03. Previous Year Questions: The Making of a Global World

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)

I. Poverty and hunger, 
II. Slaves for sale, 
III. Wide spread of diseases, 
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution.

(a) Only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. 
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

People from Europe migrated to America in the nineteenth century mainly because of poverty and hunger (I) and religious conflicts and persecution (IV). They were also escaping widespread diseases (III). But slaves for sale (II) refers to Africans being taken forcibly to America, not Europeans migrating voluntarily.


Q2: The author of ‘Book of Marvels’ is:  (1 Mark)
(a) Marco Polo, 
(b) Columbus, 
(c) Vasco da Gama, 
(d) Alfred Crosby

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Ans: (a) Marco Polo
Explanation:

  • Book of Marvels was written by Marco Polo in the fifteenth century, describing trade exchanges between Venice and the Orient.


Q3: Two statements are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process. 
Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. 
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

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Ans: (a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Technological improvements such as railways, steamships, and refrigerated ships reduced costs and allowed faster, long-distance transport of goods, directly stimulating globalisation.


Q4: ‘Potato famine’ was related to which of the following countries?  (1 Mark)
(a) England, 
(b) Ireland, 
(c) Finland,
(d) Scotland

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Ans: (b) Ireland
In the mid-1840s, a disease destroyed potato crops in Ireland, leading to the Great Irish Potato Famine in which around one million people died of starvation and many emigrated.


Q5: In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) Spanish soldiers, 
(b) French merchants, 
(c) Portuguese sailors, 
(d) British tourists

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Ans: (a) Spanish soldiers

In the mid-16th century, Spanish conquerors carried germs such as smallpox to America. The native population, with no immunity, was devastated by the disease.


Q6: The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe’s conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century? (1 Mark)
(a) Cholera, 
(b) Smallpox, 
(c) Jaundice, 
(d) Malaria

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Ans: (b) Smallpox

Smallpox spread rapidly among America’s original inhabitants, killing and decimating communities, and thus clearing the way for European conquest.


Q7: “Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries.” Explain the statement with examples.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Globalisation is the process in which countries become more connected with each other through trade, movement of people, and sharing of ideas and culture. For example, the Silk Routes joined Asia, Europe and Africa, carrying goods like silk, spices, gold and even religions like Buddhism. Later, new foods such as potatoes, maize and chillies travelled from the Americas to Europe and Asia, which changed the way people lived and ate.


Q8: Why was the silk route considered a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Due to movement of silk cargoes, 
(b) Due to flow of silver and gold, 
(c) Due to linkage of China with Australia, 
(d) Due to trade and cultural exchange

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Ans: (d) Due to trade and cultural exchange
The silk routes carried not only silk, pottery, spices, gold and silver but also spread religions and ideas, making them a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural exchange.


Q9: Why was the Indian subcontinent significant to trade networks before European intervention? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The Indian subcontinent was central to trade networks before European intervention because it was the hub of the Indian Ocean trade. Goods, people, customs and knowledge regularly moved through its ports. India exported textiles and spices, and in return received precious metals like gold and silver, making it a crucial point in global trade flows.


Q10: For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?  (1 Mark)
(a) For American Market, 
(b) For European Market, 
(c) For Asian Market, 
(d) For Australian Market

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Ans: (b) For European Market

By the eighteenth century, plantations in America, worked by African slaves, produced cotton and sugar mainly for export to European markets.


Q11: In the early years of the 19th century the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?  (1 Mark)
(a) Tomato,
(b) Potato, 
(c) Soya,
(d) Groundnut

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Ans: (b) Potato

The potato became a staple food for Europe’s poor, helping them eat better and live longer, but over-dependence led to disaster during the Irish Potato Famine.


Q12: In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) City of Diversity, 
(b) City of Gold, 
(c) Smallpox City, 
(d) Trading City

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Ans: (b) City of Gold

In the seventeenth century, legends spread in Europe about South America’s fabled wealth, and expeditions set out in search of El Dorado, the mythical city of gold.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.” Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option. 
(I) Due to Cultural exchange 
(II) Due to Silk route 
(III) Due to trade & travellers 
(IV) Due to European efforts (CBSE 2024)

Options: 

(a) Only (I) (II) and (IV ) are correct.
(b) Only (II) (III) and (IV ) are correct.
(c) Only (I) (II) and (III) are correct.
(d) Only (I) (III) and (IV ) are correct.

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Ans: (c)

  • Buddhism spread due to cultural exchange, connecting with various cultures and belief systems.
  • The Silk Route facilitated the sharing of ideas and practices across different regions.
  • Trade and travellers played a significant role in propagating Buddhism, carrying its teachings to distant places.

Thus, the correct option is (c): Only (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Q2: How did Europeans help in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Europeans helped in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century in the following ways:

(1) New wealth sources: In an effort to discover new wealth sources, nations engaged in mercantilism and colonialism.

(2) Discovery and colonisation: The 16thcentury discovery and colonisation of the Americas generated an era of economic growth known as the Commercial Revolution.

(3) Sea routes: European traders found a sea-route to Asia and an ocean-route to the Americas in the 16th century. South American mines producing silver and other precious metals made Europe’s trade with Asia feasible.

(4) New trade routes: Trade shifted from the Mediterranean and Italy to the nations bordering Europe’s Atlantic coast as trade routes between the colonies of the New World and Old World Europe expanded.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: How did the ‘smallpox’ prove as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century? Explain. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Smallpox proved to be a deadly weapon for the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century. This can be highlighted through the following points:

  • Once introduced, smallpox spread rapidly across the continent.
  • It decimated entire communities, making it easier for the Spanish to conquer.

Q4: There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:    (2023)  
(a) The flow of trade 
(b) The flow of labour 
(c) The flow of capital 
(d) The flow of technology

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Ans: (d)

In the pre-modern world, the main factors that connected different regions were the flow of trade, labor, and capital. Technology was not yet a major global influence in shrinking distances and connecting the world at that time. Hence, the flow of technology is the incorrect option.

Q5: State the names and countries of the two hostile groups that turned against each other in the First World War.   (2023)

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Ans: The two hostile groups in the First World War were:

  • Allies: This group included BritainFrance, and Russia.
  • Central Powers: This group consisted of GermanyAustria-Hungary, and Ottoman Turkey.

Q6: Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I. The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund.
II. The Second World War broke out between the Axis and Allied groups.
III. A car manufacturer Henry Ford adopted the ‘Assembly Line Method’ for production.
IV. The Western economic organised themselves as a group – “The Group of 77”.    (2023) 
(a) III, II, I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV 
(c) IV, III, II and I
(d) IV, II, III and I 

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Ans: (a)

1. Henry Ford adopted the Assembly Line Method for production in 1913.

2. The Second World War broke out in 1939.

3. The Bretton Woods Conference, which established the International Monetary Fund (IMF), was held in 1944.

4. The Group of 77 was formed by developing countries in 1964 to promote their economic interests.

Q7: Differentiate between Fixed and Floating exchange rate.     (2023)  

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Ans: Fixed exchange rates mean that two currencies will always be exchanged at the same price, while floating exchange rates mean that the prices between each currency can change depending on market factors, primarily supply and demand.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q8: Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the later eighteenth century.     (2020) 

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Ans: 

  • Due to pressure from industrialists, the government was forced to remove corn laws, leading to the import of food in Britain.
  • The demand for food grains increased as urban centres expanded, putting pressure on the food supply.
  • The government restricted the import of corn by enacting corn laws, due to pressure from landed groups.

Q9: Explain the impact of the Great Depression on Indian weavers during the early twentieth century.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Great Depression had a profound impact on Indian weavers in the early twentieth century. 

Key effects included:

  • Increased conflict between weavers and Gomasthas (agents of British companies), as weavers protested against unfair practices and sought improved working conditions.
  • Weavers faced punishments for delays in delivering goods, which included fines and other penalties, worsening their financial struggles.
  • They lost the ability to bargain for prices and sell to various buyers, becoming more reliant on British companies that exploited their situation by offering low prices.
  • The prices paid by British companies for weavers’ products were extremely low, leading to a significant decline in their income and worsening economic conditions.
  • Many weavers, particularly in regions like Carnatic and Bengal, left their villages in search of better job opportunities.
  • Some weavers, along with local traders, revolted against the exploitative practices of British companies.
  • Due to these economic hardships, many weavers had to close their workshops, contributing to the decline of the traditional handloom industry.

Overall, the Great Depression severely impacted Indian weavers, intensifying their economic difficulties and leading to a decline in their industry.

Q10: Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in the post-Second World War settlement.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Bretton Woods institutions, including the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, played a crucial role in the post-Second World War settlement.

Some key roles of these institutions are:

  • The Bretton Woods conference, held in 1944, aimed to establish a stable international monetary system after the war. The IMF and the World Bank were created as part of this effort.
  • The IMF was tasked with promoting global monetary cooperation, exchange rate stability, and providing financial assistance to member countries facing balance of payment problems.
  • The World Bank, officially known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), was established to provide financial and technical assistance for the reconstruction and development of war-torn countries.
  • The IMF and the World Bank provided financial support to war-devastated countries, helping them rebuild their economies and infrastructure.
  • These institutions played a crucial role in facilitating international trade and economic growth by providing financial stability and promoting cooperation among member countries.
  • The IMF, through its surveillance and lending programs, helped stabilize exchange rates and provided financial assistance to member countries facing economic crises.
  • The World Bank provided long-term loans and technical assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, and industrial projects in developing countries, contributing to their economic development.

