of producing books, making them more affordable and accessible to a wider section of society. As a result, a larger number of people could afford to purchase and own books, leading to an increase in the reading public.
  • The availability of printed books in larger numbers and at a faster pace allowed for a greater dissemination of knowledge and information. This led to the spread of literacy and the growth of reading habits among the common people.
  • The printing press enabled the production of books in various languages, catering to the linguistic diversity of Europe. This further expanded the reading public as people could now read in their native languages.
  • The printing press also facilitated the standardization of texts, ensuring accuracy and consistency in the content of books. This made reading and understanding easier for the new reading public.


Q40: Why did British Government curb the freedom of the Indian press after the revolt of 1857?   (2016)

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Ans: After the revolt of 1857, the attitude towards freedom of the press changed. Enraged English officials clamped down on the Indian press because of their nationalist activities. In 1887, the Vernacular Press Act was passed, providing the government with extensive rights to censor reports. The government kept regular track of the Vernacular newspapers, and when a report was judged as seditious, the newspaper was warned. If the warning was ignored, the press was liable to be seized and the machinery could be confiscated.


Q41: Print culture created the conditions within which the French Revolution occurred. Give any three suitable arguments to support the statement.    (2016)

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Ans: Print culture played a significant role in creating the conditions for the French Revolution. The following arguments support this statement:

  • Print culture popularized the ideas of enlightened thinkers who advocated reason and criticized traditional beliefs, superstitions, and despotism. Writers such as Voltaire and Rousseau disseminated their ideas through printed works, influencing public opinion and creating a sense of intellectual awakening.
  • Print culture facilitated dialogue and debate among the people. It provided a platform for the exchange of ideas and the dissemination of revolutionary thoughts. Newspapers, pamphlets, and other printed materials became mediums for political discussions and the questioning of authority.
  • Print literature mocked the royalty and exposed the corruption and inequalities of the Ancient Régime. Underground publications circulated widely, creating awareness and mobilizing the masses against the existing social and political order. This contributed to the revolutionary sentiment that eventually led to the French Revolution.


Q42: Describe the impact of the print revolution in Europe during the 15th and 16th century.  (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The impact of the print revolution in Europe during the 15th and 16th century was significant. Here are some key points:

  • Printing reduced the cost of books, making them more affordable and accessible to a larger population.
  • The time and labor required to produce each book decreased, allowing for multiple copies to be produced with greater ease.
  • Books flooded the market, reaching out to an ever-growing readership.
  • Publishers started printing popular ballads and folk tales with beautiful pictures and illustrations, making them more visually appealing.
  • Print created the possibility of wide circulation of ideas, introducing a new world of debate and discussion.
  • Even those who disagreed with established authorities could now print and circulate their ideas, leading to the emergence of new perspectives and challenging existing beliefs.
  • One notable example is Martin Luther, a German monk, priest, professor, and church reformer, who challenged the Church and sparked the Protestant Reformation.


Q43: Explain with example how print culture catered to the requirement of children.     (2016)

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Ans: Print culture catered to the requirement of children by producing literature specifically for them. Here is an example:

  • In Europe, primary education became compulsory in the late 19th century, resulting in children becoming an important category of readers.
  • The publishing industry recognized this demand and started producing textbooks for schools.
  • In France, a children’s press devoted solely to literature for children was established in 1857.
  • This press published new works as well as old fairy tales and folktales, providing children with a variety of reading material.
  • The Grimm brothers in Germany spent years compiling traditional folk tales gathered from peasants, which were edited and published in a collection in 1812.
  • The published versions of these tales excluded anything considered unsuitable or vulgar for children, ensuring their appropriateness.
  • The print culture not only recorded old tales but also transformed them, giving children access to stories that entertained and educated them.