Overall, the Bretton Woods institutions played a vital role in post-World War II settlement, supporting economic reconstruction, stability, and development in member countries.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q11: Explain any five effects of the abolition of the Corn Laws.    (2019C)  

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Ans: The abolition of the Corn Laws in Britain led to significant changes in the economy. 

Here are five key effects:

  • It resulted in cheaper grain imports, making food more affordable for consumers.
  • British farmers struggled to compete with these low-cost imports, leading to large areas of land becoming uncultivated and many people losing their jobs.
  • Increased industrialisation in Britain boosted food imports, with production rising in regions like Eastern Europe, Russia, America, and Australia.
  • The demand for food imports enhanced revenues and political power associated with land ownership.
  • As food prices fell, overall consumption in Britain increased, contributing to economic growth.

Q12: Indian trade had played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy.” Analyze the statement.    (2019) 

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Ans: Indian trade indeed played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy. Some key points to consider are:

  • India was a major exporter of raw materials to Britain, such as cotton, spices, and indigo. This trade helped fuel the British Industrial Revolution and supported the growth of British industries.
  • British companies flooded the Indian markets with their manufactured goods, leading to huge profits for the British. This trade relationship created a trade surplus for Britain while trading with India.
  • The trade surplus was used by Britain to pay for private remittances by British officials and to fund their colonial administration in India.
  • India also had significant trade with China, mainly in opium. This trade contributed to the global economy and played a role in the Opium Wars between Britain and China.
  • Additionally, thousands of Indian laborers migrated as indentured laborers to work on plantations, mines, and construction projects around the world. Their labor contributed to the economic development of various countries.

Overall, Indian trade had a significant impact on the global economy during the late nineteenth century, benefiting Britain and other countries involved in trade with India.

Q13: Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ in Africa in the 1890s.    (AI 2019)  

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Ans: Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague, had a devastating impact on Africa in the 1890s. Some key impacts of Rinderpest in Africa are:

  • Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s, carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed Italian soldiers invading East Africa.
  • The disease spread rapidly across Africa, moving from east to west like a forest fire. By 1892, it had reached Africa’s Atlantic coast.
  • Rinderpest killed approximately 90% of the cattle it infected. This led to a massive loss of cattle, which was a vital source of livelihood for many Africans.
  • The loss of cattle destroyed African livelihoods, as people who relied on cattle for milk, meat, and transportation were left without these essential resources.
  • As a result of the loss of their cattle-based livelihoods, many Africans were forced to work for wages in order to survive. This had a significant impact on the economy and labor dynamics in Africa.
  • The colonial government took advantage of the situation and forced Africans into the labor market, providing cheap labor for colonial needs.

In summary, Rinderpest had a devastating impact on Africa, leading to the loss of cattle-based livelihoods and the forced entry of Africans into the labor market.

Q14: Describe the condition of indentured labour that migrated from India during the nineteenth century.    (2019)  

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Ans: The condition of indentured laborers who migrated from India during the nineteenth century was characterized by various hardships and exploitative practices. Some key aspects of their conditions are:

  • Indentured laborers were often recruited through deceptive practices. Agents would provide false information about the nature of work, living conditions, final destinations, and modes of travel, tempting poor individuals into migrating.
  • In some cases, less willing workers were forcibly abducted by the agents and taken to the plantations against their will.
  • Once on the plantations, the working conditions were harsh, and the laborers had few legal rights. They were subjected to long working hours, physical labor, and poor living conditions.
  • Punishments, including beatings and imprisonment, were common for laborers who failed to meet the demanding tasks or attempted to escape their jobs.
  • Medical attention provided to the laborers was often nominal, and wages were deducted for absences or failure to fulfill tasks.
  • The laborers faced various forms of exploitation, including low wages, debt bondage, and limited opportunities for social mobility.

Overall, the indentured laborers faced challenging conditions characterized by exploitation, deception, and harsh working and living conditions.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q15: Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?    (2018)  

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Ans: They met in Berlin in 1885 to partition Africa among themselves. 

Q16: “Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange.” Support your answer with three examples.    (CBSE 2016-17,2018)

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Ans: 

  • Travellers and traders introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. For example, noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti.
  • Arab traders took pasta to fifth century Sicily (Italy). Similar foods were known to the Indians and Japanese people. Thus, there was long-distance cultural contact even in the premodern world.
  • Potatoes, maize, tomatoes, chillies etc., were not known in India until about five centuries ago. These were introduced in Europe and Asia after the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q17: Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.    (2017)  

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Ans: 

  • A rise in food prices due to a year of bad harvest left the country poorer.
  • The ratio of the rise in population was larger than that of employment generation, leading to overcrowded slums.
  • Peasants suffered under the burden of feudal dues and obligations in some regions of Europe.
  • Unhappy with high food prices, urban dwellers and industrialists forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.

Q18: Elucidate any three factors that led to the Great Depression.    (2017, 2016)  

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Ans: 

  • Agricultural overproduction remained a problem, which was made worse by falling agricultural prices.
  • As prices slumped and agricultural incomes declined, farmers tried to expand production, leading to a large volume of produce flooding the market and pushing down prices.
  • Many countries financed their investments through loans from the US in the mid-1920s, but the withdrawal of these loans led to a crisis, including the failure of small major banks and the collapse of currencies such as the British Pound Sterling.

Q19: Describe the contribution of indentured labourers towards the cultural fusion in the emerging global world.   (2017, 2014)

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Ans: 

Indentured laborers made significant contributions towards cultural fusion in the emerging global world. Their experiences and interactions with different cultures led to the blending of various cultural forms. Some examples of their contributions are:

  • Indentured laborers lived and worked in harsh conditions, which forced them to seek avenues of comfort and relaxation. This resulted in the blending of different cultural forms, creating new cultural expressions.
  • In Trinidad, for example, the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay,’ in which workers of all races and religions participated.
  • The development of “Chutney music” in Trinidad and Guyana is another creative expression of the post-indenture experience, blending Indian musical traditions with Caribbean influences.
  • The protest religion of Rastafarianism is also said to reflect social and cultural links with Indian migrants to the Caribbean, suggesting a fusion of Indian and Afro-Caribbean cultural elements.

These examples highlight how the indentured laborers’ experiences and interactions contributed to the fusion of different cultural forms in the emerging global world.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q20: Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Give three reasons. (CBSE 2016) 

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Ans: Europeans fled to America in the 19th century because: 

(1) Europeans were facing problems of poverty and hunger. Economic opportunities were limited to a very high population. America had lesser competition. 

(2) Hunger, deadly diseases and religious conflicts were causing a lot of deaths. Europeans fled to America to save their lives. 

(3) Since America was not developed by the time, hungry Europeans fled to assert their power over Americans to earn more money.

Q21: Explain the three impacts of the First World War on the British economy.    (2016)  

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  • After the war, Britain found it difficult to recapture its earlier position of dominance in the colonial market.
  • The war resulted in huge external debts for Britain as it had borrowed money from the US to finance its war expenditures.
  • The increase in demand, production, and employment during the war was followed by a reduction in bloated war expenditures, leading to job losses. In 1921, one in every five British workers was unemployed.

Q22: Why do multinational companies (MNCs) choose China as an alternative location for investment? Explain the statement.    (2016) 

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Ans: 

  • Since the revolution in 1949, China gradually emerged in the field of world economy and attracted foreign MNCs due to its economic structure.
  • Wages in China are relatively low compared to other countries, making it an attractive location for investment.
  • China has the largest population, providing a larger consumer base for multinational companies.

Q23: Why did the industrialists and people living in cities of Britain force the government to abolish Corn Laws in the 18th century? Give two reasons.    (AI 2016) 

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Ans:

  • Most industrialists and landlords did not support Corn Laws as they hindered free trade.
  • The population in Britain was growing, leading to increased demand for food grains. The rising food prices caused social unrest and forced the government to abolish the Corn Laws.

Q24: “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand.” Explain the statement in the light of silk routes.    (2016) 

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Ans: 

  • The silk routes are a good example of vibrant premodern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
  • The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of west-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route, as well as the flow of precious metals from Europe to Asia.
  • Chinese potteries, textiles from China, and spices from India were traded along the silk routes.
  • Various food items also offer very good examples of long-distance cultural exchanges, as Christian missionaries, Muslim preachers, and Buddhist monks traveled through this route.

Q25: After the 19th century, how did the indentured labourers discover their own ways of survival? Explain.     (2016) 

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Ans: After the 19th century, indentured labourers found various ways to survive in difficult conditions. 

Their adaptations included:

  • Developing new forms of self-expression, blending traditional and modern cultural elements.
  • Transforming the Muharram procession in Trinidad into a lively carnival known as ‘Hosay’, which included participants from all races and religions.
  • Creating the protest religion of Rastafarianism, reflecting cultural connections between Indian migrants and Afro-Caribbean communities.
  • Learning new skills and utilising their existing knowledge to adapt to their new environments and economic conditions.
  • Establishing businesses or engaging in small-scale entrepreneurship to enhance their economic prospects.
  • Forming close-knit communities that provided mutual support, fostering a sense of belonging and shared cultural identity.

These strategies enabled indentured labourers to navigate their challenging circumstances and create new opportunities in the post-indenture period.

Q26: Describe any five factors that led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalisation.     (2016) 

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Ans: Several factors contributed to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalization. 

Here are five key factors:

  • Decline in the economic power of the United States: The US dollar, which was central to the Bretton Woods System, lost its value in relation to gold. This decline eroded confidence in the US dollar and the fixed exchange rate system, leading to the collapse of fixed exchange rates and the shift towards floating exchange rates.
  • Change in international finance: The creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank under the Bretton Woods System significantly transformed the international financial system. However, by the 1970s, the international financial landscape had changed, and developing countries were increasingly forced to borrow from western commercial banks rather than relying solely on the IMF and World Bank. This shift in international finance had implications for the Bretton Woods System.
  • Unemployment in industrialized countries: Industrialized countries faced a rise in unemployment during the 1970s. This increased unemployment led to social and economic problems and contributed to a loss of confidence in the Bretton Woods System.
  • Shifting production enterprises: Multinational corporations (MNCs) began shifting their production units to Asian countries, attracted by abundant labor and low wages. This shift in production contributed to the decline of industrialized countries’ economies and the emergence of new economic centers in Asia.
  • Changes in China: China’s economic reforms and opening up to the global market had a profound impact on the global economy. China became an attractive destination for foreign investment, and its economic rise contributed to the transformation of the global economic landscape.

These factors, among others, led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and marked the beginning of globalization, characterized by a shift in economic power, changing financial dynamics, and the emergence of new global economic players.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q27: The Spanish conquest and colonisation in America were decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth century. Explain with examples. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The Portuguese and the Spanish conquered America through the introduction of a lethal biological weapon in the form of germs of smallpox. 

This can be explained as follows: 

(1) Smallpox was carried to America on their person and introduced among the nonimmune Americans. 

(2) The Americans caught the disease which led to the destruction of most of their community. 

(3) The European and the Spanish invaders were both immune to this disease. 

(4) Americans could not turn this weapon back upon their invaders unlike the conventional weapons.

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Previous Year Questions 2025
Previous Year Questions 2024
Previous Year Questions 2023
Previous Year Questions 2020
Previous Year Questions 2019
Previous Year Questions 2018

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Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)

I. Poverty and hunger, 
II. Slaves for sale, 
III. Wide spread of diseases, 
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution.

(a) Only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. 
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

People from Europe migrated to America in the nineteenth century mainly because of poverty and hunger (I) and religious conflicts and persecution (IV). They were also escaping widespread diseases (III). But slaves for sale (II) refers to Africans being taken forcibly to America, not Europeans migrating voluntarily.


Q2: The author of ‘Book of Marvels’ is:  (1 Mark)
(a) Marco Polo, 
(b) Columbus, 
(c) Vasco da Gama, 
(d) Alfred Crosby

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Ans: (a) Marco Polo
Explanation:

  • Book of Marvels was written by Marco Polo in the fifteenth century, describing trade exchanges between Venice and the Orient.


Q3: Two statements are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process. 
Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. 
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

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Ans: (a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Technological improvements such as railways, steamships, and refrigerated ships reduced costs and allowed faster, long-distance transport of goods, directly stimulating globalisation.


Q4: ‘Potato famine’ was related to which of the following countries?  (1 Mark)
(a) England, 
(b) Ireland, 
(c) Finland,
(d) Scotland

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Ans: (b) Ireland
In the mid-1840s, a disease destroyed potato crops in Ireland, leading to the Great Irish Potato Famine in which around one million people died of starvation and many emigrated.


Q5: In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) Spanish soldiers, 
(b) French merchants, 
(c) Portuguese sailors, 
(d) British tourists

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Ans: (a) Spanish soldiers

In the mid-16th century, Spanish conquerors carried germs such as smallpox to America. The native population, with no immunity, was devastated by the disease.


Q6: The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe’s conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century? (1 Mark)
(a) Cholera, 
(b) Smallpox, 
(c) Jaundice, 
(d) Malaria

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Smallpox

Smallpox spread rapidly among America’s original inhabitants, killing and decimating communities, and thus clearing the way for European conquest.


Q7: “Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries.” Explain the statement with examples.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Globalisation is the process in which countries become more connected with each other through trade, movement of people, and sharing of ideas and culture. For example, the Silk Routes joined Asia, Europe and Africa, carrying goods like silk, spices, gold and even religions like Buddhism. Later, new foods such as potatoes, maize and chillies travelled from the Americas to Europe and Asia, which changed the way people lived and ate.


Q8: Why was the silk route considered a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Due to movement of silk cargoes, 
(b) Due to flow of silver and gold, 
(c) Due to linkage of China with Australia, 
(d) Due to trade and cultural exchange

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Due to trade and cultural exchange
The silk routes carried not only silk, pottery, spices, gold and silver but also spread religions and ideas, making them a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural exchange.


Q9: Why was the Indian subcontinent significant to trade networks before European intervention? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The Indian subcontinent was central to trade networks before European intervention because it was the hub of the Indian Ocean trade. Goods, people, customs and knowledge regularly moved through its ports. India exported textiles and spices, and in return received precious metals like gold and silver, making it a crucial point in global trade flows.


Q10: For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?  (1 Mark)
(a) For American Market, 
(b) For European Market, 
(c) For Asian Market, 
(d) For Australian Market

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) For European Market

By the eighteenth century, plantations in America, worked by African slaves, produced cotton and sugar mainly for export to European markets.


Q11: In the early years of the 19th century the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?  (1 Mark)
(a) Tomato,
(b) Potato, 
(c) Soya,
(d) Groundnut

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Ans: (b) Potato

The potato became a staple food for Europe’s poor, helping them eat better and live longer, but over-dependence led to disaster during the Irish Potato Famine.


Q12: In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) City of Diversity, 
(b) City of Gold, 
(c) Smallpox City, 
(d) Trading City

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) City of Gold

In the seventeenth century, legends spread in Europe about South America’s fabled wealth, and expeditions set out in search of El Dorado, the mythical city of gold.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.” Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option. 
(I) Due to Cultural exchange 
(II) Due to Silk route 
(III) Due to trade & travellers 
(IV) Due to European efforts (CBSE 2024)

Options: 

(a) Only (I) (II) and (IV ) are correct.
(b) Only (II) (III) and (IV ) are correct.
(c) Only (I) (II) and (III) are correct.
(d) Only (I) (III) and (IV ) are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

  • Buddhism spread due to cultural exchange, connecting with various cultures and belief systems.
  • The Silk Route facilitated the sharing of ideas and practices across different regions.
  • Trade and travellers played a significant role in propagating Buddhism, carrying its teachings to distant places.

Thus, the correct option is (c): Only (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Q2: How did Europeans help in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Europeans helped in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century in the following ways:

(1) New wealth sources: In an effort to discover new wealth sources, nations engaged in mercantilism and colonialism.

(2) Discovery and colonisation: The 16thcentury discovery and colonisation of the Americas generated an era of economic growth known as the Commercial Revolution.

(3) Sea routes: European traders found a sea-route to Asia and an ocean-route to the Americas in the 16th century. South American mines producing silver and other precious metals made Europe’s trade with Asia feasible.

(4) New trade routes: Trade shifted from the Mediterranean and Italy to the nations bordering Europe’s Atlantic coast as trade routes between the colonies of the New World and Old World Europe expanded.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: How did the ‘smallpox’ prove as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century? Explain. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Smallpox proved to be a deadly weapon for the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century. This can be highlighted through the following points:

  • Once introduced, smallpox spread rapidly across the continent.
  • It decimated entire communities, making it easier for the Spanish to conquer.

Q4: There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:    (2023)  
(a) The flow of trade 
(b) The flow of labour 
(c) The flow of capital 
(d) The flow of technology

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

In the pre-modern world, the main factors that connected different regions were the flow of trade, labor, and capital. Technology was not yet a major global influence in shrinking distances and connecting the world at that time. Hence, the flow of technology is the incorrect option.

Q5: State the names and countries of the two hostile groups that turned against each other in the First World War.   (2023)

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Ans: The two hostile groups in the First World War were:

  • Allies: This group included BritainFrance, and Russia.
  • Central Powers: This group consisted of GermanyAustria-Hungary, and Ottoman Turkey.

Q6: Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I. The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund.
II. The Second World War broke out between the Axis and Allied groups.
III. A car manufacturer Henry Ford adopted the ‘Assembly Line Method’ for production.
IV. The Western economic organised themselves as a group – “The Group of 77”.    (2023) 
(a) III, II, I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV 
(c) IV, III, II and I
(d) IV, II, III and I 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

1. Henry Ford adopted the Assembly Line Method for production in 1913.

2. The Second World War broke out in 1939.

3. The Bretton Woods Conference, which established the International Monetary Fund (IMF), was held in 1944.

4. The Group of 77 was formed by developing countries in 1964 to promote their economic interests.

Q7: Differentiate between Fixed and Floating exchange rate.     (2023)  

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Ans: Fixed exchange rates mean that two currencies will always be exchanged at the same price, while floating exchange rates mean that the prices between each currency can change depending on market factors, primarily supply and demand.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q8: Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the later eighteenth century.     (2020) 

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Ans: 

  • Due to pressure from industrialists, the government was forced to remove corn laws, leading to the import of food in Britain.
  • The demand for food grains increased as urban centres expanded, putting pressure on the food supply.
  • The government restricted the import of corn by enacting corn laws, due to pressure from landed groups.