Q44: Explain briefly the initial efforts made by foreigners to introduce printing press in India.    (2016)

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Ans: Foreigners made initial efforts to introduce the printing press in India. Here are some key points:

  • The Portuguese missionaries were the first to introduce the printing press in India in the mid-16th century.
  • Jesuit priests learned local languages such as Konkani and printed several texts in those languages.
  • By 1674, about 50 books had been printed in Konkani and Kannada languages.
  • Catholic priests published the first printed books in Tamil in Cochin, and in 1713, the first Malayalam book was printed.
  • Dutch Protestant missionaries also printed around 32 texts in Tamil, which were later translated.
  • The English language press did not grow in India until much later, despite the East India Company importing presses from the late 17th century.
  • In 1780, James Augustus Hickey started editing the Bengal Gazette, a weekly magazine that was a private English enterprise free from colonial influence.
  • Hickey’s publication included various advertisements, including those related to the import and sale of slaves.
  • By the end of the 18th century, several newspapers and journals appeared in print, contributing to the growth of print culture in India.


Q45: “Print not only stimulated the publication of conflicting opinions amongst communities but it also connected communities and people in different parts of India”. Examine the statement.    (2016)

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Ans: The statement is accurate as print indeed stimulated the publication of conflicting opinions and connected communities and people across different parts of India. Here’s an examination of the statement:

  • Publication of conflicting opinions: The print revolution provided a platform for individuals and groups to express their opinions freely and without censorship. This led to the proliferation of newspapers, tracts, and other printed materials that presented diverse viewpoints and perspectives. Conflicting opinions on social, religious, and political matters were published, sparking debates and discussions among communities.
  • Connection between communities: The wide circulation of printed materials facilitated the exchange of ideas and information between communities in different parts of India. People could access and read publications from various regions, fostering a sense of interconnectedness. This helped in disseminating knowledge, promoting cultural exchange, and creating awareness about social issues and reform movements across the country.
  • Bridging regional and linguistic barriers: Print played a crucial role in bridging regional and linguistic barriers by enabling the translation and dissemination of texts in different languages. Publications in regional languages reached a wider audience, allowing for the sharing of ideas and experiences among communities speaking different languages.
  • Strengthening national consciousness: The print culture played a significant role in fostering national consciousness and unity. Nationalist newspapers and publications grew in numbers, reporting on colonial misrule and advocating for independence. These publications connected people from different regions of India, fostering a shared sense of identity and purpose.

In conclusion, the print revolution in India not only provided a platform for conflicting opinions to be published but also connected communities and people across different parts of the country, contributing to the growth of knowledge, awareness, and national consciousness.

04. Previous Year Questions: The Age of Industrialisation

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: Who among the following improved the steam engine?    [2023]
(a) 
James Watt
(b) Thomas Edison
(c) Benjamin Franklin
(d) Alexander Fleming  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
James Watt improved the steam engine in the late 18th century by making it more efficient, which played a crucial role in the Industrial Revolution by powering machines and factories.


Q2: Who of the following set up the first Iron and Steel industry in India?   [2023]
(a) 
J.R.D. Tata
(b) Purushotam Das
(c) R.G. Saraiya
(d) Thakur Das  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
J.R.D. Tata established the first iron and steel industry in India, called Tata Steel, in 1907 at Jamshedpur. This industry was a significant step in India’s industrial development and marked the beginning of large-scale steel production in the country.


Q3: Read the given case and answer the questions that follow.   [2023]
Market for Goods
One way in which new consumers are created is through advertisements. As you know, advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary. They try to shape the minds of people and create new needs. Today we live in a world where advertisements surround us. They appear in newspapers, magazines, hoardings, street walls, television screens. But if we look back into history, we find that from the very beginning of the industrial age, advertisements have played a part in expanding the markets for products, and in shaping a new consumer culture. When Manchester industrialists began selling cloth in India, they put labels ‘MADE IN MANCHESTER’ on the cloth bundles. The label was needed to make the place of manufacture and the name of the company familiar to the buyer. The label was also to be a mark of quality. When buyers saw written in bold on the label, they were expected to feel confident about buying the cloth.

(i) How was the marketing of goods done in India by the British? 

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Marketing of goods done in India by the British through advertisements.

(ii) How were the new consumers created through advertisement during colonial India?

Hide Answer  

Ans: Advertisements through newspapers, magazines, hoarding were the most important method used by the producers to expand the market. It played a major role in expanding the markets and shaping a new consumer culture. Advertisements make products appear desirable and necessary.