Q9: Explain the impact of the Great Depression on Indian weavers during the early twentieth century.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Great Depression had a profound impact on Indian weavers in the early twentieth century. 

Key effects included:

  • Increased conflict between weavers and Gomasthas (agents of British companies), as weavers protested against unfair practices and sought improved working conditions.
  • Weavers faced punishments for delays in delivering goods, which included fines and other penalties, worsening their financial struggles.
  • They lost the ability to bargain for prices and sell to various buyers, becoming more reliant on British companies that exploited their situation by offering low prices.
  • The prices paid by British companies for weavers’ products were extremely low, leading to a significant decline in their income and worsening economic conditions.
  • Many weavers, particularly in regions like Carnatic and Bengal, left their villages in search of better job opportunities.
  • Some weavers, along with local traders, revolted against the exploitative practices of British companies.
  • Due to these economic hardships, many weavers had to close their workshops, contributing to the decline of the traditional handloom industry.

Overall, the Great Depression severely impacted Indian weavers, intensifying their economic difficulties and leading to a decline in their industry.

Q10: Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in the post-Second World War settlement.    (2020) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Bretton Woods institutions, including the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, played a crucial role in the post-Second World War settlement.

Some key roles of these institutions are:

  • The Bretton Woods conference, held in 1944, aimed to establish a stable international monetary system after the war. The IMF and the World Bank were created as part of this effort.
  • The IMF was tasked with promoting global monetary cooperation, exchange rate stability, and providing financial assistance to member countries facing balance of payment problems.
  • The World Bank, officially known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), was established to provide financial and technical assistance for the reconstruction and development of war-torn countries.
  • The IMF and the World Bank provided financial support to war-devastated countries, helping them rebuild their economies and infrastructure.
  • These institutions played a crucial role in facilitating international trade and economic growth by providing financial stability and promoting cooperation among member countries.
  • The IMF, through its surveillance and lending programs, helped stabilize exchange rates and provided financial assistance to member countries facing economic crises.
  • The World Bank provided long-term loans and technical assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, and industrial projects in developing countries, contributing to their economic development.

Overall, the Bretton Woods institutions played a vital role in post-World War II settlement, supporting economic reconstruction, stability, and development in member countries.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q11: Explain any five effects of the abolition of the Corn Laws.    (2019C)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: The abolition of the Corn Laws in Britain led to significant changes in the economy. 

Here are five key effects:

  • It resulted in cheaper grain imports, making food more affordable for consumers.
  • British farmers struggled to compete with these low-cost imports, leading to large areas of land becoming uncultivated and many people losing their jobs.
  • Increased industrialisation in Britain boosted food imports, with production rising in regions like Eastern Europe, Russia, America, and Australia.
  • The demand for food imports enhanced revenues and political power associated with land ownership.
  • As food prices fell, overall consumption in Britain increased, contributing to economic growth.

Q12: Indian trade had played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy.” Analyze the statement.    (2019) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Indian trade indeed played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy. Some key points to consider are:

  • India was a major exporter of raw materials to Britain, such as cotton, spices, and indigo. This trade helped fuel the British Industrial Revolution and supported the growth of British industries.
  • British companies flooded the Indian markets with their manufactured goods, leading to huge profits for the British. This trade relationship created a trade surplus for Britain while trading with India.
  • The trade surplus was used by Britain to pay for private remittances by British officials and to fund their colonial administration in India.
  • India also had significant trade with China, mainly in opium. This trade contributed to the global economy and played a role in the Opium Wars between Britain and China.
  • Additionally, thousands of Indian laborers migrated as indentured laborers to work on plantations, mines, and construction projects around the world. Their labor contributed to the economic development of various countries.

Overall, Indian trade had a significant impact on the global economy during the late nineteenth century, benefiting Britain and other countries involved in trade with India.

Q13: Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ in Africa in the 1890s.    (AI 2019)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague, had a devastating impact on Africa in the 1890s. Some key impacts of Rinderpest in Africa are:

  • Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s, carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed Italian soldiers invading East Africa.
  • The disease spread rapidly across Africa, moving from east to west like a forest fire. By 1892, it had reached Africa’s Atlantic coast.
  • Rinderpest killed approximately 90% of the cattle it infected. This led to a massive loss of cattle, which was a vital source of livelihood for many Africans.
  • The loss of cattle destroyed African livelihoods, as people who relied on cattle for milk, meat, and transportation were left without these essential resources.
  • As a result of the loss of their cattle-based livelihoods, many Africans were forced to work for wages in order to survive. This had a significant impact on the economy and labor dynamics in Africa.
  • The colonial government took advantage of the situation and forced Africans into the labor market, providing cheap labor for colonial needs.

In summary, Rinderpest had a devastating impact on Africa, leading to the loss of cattle-based livelihoods and the forced entry of Africans into the labor market.

Q14: Describe the condition of indentured labour that migrated from India during the nineteenth century.    (2019)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: The condition of indentured laborers who migrated from India during the nineteenth century was characterized by various hardships and exploitative practices. Some key aspects of their conditions are:

  • Indentured laborers were often recruited through deceptive practices. Agents would provide false information about the nature of work, living conditions, final destinations, and modes of travel, tempting poor individuals into migrating.
  • In some cases, less willing workers were forcibly abducted by the agents and taken to the plantations against their will.
  • Once on the plantations, the working conditions were harsh, and the laborers had few legal rights. They were subjected to long working hours, physical labor, and poor living conditions.
  • Punishments, including beatings and imprisonment, were common for laborers who failed to meet the demanding tasks or attempted to escape their jobs.
  • Medical attention provided to the laborers was often nominal, and wages were deducted for absences or failure to fulfill tasks.
  • The laborers faced various forms of exploitation, including low wages, debt bondage, and limited opportunities for social mobility.

Overall, the indentured laborers faced challenging conditions characterized by exploitation, deception, and harsh working and living conditions.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q15: Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?    (2018)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: They met in Berlin in 1885 to partition Africa among themselves. 

Q16: “Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange.” Support your answer with three examples.    (CBSE 2016-17,2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • Travellers and traders introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. For example, noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti.
  • Arab traders took pasta to fifth century Sicily (Italy). Similar foods were known to the Indians and Japanese people. Thus, there was long-distance cultural contact even in the premodern world.
  • Potatoes, maize, tomatoes, chillies etc., were not known in India until about five centuries ago. These were introduced in Europe and Asia after the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q17: Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.    (2017)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • A rise in food prices due to a year of bad harvest left the country poorer.
  • The ratio of the rise in population was larger than that of employment generation, leading to overcrowded slums.
  • Peasants suffered under the burden of feudal dues and obligations in some regions of Europe.
  • Unhappy with high food prices, urban dwellers and industrialists forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.

Q18: Elucidate any three factors that led to the Great Depression.    (2017, 2016)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • Agricultural overproduction remained a problem, which was made worse by falling agricultural prices.
  • As prices slumped and agricultural incomes declined, farmers tried to expand production, leading to a large volume of produce flooding the market and pushing down prices.
  • Many countries financed their investments through loans from the US in the mid-1920s, but the withdrawal of these loans led to a crisis, including the failure of small major banks and the collapse of currencies such as the British Pound Sterling.

Q19: Describe the contribution of indentured labourers towards the cultural fusion in the emerging global world.   (2017, 2014)

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Ans: 

Indentured laborers made significant contributions towards cultural fusion in the emerging global world. Their experiences and interactions with different cultures led to the blending of various cultural forms. Some examples of their contributions are:

  • Indentured laborers lived and worked in harsh conditions, which forced them to seek avenues of comfort and relaxation. This resulted in the blending of different cultural forms, creating new cultural expressions.
  • In Trinidad, for example, the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay,’ in which workers of all races and religions participated.
  • The development of “Chutney music” in Trinidad and Guyana is another creative expression of the post-indenture experience, blending Indian musical traditions with Caribbean influences.
  • The protest religion of Rastafarianism is also said to reflect social and cultural links with Indian migrants to the Caribbean, suggesting a fusion of Indian and Afro-Caribbean cultural elements.

These examples highlight how the indentured laborers’ experiences and interactions contributed to the fusion of different cultural forms in the emerging global world.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q20: Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Give three reasons. (CBSE 2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Europeans fled to America in the 19th century because: 

(1) Europeans were facing problems of poverty and hunger. Economic opportunities were limited to a very high population. America had lesser competition. 

(2) Hunger, deadly diseases and religious conflicts were causing a lot of deaths. Europeans fled to America to save their lives. 

(3) Since America was not developed by the time, hungry Europeans fled to assert their power over Americans to earn more money.

Q21: Explain the three impacts of the First World War on the British economy.    (2016)  

Hide Answer  

  • After the war, Britain found it difficult to recapture its earlier position of dominance in the colonial market.
  • The war resulted in huge external debts for Britain as it had borrowed money from the US to finance its war expenditures.
  • The increase in demand, production, and employment during the war was followed by a reduction in bloated war expenditures, leading to job losses. In 1921, one in every five British workers was unemployed.

Q22: Why do multinational companies (MNCs) choose China as an alternative location for investment? Explain the statement.    (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • Since the revolution in 1949, China gradually emerged in the field of world economy and attracted foreign MNCs due to its economic structure.
  • Wages in China are relatively low compared to other countries, making it an attractive location for investment.
  • China has the largest population, providing a larger consumer base for multinational companies.

Q23: Why did the industrialists and people living in cities of Britain force the government to abolish Corn Laws in the 18th century? Give two reasons.    (AI 2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Most industrialists and landlords did not support Corn Laws as they hindered free trade.
  • The population in Britain was growing, leading to increased demand for food grains. The rising food prices caused social unrest and forced the government to abolish the Corn Laws.

Q24: “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand.” Explain the statement in the light of silk routes.    (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • The silk routes are a good example of vibrant premodern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
  • The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of west-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route, as well as the flow of precious metals from Europe to Asia.
  • Chinese potteries, textiles from China, and spices from India were traded along the silk routes.
  • Various food items also offer very good examples of long-distance cultural exchanges, as Christian missionaries, Muslim preachers, and Buddhist monks traveled through this route.

Q25: After the 19th century, how did the indentured labourers discover their own ways of survival? Explain.     (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: After the 19th century, indentured labourers found various ways to survive in difficult conditions. 

Their adaptations included:

  • Developing new forms of self-expression, blending traditional and modern cultural elements.
  • Transforming the Muharram procession in Trinidad into a lively carnival known as ‘Hosay’, which included participants from all races and religions.
  • Creating the protest religion of Rastafarianism, reflecting cultural connections between Indian migrants and Afro-Caribbean communities.
  • Learning new skills and utilising their existing knowledge to adapt to their new environments and economic conditions.
  • Establishing businesses or engaging in small-scale entrepreneurship to enhance their economic prospects.
  • Forming close-knit communities that provided mutual support, fostering a sense of belonging and shared cultural identity.

These strategies enabled indentured labourers to navigate their challenging circumstances and create new opportunities in the post-indenture period.

Q26: Describe any five factors that led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalisation.     (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Several factors contributed to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalization. 

Here are five key factors:

  • Decline in the economic power of the United States: The US dollar, which was central to the Bretton Woods System, lost its value in relation to gold. This decline eroded confidence in the US dollar and the fixed exchange rate system, leading to the collapse of fixed exchange rates and the shift towards floating exchange rates.
  • Change in international finance: The creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank under the Bretton Woods System significantly transformed the international financial system. However, by the 1970s, the international financial landscape had changed, and developing countries were increasingly forced to borrow from western commercial banks rather than relying solely on the IMF and World Bank. This shift in international finance had implications for the Bretton Woods System.
  • Unemployment in industrialized countries: Industrialized countries faced a rise in unemployment during the 1970s. This increased unemployment led to social and economic problems and contributed to a loss of confidence in the Bretton Woods System.
  • Shifting production enterprises: Multinational corporations (MNCs) began shifting their production units to Asian countries, attracted by abundant labor and low wages. This shift in production contributed to the decline of industrialized countries’ economies and the emergence of new economic centers in Asia.
  • Changes in China: China’s economic reforms and opening up to the global market had a profound impact on the global economy. China became an attractive destination for foreign investment, and its economic rise contributed to the transformation of the global economic landscape.

These factors, among others, led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and marked the beginning of globalization, characterized by a shift in economic power, changing financial dynamics, and the emergence of new global economic players.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q27: The Spanish conquest and colonisation in America were decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth century. Explain with examples. (CBSE 2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Portuguese and the Spanish conquered America through the introduction of a lethal biological weapon in the form of germs of smallpox. 

This can be explained as follows: 

(1) Smallpox was carried to America on their person and introduced among the nonimmune Americans. 

(2) The Americans caught the disease which led to the destruction of most of their community. 

(3) The European and the Spanish invaders were both immune to this disease. 

(4) Americans could not turn this weapon back upon their invaders unlike the conventional weapons.

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Previous Year Questions 2025
Previous Year Questions 2024
Previous Year Questions 2023
Previous Year Questions 2020
Previous Year Questions 2019
Previous Year Questions 2018

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Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)

I. Poverty and hunger, 
II. Slaves for sale, 
III. Wide spread of diseases, 
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution.

(a) Only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. 
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

People from Europe migrated to America in the nineteenth century mainly because of poverty and hunger (I) and religious conflicts and persecution (IV). They were also escaping widespread diseases (III). But slaves for sale (II) refers to Africans being taken forcibly to America, not Europeans migrating voluntarily.


Q2: The author of ‘Book of Marvels’ is:  (1 Mark)
(a) Marco Polo, 
(b) Columbus, 
(c) Vasco da Gama, 
(d) Alfred Crosby

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Marco Polo
Explanation:

  • Book of Marvels was written by Marco Polo in the fifteenth century, describing trade exchanges between Venice and the Orient.


Q3: Two statements are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process. 
Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. 
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Technological improvements such as railways, steamships, and refrigerated ships reduced costs and allowed faster, long-distance transport of goods, directly stimulating globalisation.


Q4: ‘Potato famine’ was related to which of the following countries?  (1 Mark)
(a) England, 
(b) Ireland, 
(c) Finland,
(d) Scotland

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Ireland
In the mid-1840s, a disease destroyed potato crops in Ireland, leading to the Great Irish Potato Famine in which around one million people died of starvation and many emigrated.


Q5: In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) Spanish soldiers, 
(b) French merchants, 
(c) Portuguese sailors, 
(d) British tourists

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Spanish soldiers

In the mid-16th century, Spanish conquerors carried germs such as smallpox to America. The native population, with no immunity, was devastated by the disease.


Q6: The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe’s conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century? (1 Mark)
(a) Cholera, 
(b) Smallpox, 
(c) Jaundice, 
(d) Malaria

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Smallpox

Smallpox spread rapidly among America’s original inhabitants, killing and decimating communities, and thus clearing the way for European conquest.


Q7: “Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries.” Explain the statement with examples.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Globalisation is the process in which countries become more connected with each other through trade, movement of people, and sharing of ideas and culture. For example, the Silk Routes joined Asia, Europe and Africa, carrying goods like silk, spices, gold and even religions like Buddhism. Later, new foods such as potatoes, maize and chillies travelled from the Americas to Europe and Asia, which changed the way people lived and ate.


Q8: Why was the silk route considered a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Due to movement of silk cargoes, 
(b) Due to flow of silver and gold, 
(c) Due to linkage of China with Australia, 
(d) Due to trade and cultural exchange

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Due to trade and cultural exchange
The silk routes carried not only silk, pottery, spices, gold and silver but also spread religions and ideas, making them a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural exchange.


Q9: Why was the Indian subcontinent significant to trade networks before European intervention? Explain.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Indian subcontinent was central to trade networks before European intervention because it was the hub of the Indian Ocean trade. Goods, people, customs and knowledge regularly moved through its ports. India exported textiles and spices, and in return received precious metals like gold and silver, making it a crucial point in global trade flows.


Q10: For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?  (1 Mark)
(a) For American Market, 
(b) For European Market, 
(c) For Asian Market, 
(d) For Australian Market

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) For European Market

By the eighteenth century, plantations in America, worked by African slaves, produced cotton and sugar mainly for export to European markets.


Q11: In the early years of the 19th century the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?  (1 Mark)
(a) Tomato,
(b) Potato, 
(c) Soya,
(d) Groundnut

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Potato

The potato became a staple food for Europe’s poor, helping them eat better and live longer, but over-dependence led to disaster during the Irish Potato Famine.


Q12: In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) City of Diversity, 
(b) City of Gold, 
(c) Smallpox City, 
(d) Trading City

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) City of Gold

In the seventeenth century, legends spread in Europe about South America’s fabled wealth, and expeditions set out in search of El Dorado, the mythical city of gold.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.” Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option. 
(I) Due to Cultural exchange 
(II) Due to Silk route 
(III) Due to trade & travellers 
(IV) Due to European efforts (CBSE 2024)

Options: 

(a) Only (I) (II) and (IV ) are correct.
(b) Only (II) (III) and (IV ) are correct.
(c) Only (I) (II) and (III) are correct.
(d) Only (I) (III) and (IV ) are correct.

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Ans: (c)

  • Buddhism spread due to cultural exchange, connecting with various cultures and belief systems.
  • The Silk Route facilitated the sharing of ideas and practices across different regions.
  • Trade and travellers played a significant role in propagating Buddhism, carrying its teachings to distant places.

Thus, the correct option is (c): Only (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Q2: How did Europeans help in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Europeans helped in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century in the following ways:

(1) New wealth sources: In an effort to discover new wealth sources, nations engaged in mercantilism and colonialism.

(2) Discovery and colonisation: The 16thcentury discovery and colonisation of the Americas generated an era of economic growth known as the Commercial Revolution.

(3) Sea routes: European traders found a sea-route to Asia and an ocean-route to the Americas in the 16th century. South American mines producing silver and other precious metals made Europe’s trade with Asia feasible.