(iii) Identify the messages conveyed through advertisements during industrialization.

Hide Answer  

Ans: During industrialization, advertisements conveyed messages of modernity, convenience, quality, patriotism, and social status of consumers. These messages helped to promote and sell products to a growing consumer market and also shape up minds of people and create new needs in them.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q4: Read the following extract and answer the questions that follow:
Will Thorne Is one of those who went In search of j seasonal work, loading bricks and doing odd jobs. He describes how job-seekers walked to London in search of work:
I had always wanted to go to London, and my desire …… was stimulated by letters from an old workmate ….. who was now working at the Old Kent Road Gas Works …. I finally decided to go … In November, 1881. With two friends I started out to walk the Journey, j filled with the hope that we would he able to obtain j employment, when we gel there, with the kind assistance nee of my friend… we had little money when we i started, not enough to pay for our food and lodgings j each night until we arrived in London. Some days we  walked as much as twenty miles, and other days less,  Our money was gone at the end of the third day…… For  two nights we slept out – once under a haystack, and once in an old farm shed … On arrival in London we tried to find … my friend … but… were unsuccessful. Our money was gone, so there was nothing far us to do but to walk around until late at night, and then try to find some place to sleep. We found an old building and slept In it that night. The next day, Sunday, late in the afternoon, we got lo the Old Kent Gas Works, and applied for work. To my great surprise, the man we had been looking for was working aL the lime. He spoke lo the foreman and I was given a job.’
Quoted in Raphael Samuel. ‘Comer* and Goers’, in HJ. Dyosand Michael Wolff, eds, The Victorian City:
Images and Realities, 1973.
(i) Analyse the major factor which led London become an a ttractive pi ace for the j ob see kers.
(ii) Analyse the reason for the appointment of Will Thorne by the Old Kent Gas works.
(iii) Examine the preference of hand labour over machines by the industrialists of the Victorian Britain.    (CBSE SQ 2022-23)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) Due to the industrial revolution and availability of job opportunities in factories of London.
(ii) Gas work was the seasonal Industry and they were In need to low wage workers.
(iii) (a) Machines needed huge capital investments.
(b) Machines were costly, ineffective, difficult to repair.
(c) Labour was available at low wages.
(d) In seasonal industries, only seasonal labour was required.

Also read: Unit Test: The Age of Industrialisation

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q5: Define the term ‘Carding’.    [2020]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Carding is a mechanical process used to prepare fibres for spinning. It involves:

  • Disentangling fibres, such as cotton or wool.
  • Cleaning the fibres to remove impurities.
  • Intermixing the fibres to create a uniform web.

This process is essential for producing a continuous web of material that can be spun into yarn.


Q6: Name the two industrialists of Bombay who built huge industrial empires during the nineteenth century.     [2020]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata were two prominent industrialists from Bombay who established significant industrial empires during the nineteenth century.


Q7: Why did the elite of Britain prefer hand-made goods in the mid-nineteenth century? Explain.  [2020]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The elite of Britain preferred hand-made goods in the mid-nineteenth century for several key reasons:

  • Quality and Craftsmanship: Hand-made items were often better finished and individually crafted, reflecting a higher standard of quality.
  • Symbol of Status: These goods symbolised refinement and class, distinguishing the elite from the masses.
  • Unique Designs: Hand-made products could feature intricate designs and specific shapes that machines could not replicate.
  • National Pride: Hand-made goods were viewed as a mark of British craftsmanship, while machine-made items were often exported.

This preference highlighted the elite’s desire for exclusivity and a connection to traditional craftsmanship.


Q8: Why did the export of Indian textile decline at the beginning of the nineteenth century? Explain any three reasons.     [2020]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The export of Indian textiles declined at the beginning of the nineteenth century for several reasons:

  • Duties on Cotton Textiles: The British government imposed duties on Indian cotton textiles, making them more expensive and less competitive in the export market.
  • Increased British Imports: The influx of cheap, machine-made goods from Britain flooded Indian markets, significantly reducing demand for Indian textiles.
  • Decline of Weaving Regions: By the mid-nineteenth century, many traditional weaving areas in India struggled to compete with the lower prices and efficiency of British textiles, leading to a sharp decline in exports.