(4) New trade routes: Trade shifted from the Mediterranean and Italy to the nations bordering Europe’s Atlantic coast as trade routes between the colonies of the New World and Old World Europe expanded.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: How did the ‘smallpox’ prove as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century? Explain. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Smallpox proved to be a deadly weapon for the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century. This can be highlighted through the following points:

  • Once introduced, smallpox spread rapidly across the continent.
  • It decimated entire communities, making it easier for the Spanish to conquer.

Q4: There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:    (2023)  
(a) The flow of trade 
(b) The flow of labour 
(c) The flow of capital 
(d) The flow of technology

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

In the pre-modern world, the main factors that connected different regions were the flow of trade, labor, and capital. Technology was not yet a major global influence in shrinking distances and connecting the world at that time. Hence, the flow of technology is the incorrect option.

Q5: State the names and countries of the two hostile groups that turned against each other in the First World War.   (2023)

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Ans: The two hostile groups in the First World War were:

  • Allies: This group included BritainFrance, and Russia.
  • Central Powers: This group consisted of GermanyAustria-Hungary, and Ottoman Turkey.

Q6: Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I. The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund.
II. The Second World War broke out between the Axis and Allied groups.
III. A car manufacturer Henry Ford adopted the ‘Assembly Line Method’ for production.
IV. The Western economic organised themselves as a group – “The Group of 77”.    (2023) 
(a) III, II, I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV 
(c) IV, III, II and I
(d) IV, II, III and I 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

1. Henry Ford adopted the Assembly Line Method for production in 1913.

2. The Second World War broke out in 1939.

3. The Bretton Woods Conference, which established the International Monetary Fund (IMF), was held in 1944.

4. The Group of 77 was formed by developing countries in 1964 to promote their economic interests.

Q7: Differentiate between Fixed and Floating exchange rate.     (2023)  

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Ans: Fixed exchange rates mean that two currencies will always be exchanged at the same price, while floating exchange rates mean that the prices between each currency can change depending on market factors, primarily supply and demand.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q8: Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the later eighteenth century.     (2020) 

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Ans: 

  • Due to pressure from industrialists, the government was forced to remove corn laws, leading to the import of food in Britain.
  • The demand for food grains increased as urban centres expanded, putting pressure on the food supply.
  • The government restricted the import of corn by enacting corn laws, due to pressure from landed groups.

Q9: Explain the impact of the Great Depression on Indian weavers during the early twentieth century.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Great Depression had a profound impact on Indian weavers in the early twentieth century. 

Key effects included:

  • Increased conflict between weavers and Gomasthas (agents of British companies), as weavers protested against unfair practices and sought improved working conditions.
  • Weavers faced punishments for delays in delivering goods, which included fines and other penalties, worsening their financial struggles.
  • They lost the ability to bargain for prices and sell to various buyers, becoming more reliant on British companies that exploited their situation by offering low prices.
  • The prices paid by British companies for weavers’ products were extremely low, leading to a significant decline in their income and worsening economic conditions.
  • Many weavers, particularly in regions like Carnatic and Bengal, left their villages in search of better job opportunities.
  • Some weavers, along with local traders, revolted against the exploitative practices of British companies.
  • Due to these economic hardships, many weavers had to close their workshops, contributing to the decline of the traditional handloom industry.

Overall, the Great Depression severely impacted Indian weavers, intensifying their economic difficulties and leading to a decline in their industry.

Q10: Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in the post-Second World War settlement.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Bretton Woods institutions, including the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, played a crucial role in the post-Second World War settlement.

Some key roles of these institutions are:

  • The Bretton Woods conference, held in 1944, aimed to establish a stable international monetary system after the war. The IMF and the World Bank were created as part of this effort.
  • The IMF was tasked with promoting global monetary cooperation, exchange rate stability, and providing financial assistance to member countries facing balance of payment problems.
  • The World Bank, officially known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), was established to provide financial and technical assistance for the reconstruction and development of war-torn countries.
  • The IMF and the World Bank provided financial support to war-devastated countries, helping them rebuild their economies and infrastructure.
  • These institutions played a crucial role in facilitating international trade and economic growth by providing financial stability and promoting cooperation among member countries.
  • The IMF, through its surveillance and lending programs, helped stabilize exchange rates and provided financial assistance to member countries facing economic crises.
  • The World Bank provided long-term loans and technical assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, and industrial projects in developing countries, contributing to their economic development.

Overall, the Bretton Woods institutions played a vital role in post-World War II settlement, supporting economic reconstruction, stability, and development in member countries.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q11: Explain any five effects of the abolition of the Corn Laws.    (2019C)  

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Ans: The abolition of the Corn Laws in Britain led to significant changes in the economy. 

Here are five key effects:

  • It resulted in cheaper grain imports, making food more affordable for consumers.
  • British farmers struggled to compete with these low-cost imports, leading to large areas of land becoming uncultivated and many people losing their jobs.
  • Increased industrialisation in Britain boosted food imports, with production rising in regions like Eastern Europe, Russia, America, and Australia.
  • The demand for food imports enhanced revenues and political power associated with land ownership.
  • As food prices fell, overall consumption in Britain increased, contributing to economic growth.

Q12: Indian trade had played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy.” Analyze the statement.    (2019) 

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Ans: Indian trade indeed played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy. Some key points to consider are:

  • India was a major exporter of raw materials to Britain, such as cotton, spices, and indigo. This trade helped fuel the British Industrial Revolution and supported the growth of British industries.
  • British companies flooded the Indian markets with their manufactured goods, leading to huge profits for the British. This trade relationship created a trade surplus for Britain while trading with India.
  • The trade surplus was used by Britain to pay for private remittances by British officials and to fund their colonial administration in India.
  • India also had significant trade with China, mainly in opium. This trade contributed to the global economy and played a role in the Opium Wars between Britain and China.
  • Additionally, thousands of Indian laborers migrated as indentured laborers to work on plantations, mines, and construction projects around the world. Their labor contributed to the economic development of various countries.

Overall, Indian trade had a significant impact on the global economy during the late nineteenth century, benefiting Britain and other countries involved in trade with India.

Q13: Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ in Africa in the 1890s.    (AI 2019)  

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Ans: Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague, had a devastating impact on Africa in the 1890s. Some key impacts of Rinderpest in Africa are:

  • Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s, carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed Italian soldiers invading East Africa.
  • The disease spread rapidly across Africa, moving from east to west like a forest fire. By 1892, it had reached Africa’s Atlantic coast.
  • Rinderpest killed approximately 90% of the cattle it infected. This led to a massive loss of cattle, which was a vital source of livelihood for many Africans.
  • The loss of cattle destroyed African livelihoods, as people who relied on cattle for milk, meat, and transportation were left without these essential resources.
  • As a result of the loss of their cattle-based livelihoods, many Africans were forced to work for wages in order to survive. This had a significant impact on the economy and labor dynamics in Africa.
  • The colonial government took advantage of the situation and forced Africans into the labor market, providing cheap labor for colonial needs.

In summary, Rinderpest had a devastating impact on Africa, leading to the loss of cattle-based livelihoods and the forced entry of Africans into the labor market.

Q14: Describe the condition of indentured labour that migrated from India during the nineteenth century.    (2019)  

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Ans: The condition of indentured laborers who migrated from India during the nineteenth century was characterized by various hardships and exploitative practices. Some key aspects of their conditions are:

  • Indentured laborers were often recruited through deceptive practices. Agents would provide false information about the nature of work, living conditions, final destinations, and modes of travel, tempting poor individuals into migrating.
  • In some cases, less willing workers were forcibly abducted by the agents and taken to the plantations against their will.
  • Once on the plantations, the working conditions were harsh, and the laborers had few legal rights. They were subjected to long working hours, physical labor, and poor living conditions.
  • Punishments, including beatings and imprisonment, were common for laborers who failed to meet the demanding tasks or attempted to escape their jobs.
  • Medical attention provided to the laborers was often nominal, and wages were deducted for absences or failure to fulfill tasks.
  • The laborers faced various forms of exploitation, including low wages, debt bondage, and limited opportunities for social mobility.

Overall, the indentured laborers faced challenging conditions characterized by exploitation, deception, and harsh working and living conditions.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q15: Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?    (2018)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: They met in Berlin in 1885 to partition Africa among themselves. 

Q16: “Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange.” Support your answer with three examples.    (CBSE 2016-17,2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • Travellers and traders introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. For example, noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti.
  • Arab traders took pasta to fifth century Sicily (Italy). Similar foods were known to the Indians and Japanese people. Thus, there was long-distance cultural contact even in the premodern world.
  • Potatoes, maize, tomatoes, chillies etc., were not known in India until about five centuries ago. These were introduced in Europe and Asia after the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q17: Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.    (2017)  

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Ans: 

  • A rise in food prices due to a year of bad harvest left the country poorer.
  • The ratio of the rise in population was larger than that of employment generation, leading to overcrowded slums.
  • Peasants suffered under the burden of feudal dues and obligations in some regions of Europe.
  • Unhappy with high food prices, urban dwellers and industrialists forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.

Q18: Elucidate any three factors that led to the Great Depression.    (2017, 2016)  

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • Agricultural overproduction remained a problem, which was made worse by falling agricultural prices.
  • As prices slumped and agricultural incomes declined, farmers tried to expand production, leading to a large volume of produce flooding the market and pushing down prices.
  • Many countries financed their investments through loans from the US in the mid-1920s, but the withdrawal of these loans led to a crisis, including the failure of small major banks and the collapse of currencies such as the British Pound Sterling.

Q19: Describe the contribution of indentured labourers towards the cultural fusion in the emerging global world.   (2017, 2014)

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Ans: 

Indentured laborers made significant contributions towards cultural fusion in the emerging global world. Their experiences and interactions with different cultures led to the blending of various cultural forms. Some examples of their contributions are:

  • Indentured laborers lived and worked in harsh conditions, which forced them to seek avenues of comfort and relaxation. This resulted in the blending of different cultural forms, creating new cultural expressions.
  • In Trinidad, for example, the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay,’ in which workers of all races and religions participated.
  • The development of “Chutney music” in Trinidad and Guyana is another creative expression of the post-indenture experience, blending Indian musical traditions with Caribbean influences.
  • The protest religion of Rastafarianism is also said to reflect social and cultural links with Indian migrants to the Caribbean, suggesting a fusion of Indian and Afro-Caribbean cultural elements.

These examples highlight how the indentured laborers’ experiences and interactions contributed to the fusion of different cultural forms in the emerging global world.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q20: Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Give three reasons. (CBSE 2016) 

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Ans: Europeans fled to America in the 19th century because: 

(1) Europeans were facing problems of poverty and hunger. Economic opportunities were limited to a very high population. America had lesser competition. 

(2) Hunger, deadly diseases and religious conflicts were causing a lot of deaths. Europeans fled to America to save their lives. 

(3) Since America was not developed by the time, hungry Europeans fled to assert their power over Americans to earn more money.

Q21: Explain the three impacts of the First World War on the British economy.    (2016)  

Hide Answer  

  • After the war, Britain found it difficult to recapture its earlier position of dominance in the colonial market.
  • The war resulted in huge external debts for Britain as it had borrowed money from the US to finance its war expenditures.
  • The increase in demand, production, and employment during the war was followed by a reduction in bloated war expenditures, leading to job losses. In 1921, one in every five British workers was unemployed.

Q22: Why do multinational companies (MNCs) choose China as an alternative location for investment? Explain the statement.    (2016) 

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Ans: 

  • Since the revolution in 1949, China gradually emerged in the field of world economy and attracted foreign MNCs due to its economic structure.
  • Wages in China are relatively low compared to other countries, making it an attractive location for investment.
  • China has the largest population, providing a larger consumer base for multinational companies.

Q23: Why did the industrialists and people living in cities of Britain force the government to abolish Corn Laws in the 18th century? Give two reasons.    (AI 2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans:

  • Most industrialists and landlords did not support Corn Laws as they hindered free trade.
  • The population in Britain was growing, leading to increased demand for food grains. The rising food prices caused social unrest and forced the government to abolish the Corn Laws.

Q24: “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand.” Explain the statement in the light of silk routes.    (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

  • The silk routes are a good example of vibrant premodern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
  • The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of west-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route, as well as the flow of precious metals from Europe to Asia.
  • Chinese potteries, textiles from China, and spices from India were traded along the silk routes.
  • Various food items also offer very good examples of long-distance cultural exchanges, as Christian missionaries, Muslim preachers, and Buddhist monks traveled through this route.

Q25: After the 19th century, how did the indentured labourers discover their own ways of survival? Explain.     (2016) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: After the 19th century, indentured labourers found various ways to survive in difficult conditions. 

Their adaptations included:

  • Developing new forms of self-expression, blending traditional and modern cultural elements.
  • Transforming the Muharram procession in Trinidad into a lively carnival known as ‘Hosay’, which included participants from all races and religions.
  • Creating the protest religion of Rastafarianism, reflecting cultural connections between Indian migrants and Afro-Caribbean communities.
  • Learning new skills and utilising their existing knowledge to adapt to their new environments and economic conditions.
  • Establishing businesses or engaging in small-scale entrepreneurship to enhance their economic prospects.
  • Forming close-knit communities that provided mutual support, fostering a sense of belonging and shared cultural identity.

These strategies enabled indentured labourers to navigate their challenging circumstances and create new opportunities in the post-indenture period.

Q26: Describe any five factors that led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalisation.     (2016) 

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Ans: Several factors contributed to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalization. 

Here are five key factors:

  • Decline in the economic power of the United States: The US dollar, which was central to the Bretton Woods System, lost its value in relation to gold. This decline eroded confidence in the US dollar and the fixed exchange rate system, leading to the collapse of fixed exchange rates and the shift towards floating exchange rates.
  • Change in international finance: The creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank under the Bretton Woods System significantly transformed the international financial system. However, by the 1970s, the international financial landscape had changed, and developing countries were increasingly forced to borrow from western commercial banks rather than relying solely on the IMF and World Bank. This shift in international finance had implications for the Bretton Woods System.
  • Unemployment in industrialized countries: Industrialized countries faced a rise in unemployment during the 1970s. This increased unemployment led to social and economic problems and contributed to a loss of confidence in the Bretton Woods System.
  • Shifting production enterprises: Multinational corporations (MNCs) began shifting their production units to Asian countries, attracted by abundant labor and low wages. This shift in production contributed to the decline of industrialized countries’ economies and the emergence of new economic centers in Asia.
  • Changes in China: China’s economic reforms and opening up to the global market had a profound impact on the global economy. China became an attractive destination for foreign investment, and its economic rise contributed to the transformation of the global economic landscape.

These factors, among others, led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and marked the beginning of globalization, characterized by a shift in economic power, changing financial dynamics, and the emergence of new global economic players.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q27: The Spanish conquest and colonisation in America were decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth century. Explain with examples. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The Portuguese and the Spanish conquered America through the introduction of a lethal biological weapon in the form of germs of smallpox. 

This can be explained as follows: 

(1) Smallpox was carried to America on their person and introduced among the nonimmune Americans. 

(2) The Americans caught the disease which led to the destruction of most of their community. 

(3) The European and the Spanish invaders were both immune to this disease. 

(4) Americans could not turn this weapon back upon their invaders unlike the conventional weapons.

Previous Year Questions: The Making of a Global World

Table of contents
Previous Year Questions 2025
Previous Year Questions 2024
Previous Year Questions 2023
Previous Year Questions 2020
Previous Year Questions 2019
Previous Year Questions 2018

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Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Read the following reasons of migration of people from Europe to America till the 19th century and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)

I. Poverty and hunger, 
II. Slaves for sale, 
III. Wide spread of diseases, 
IV. Religious conflicts and persecution.

(a) Only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) Only II, III, and IV are correct
(c) Only I, III, and IV are correct. 
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) Only I, III, and IV are correct.

People from Europe migrated to America in the nineteenth century mainly because of poverty and hunger (I) and religious conflicts and persecution (IV). They were also escaping widespread diseases (III). But slaves for sale (II) refers to Africans being taken forcibly to America, not Europeans migrating voluntarily.


Q2: The author of ‘Book of Marvels’ is:  (1 Mark)
(a) Marco Polo, 
(b) Columbus, 
(c) Vasco da Gama, 
(d) Alfred Crosby

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Marco Polo
Explanation:

  • Book of Marvels was written by Marco Polo in the fifteenth century, describing trade exchanges between Venice and the Orient.


Q3: Two statements are given below. Read both the statements carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
Statement I: Rapid improvement in technology has been one major factor to stimulate the globalisation process. 
Statement II: This has made much faster delivery of goods across long distances possible at lower costs.
(a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I. 
(b) Both statements I and II are correct, but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I. 
(c) Statement I is correct, but statement II is incorrect. 
(d) Statement I is incorrect, but statement II is correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I.

Technological improvements such as railways, steamships, and refrigerated ships reduced costs and allowed faster, long-distance transport of goods, directly stimulating globalisation.


Q4: ‘Potato famine’ was related to which of the following countries?  (1 Mark)
(a) England, 
(b) Ireland, 
(c) Finland,
(d) Scotland

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Ireland
In the mid-1840s, a disease destroyed potato crops in Ireland, leading to the Great Irish Potato Famine in which around one million people died of starvation and many emigrated.


Q5: In the mid-16th century, diseases like smallpox reached America through which of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) Spanish soldiers, 
(b) French merchants, 
(c) Portuguese sailors, 
(d) British tourists

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Spanish soldiers

In the mid-16th century, Spanish conquerors carried germs such as smallpox to America. The native population, with no immunity, was devastated by the disease.


Q6: The germs of which disease paved the way for Europe’s conquest of America in the later half of the sixteenth century? (1 Mark)
(a) Cholera, 
(b) Smallpox, 
(c) Jaundice, 
(d) Malaria

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Smallpox

Smallpox spread rapidly among America’s original inhabitants, killing and decimating communities, and thus clearing the way for European conquest.


Q7: “Globalisation is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries.” Explain the statement with examples.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Globalisation is the process in which countries become more connected with each other through trade, movement of people, and sharing of ideas and culture. For example, the Silk Routes joined Asia, Europe and Africa, carrying goods like silk, spices, gold and even religions like Buddhism. Later, new foods such as potatoes, maize and chillies travelled from the Americas to Europe and Asia, which changed the way people lived and ate.