Q9: Explain the impact of Industrialisation on the Indian weavers during the eighteenth century.    [2020 C]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The impact of industrialisation on Indian weavers during the eighteenth century was largely negative, resulting in significant changes to their lives and livelihoods:

  • Loss of bargaining power: Weavers could no longer negotiate prices for their goods, forcing them to sell at lower rates. This led to a decline in their income.
  • Clashes with gomasthas: Gomasthas, who were agents hired to manage weavers, often exploited them, causing conflicts and disputes.
  • Protests and punishment: Many weavers protested against the British government’s detrimental policies, facing punishment for delays or other issues.
  • Migration and desertion: In regions like Carnatic and Bengal, weavers left their villages, some closing their workshops and refusing to work for the British.
  • Overall decline: The industry faced a steep decline, leading to economic hardships and a loss of traditional livelihoods.


Q10: Explain the ways through which British manufacturers attempted to take over the Indian market.    [2020]

Hide Answer  

Ans: British manufacturers made several attempts to take over the Indian market during the colonial period. Some of the methods they employed include:

  • Imposition of import duties: British manufacturers pressured the government to impose import duties on Indian cotton textiles. This made Indian products relatively more expensive in comparison to British goods.
  • Influence on the East India Company: British manufacturers convinced the East India Company to sell British manufactured goods in the Indian market. This gave them a significant advantage over Indian producers.
  • Advertisement: British manufacturers used advertisements to create interest in their products among Indian consumers. They employed various strategies to promote their goods and establish their brands.
  • Use of labels: When Manchester industrialists started selling cloth in India, they put labels on the cloth bundles. These labels helped in branding and marketing their products as well as differentiating them from Indian textiles.
  • Cultural appropriation: British manufacturers sometimes used images of Indian Gods and Goddesses in their advertisements and packaging to appeal to the religious sentiments of Indian consumers.
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Previous Year Questions 2019

Q11: Explain any three causes which led to the decline of Indian cotton textiles in the early nineteenth century.     [2019, 2016]

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Ans: The decline of Indian cotton textiles in the early nineteenth century can be attributed to several causes:

  • Introduction of cheaper British textiles: British machine-made cotton goods were cheaper, making it hard for Indian hand-made cotton textiles to compete in price. As a result, British products flooded the Indian market, causing a drop in demand for Indian textiles.
  • Disruption in cotton supply: When the American Civil War broke out, the supply of raw cotton from the US to Britain was interrupted. This forced Britain to buy cotton from India, which created a shortage of cotton for Indian weavers.
  • Growth of cotton factories in India: By the end of the nineteenth century, cotton factories were set up in India, which further hurt traditional handloom cotton textiles.


Q12: “Series of changes affected the pattern of industrialisation in India by the early twentieth century.” Analyse the statement.    [Delhi 2019]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The statement highlights that a series of changes influenced the pattern of industrialisation in India by the early twentieth century. 
These changes can be analyzed as follows:

  • Shift to heavy industries: In the early twentieth century, India began focusing more on heavy industries. Sectors like steel, chemicals, and machinery grew significantly with more investment.
  • Infrastructure development: This period also saw the development of key infrastructure like railways, ports, and power plants. These improvements were important for industrial growth and helped industries expand.
  • Impact of World War I: World War I had a big impact on industrialisation in India. The war created new demands for industrial goods, leading to higher production and the expansion of industries.
  • Role of Indian entrepreneurs: Indian business owners played an important role in this industrial growth. They started businesses in different sectors and helped industries grow successfully.
  • Rise of national movements: The early twentieth century also saw the rise of movements for self-rule in India. These movements influenced industrialisation by shaping policies and creating a sense of unity, which helped industries grow.


Q13: Explain any five factors responsible for the decline of the cotton textile industry in India in the mid-nineteenth century.     [2019 C]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The cotton textile industry in India witnessed a decline in the mid-nineteenth century due to the following factors:

  • Imposition of duties: The British government put taxes on Indian exports to Britain, under pressure from British manufacturers. This made Indian textiles more expensive and less competitive in the international market.
  • East India Company’s influence: The East India Company, influenced by British manufacturers, started selling British-made goods in India. This led to a drop in demand for Indian textiles.
  • Competition from machine-made textiles: British machine-made cotton textiles were cheaper than hand-made Indian textiles. As a result, Indian weavers lost a large share of the market.
  • Raw cotton shortage: When the Civil War broke out in the United States in the 1860s, cotton supplies from the US to Britain were cut off. Britain turned to India for cotton, creating a shortage of raw cotton for Indian weavers.
  • Rise of Indian cotton factories: By the end of the nineteenth century, cotton factories began to appear in India. This further weakened the traditional handloom industry as machine-made textiles became more popular.


Q14: Describe the role of early entrepreneurs of India in the development of industries.   [2019]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Early entrepreneurs in India played a significant role in the development of industries. Some examples of their contributions include:

  • Dwarkanath Tagore: Dwarkanath Tagore was one of the first people to start industries in India in the 1830s and 1840s. While his business faced difficulties and closure in the 1840s, he laid the groundwork for future industrial development.
  • Parsi industrialists: In the late nineteenth century, Parsi businessmen like Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee Nusserwanjee Tata became successful industrialists. They built large industrial empires and made money by exporting goods to China and sending raw cotton to England.
  • Seth Hukumchand: Seth Hukumchand, a Marwari businessman, set up the first Indian jute mill in Calcutta in 1917. This marked the beginning of the jute industry in India.
  • Birla Group: The Birla Group, founded by successful traders from China, also played an important role in India’s industrial development. They expanded into various industries and became well-known industrialists.


Q15: Describe the conditions of workers in Europe after the Industrial Revolution.    [Al 2019]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The conditions of workers in Europe after the Industrial Revolution were generally poor and marked by several challenges:

  • Long working hours: Workers had to work for 12 to 16 hours a day, six days a week. They had very little free time and were often tired because of the heavy workload.
  • Low wages: Women and children earned much lower wages than men. This created unfair pay differences and inequality in the workforce.
  • Lack of job security: Finding a job was tough, and workers without employment often had to sleep on bridges or in shelters. Many industries were seasonal, which led to periods of unemployment and financial instability.
  • Poor working conditions: Factories were dusty, dirty, and lacked proper lighting. They only had sunlight through a few windows. The machines ran on steam, creating smoke-filled air and health risks for workers.
  • Lack of safety regulations: There were no safety rules or measures, and accidents happened often. Workers faced the risk of injuries and illnesses due to the absence of protective equipment.
  • Housing and living conditions: Workers lived in small, crowded homes with poor sanitation and hygiene. They struggled to access basic services and had poor living conditions.
Assertion & Reason Test: The Age of Industrialisation

2018 & Rest of Years Questions

Q16: Why were merchants from towns in Europe began to move to countryside in seventeenth and eighteenth century?     [2018]

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Ans: Merchants from towns in Europe began to move to the countryside in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries because they wanted to expand their production for the international market. However, they were unable to do so within the towns due to the power of urban crafts and trade guilds, which prevented the entry of merchants. Moving to the countryside allowed them to supply money to peasants and artisans and persuade them to produce goods for the growing demand. 


Q17:  What is proto-industrialisation? Explain the conditions in 18th century English countryside that created conditions for proto-industrialisation.    [2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Proto-industrialisation refers to the early phase of industrialisation in Europe, before the establishment of factories. In the eighteenth century English countryside, certain conditions created favorable circumstances for proto-industrialisation. These conditions include the expansion of world trade and the acquisition of colonies, which led to an increased demand for goods. Merchants from towns in Europe began moving to the countryside, providing financial support to peasants and artisans and encouraging them to produce for the international market. This shift allowed for large-scale production and the emergence of a proto-industrial system.


Q18: How did the East India Company procure regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles from Indian weavers?      [2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The East India Company procured regular supplies of cotton and silk textiles from Indian weavers by implementing certain strategies:

  • Elimination of existing traders: The East India Company removed the middlemen and appointed “Gomasthas” as supervisors. These Gomasthas were in charge of overseeing the production of textiles and making sure the company received regular supplies.
  • System of advances: The company introduced a system where they gave money in advance to the weavers. In exchange, the weavers had to agree to produce textiles only for the company. This gave the company more control over the weavers and helped ensure a constant supply of textiles.
  • Control over prices: The weavers were forced to accept the prices set by the company. This allowed the company to control both the pricing and the production of textiles.

Q19: In the eighteenth century Europe, why did the peasants and artisans in the countryside readily agree to work for the merchants? Explain any three reasons.      [2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: In the eighteenth century Europe, peasants and artisans in the countryside readily agreed to work for merchants for several reasons:

  • Loss of open fields and limited income: In the eighteenth century, the closure of open fields and common lands meant that peasants had fewer ways to earn money. Merchants offered them work, which provided an extra source of income to help make up for the lower earnings from farming.
  • Small plots of land: Many peasants had small pieces of land that couldn’t provide enough work for the entire family. Working for merchants allowed them to use their skills and labor to earn money.
  • Advance payments from merchants: Merchants offered financial support to the peasants and artisans by giving them advances. This allowed the peasants to produce goods since they lacked the money to expand their production on their own.


Q20: Describe any three conditions that were favorable for the continuing growth of industries in 18th-century India.     [2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Three conditions that were favorable for the continuing growth of industries in 18th-century India are as follows: 

  • Abundant natural resources: India had a lot of coal and iron-ore, which are key resources needed for industrial production.
  • Presence of perennial rivers: Many rivers that flow throughout the year made transportation easier and supported irrigation, which helped industries grow.
  • Access to raw materials: India had a large supply of raw materials like cotton, silk, and spices. These were in high demand both in India and abroad.
  • Infrastructure and large market: A vast network of roads and railways, along with a large market, also helped industries develop in 18th-century India.


Q21: Industrialization gave birth to imperialism. Justify the statement with three arguments.   [2016]

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Ans: The statement that industrialization gave birth to imperialism can be justified with the following arguments: 

  • Need for raw materials: Industrialization created a constant demand for raw materials to keep production going. Industrialized countries like Britain looked for new sources of raw materials, which led to the colonization of resource-rich areas.
  • Protective tariffs and new markets: To protect their own industries, industrialized nations imposed high import duties on goods. This made it necessary for them to find new markets for their products, which led to colonizing regions that hadn’t industrialized yet.
  • Colonies as sources and markets: Colonies became important both as suppliers of cheap raw materials and as easy markets for the finished goods from industrialized countries. The economic need for raw materials and markets drove the race for colonies, making imperialism a direct result of industrialization.


Q22: How was foreign trade from India conducted before the age of machine industries? Explain.     [2016]

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Ans: Before the age of machine industries, foreign trade from India was conducted through several key methods:

  • Textile Dominance: India was renowned for its silk and cotton goods, which were highly sought after in the international market. While coarser cotton was made in various countries, India’s finer varieties were preferred.
  • Merchant Networks: Merchants, including Armenian and Persian traders, transported goods from regions like Punjab to Afghanistan, Eastern Persia, and Central Asia.
  • Land Transport: Bales of fine textiles were carried on camelback through mountain passes and across deserts, linking different areas.
  • Sea Trade: A vibrant maritime trade flourished through major pre-colonial ports such as SuratMasulipatnam, and Hooghly, connecting India to the Gulf, Red Sea, and Southeast Asian ports.

These trade routes and networks facilitated the exchange of goods and helped establish strong commercial ties with various regions.


Q23: Explain any three reasons for the clashes between the weavers and the gomasthas.     [2016]

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Ans: Clashes between the weavers and the gomasthas, who were appointed supervisors by the East India Company, arose from several key issues:

  • Local Relationships: Weavers had previously worked with local merchants, creating strong community ties. The introduction of gomasthas, who were outsiders, disrupted these relationships and led to conflict.
  • Authoritarian Behaviour: Gomasthas often entered villages with sepoys and peons, using intimidation and punishment against weavers for any delays or mistakes, which escalated tensions.
  • Restricted Bargaining: The Company limited weavers’ ability to negotiate prices or sell to other buyers. Low wages and lack of alternatives caused significant discontent, resulting in clashes and revolts.


Q24: How did the abundance of labor in the market affect the lives of the workers in the nineteenth century? Explain with examples.    [2017]

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Ans: The abundance of labour in the market during the nineteenth century significantly impacted workers’ lives:

  • Lower wages: With many workers available, employers could pay lower wages. This reduced workers’ purchasing power and worsened their economic conditions.
  • Unemployment and job insecurity: High competition for jobs led to increased unemployment. Many workers waited weeks for employment and often took odd jobs to survive.
  • Increased exploitation: Employers exploited the surplus of labour by paying less and demanding longer hours, further deteriorating workers’ living conditions.
  • Social unrest and protests: The situation led to social unrest, with workers organising strikes and movements to demand better wages and working conditions.
  • Migration and displacement: Many workers migrated to cities for jobs, but the surplus often left them unemployed, forcing some to return to their villages.


Q25: What was ‘Proto-industrialisation’? Explain the importance of proto-industrialisation.    [2016]

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Ans: Proto-industrialisation refers to the system of industries that existed in Europe before modern factories emerged. This system involved large-scale production aimed at an international market, primarily based in rural areas rather than urban factories.

The significance of proto-industrialisation can be summarised as follows:

  • Alternative income: It provided rural populations with a way to earn money, especially as agricultural incomes declined. Cottage industries allowed families to supplement their earnings.
  • Workforce development: Proto-industrialisation created a skilled workforce and fostered a culture of entrepreneurship, laying the groundwork for the later industrial revolution.
  • Technological innovation: It spurred the development of new technologies and production methods, contributing to the growth and diversification of various industries.
  • Trade expansion: The system enhanced trade and commerce, both locally and internationally, establishing a network of merchants, traders, and producers.
  • Social changes: It altered social structures and labour divisions, allowing women and children to participate in production, which challenged traditional gender roles.


Q26: Why were the British industrialists not keen to introduce modern machinery in the nineteenth century? Explain any five reasons.      [2016]

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Ans: British industrialists in the nineteenth century were hesitant to adopt modern machinery for several reasons:

  • Seasonal demand for labour: Many industries experienced fluctuating demand, making a constant workforce costly during off-peak times.
  • Product variety: Some goods could only be made using traditional hand techniques, which modern machinery could not replicate, limiting product diversity.
  • Skill requirements: Certain products needed specific human skills that machines could not mimic. Handmade items were often viewed as superior in quality.

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  • Upper-class preferences: The upper class favoured handmade goods, associating them with refinement and quality, while machine-made items were seen as cheap.
  • Cultural resistance: There was significant opposition to modern machinery due to fears of job losses and the decline of traditional crafts, threatening workers’ livelihoods.


Q27: Explain with examples the importance of advertisement in the marketing of goods.     [2016]

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Ans: Advertisement plays a crucial role in the marketing of goods. Some examples highlighting its importance include:

  • Creating awareness: Advertisement helps in creating awareness about products or services among potential consumers. It provides information about the features, benefits, and availability of the goods, attracting the attention of the target audience.
  • Brand promotion: Advertisement plays a vital role in promoting brands and establishing their identity in the market. Companies use various advertising techniques to differentiate their products from competitors and build brand recognition.
  • Influencing consumer behavior: Effective advertisement campaigns can influence consumer behavior and generate demand for specific products. By highlighting the unique selling points and benefits, advertisements can persuade consumers to make a purchase.
  • Expanding market reach: Advertisement enables companies to reach a wider audience and expand their market reach. Through various media channels, companies can target different demographics and geographical areas, increasing their customer base.
  • Enhancing sales: Well-executed advertisement campaigns can lead to increased sales and revenue. By attracting customers and persuading them to buy products, advertisements contribute to the overall success of businesses.