Q8: Why was the silk route considered a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade? Choose the most appropriate option from the following:  (1 Mark)
(a) Due to movement of silk cargoes, 
(b) Due to flow of silver and gold, 
(c) Due to linkage of China with Australia, 
(d) Due to trade and cultural exchange

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) Due to trade and cultural exchange
The silk routes carried not only silk, pottery, spices, gold and silver but also spread religions and ideas, making them a good example of vibrant pre-modern trade and cultural exchange.


Q9: Why was the Indian subcontinent significant to trade networks before European intervention? Explain.  (2 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Indian subcontinent was central to trade networks before European intervention because it was the hub of the Indian Ocean trade. Goods, people, customs and knowledge regularly moved through its ports. India exported textiles and spices, and in return received precious metals like gold and silver, making it a crucial point in global trade flows.


Q10: For which of the following markets were cotton and sugar primarily exported from America in the 18th Century?  (1 Mark)
(a) For American Market, 
(b) For European Market, 
(c) For Asian Market, 
(d) For Australian Market

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) For European Market

By the eighteenth century, plantations in America, worked by African slaves, produced cotton and sugar mainly for export to European markets.


Q11: In the early years of the 19th century the production of which of the following food items brought about a fundamental change in the lives of poor people in Europe?  (1 Mark)
(a) Tomato,
(b) Potato, 
(c) Soya,
(d) Groundnut

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Potato

The potato became a staple food for Europe’s poor, helping them eat better and live longer, but over-dependence led to disaster during the Irish Potato Famine.


Q12: In the 17th century the city El Dorado in South America became famous as which one of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) City of Diversity, 
(b) City of Gold, 
(c) Smallpox City, 
(d) Trading City

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) City of Gold

In the seventeenth century, legends spread in Europe about South America’s fabled wealth, and expeditions set out in search of El Dorado, the mythical city of gold.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: “Buddhism emerged from eastern India and spread in several directions.” Read the following reasons for its spread and choose the correct option. 
(I) Due to Cultural exchange 
(II) Due to Silk route 
(III) Due to trade & travellers 
(IV) Due to European efforts (CBSE 2024)

Options: 

(a) Only (I) (II) and (IV ) are correct.
(b) Only (II) (III) and (IV ) are correct.
(c) Only (I) (II) and (III) are correct.
(d) Only (I) (III) and (IV ) are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

  • Buddhism spread due to cultural exchange, connecting with various cultures and belief systems.
  • The Silk Route facilitated the sharing of ideas and practices across different regions.
  • Trade and travellers played a significant role in propagating Buddhism, carrying its teachings to distant places.

Thus, the correct option is (c): Only (I), (II), and (III) are correct.

Q2: How did Europeans help in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century? Explain.    (CBSE 2024)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Europeans helped in the expansion of trade, knowledge and customs across European countries during mid-sixteenth century in the following ways:

(1) New wealth sources: In an effort to discover new wealth sources, nations engaged in mercantilism and colonialism.

(2) Discovery and colonisation: The 16thcentury discovery and colonisation of the Americas generated an era of economic growth known as the Commercial Revolution.

(3) Sea routes: European traders found a sea-route to Asia and an ocean-route to the Americas in the 16th century. South American mines producing silver and other precious metals made Europe’s trade with Asia feasible.

(4) New trade routes: Trade shifted from the Mediterranean and Italy to the nations bordering Europe’s Atlantic coast as trade routes between the colonies of the New World and Old World Europe expanded.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: How did the ‘smallpox’ prove as the most powerful weapon of the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century? Explain. (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Smallpox proved to be a deadly weapon for the Spanish conquerors in the mid-sixteenth century. This can be highlighted through the following points:

  • Once introduced, smallpox spread rapidly across the continent.
  • It decimated entire communities, making it easier for the Spanish to conquer.

Q4: There were three important developments that greatly shrank the pre-modern world. Identify the incorrect one from the following options:    (2023)  
(a) The flow of trade 
(b) The flow of labour 
(c) The flow of capital 
(d) The flow of technology

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

In the pre-modern world, the main factors that connected different regions were the flow of trade, labor, and capital. Technology was not yet a major global influence in shrinking distances and connecting the world at that time. Hence, the flow of technology is the incorrect option.

Q5: State the names and countries of the two hostile groups that turned against each other in the First World War.   (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The two hostile groups in the First World War were:

  • Allies: This group included BritainFrance, and Russia.
  • Central Powers: This group consisted of GermanyAustria-Hungary, and Ottoman Turkey.

Q6: Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option.

I. The Bretton Woods conference established the International Monetary Fund.
II. The Second World War broke out between the Axis and Allied groups.
III. A car manufacturer Henry Ford adopted the ‘Assembly Line Method’ for production.
IV. The Western economic organised themselves as a group – “The Group of 77”.    (2023) 
(a) III, II, I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV 
(c) IV, III, II and I
(d) IV, II, III and I 

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Ans: (a)

1. Henry Ford adopted the Assembly Line Method for production in 1913.

2. The Second World War broke out in 1939.

3. The Bretton Woods Conference, which established the International Monetary Fund (IMF), was held in 1944.

4. The Group of 77 was formed by developing countries in 1964 to promote their economic interests.

Q7: Differentiate between Fixed and Floating exchange rate.     (2023)  

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Ans: Fixed exchange rates mean that two currencies will always be exchanged at the same price, while floating exchange rates mean that the prices between each currency can change depending on market factors, primarily supply and demand.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q8: Explain any three effects of population growth in England in the later eighteenth century.     (2020) 

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Ans: 

  • Due to pressure from industrialists, the government was forced to remove corn laws, leading to the import of food in Britain.
  • The demand for food grains increased as urban centres expanded, putting pressure on the food supply.
  • The government restricted the import of corn by enacting corn laws, due to pressure from landed groups.

Q9: Explain the impact of the Great Depression on Indian weavers during the early twentieth century.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Great Depression had a profound impact on Indian weavers in the early twentieth century. 

Key effects included:

  • Increased conflict between weavers and Gomasthas (agents of British companies), as weavers protested against unfair practices and sought improved working conditions.
  • Weavers faced punishments for delays in delivering goods, which included fines and other penalties, worsening their financial struggles.
  • They lost the ability to bargain for prices and sell to various buyers, becoming more reliant on British companies that exploited their situation by offering low prices.
  • The prices paid by British companies for weavers’ products were extremely low, leading to a significant decline in their income and worsening economic conditions.
  • Many weavers, particularly in regions like Carnatic and Bengal, left their villages in search of better job opportunities.
  • Some weavers, along with local traders, revolted against the exploitative practices of British companies.
  • Due to these economic hardships, many weavers had to close their workshops, contributing to the decline of the traditional handloom industry.

Overall, the Great Depression severely impacted Indian weavers, intensifying their economic difficulties and leading to a decline in their industry.

Q10: Explain the role of Bretton Woods institutions in the post-Second World War settlement.    (2020) 

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Ans: The Bretton Woods institutions, including the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank, played a crucial role in the post-Second World War settlement.

Some key roles of these institutions are:

  • The Bretton Woods conference, held in 1944, aimed to establish a stable international monetary system after the war. The IMF and the World Bank were created as part of this effort.
  • The IMF was tasked with promoting global monetary cooperation, exchange rate stability, and providing financial assistance to member countries facing balance of payment problems.
  • The World Bank, officially known as the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD), was established to provide financial and technical assistance for the reconstruction and development of war-torn countries.
  • The IMF and the World Bank provided financial support to war-devastated countries, helping them rebuild their economies and infrastructure.
  • These institutions played a crucial role in facilitating international trade and economic growth by providing financial stability and promoting cooperation among member countries.
  • The IMF, through its surveillance and lending programs, helped stabilize exchange rates and provided financial assistance to member countries facing economic crises.
  • The World Bank provided long-term loans and technical assistance for infrastructure development, agriculture, and industrial projects in developing countries, contributing to their economic development.

Overall, the Bretton Woods institutions played a vital role in post-World War II settlement, supporting economic reconstruction, stability, and development in member countries.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q11: Explain any five effects of the abolition of the Corn Laws.    (2019C)  

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Ans: The abolition of the Corn Laws in Britain led to significant changes in the economy. 

Here are five key effects:

  • It resulted in cheaper grain imports, making food more affordable for consumers.
  • British farmers struggled to compete with these low-cost imports, leading to large areas of land becoming uncultivated and many people losing their jobs.
  • Increased industrialisation in Britain boosted food imports, with production rising in regions like Eastern Europe, Russia, America, and Australia.
  • The demand for food imports enhanced revenues and political power associated with land ownership.
  • As food prices fell, overall consumption in Britain increased, contributing to economic growth.

Q12: Indian trade had played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy.” Analyze the statement.    (2019) 

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Ans: Indian trade indeed played a crucial role in the late nineteenth-century world economy. Some key points to consider are:

  • India was a major exporter of raw materials to Britain, such as cotton, spices, and indigo. This trade helped fuel the British Industrial Revolution and supported the growth of British industries.
  • British companies flooded the Indian markets with their manufactured goods, leading to huge profits for the British. This trade relationship created a trade surplus for Britain while trading with India.
  • The trade surplus was used by Britain to pay for private remittances by British officials and to fund their colonial administration in India.
  • India also had significant trade with China, mainly in opium. This trade contributed to the global economy and played a role in the Opium Wars between Britain and China.
  • Additionally, thousands of Indian laborers migrated as indentured laborers to work on plantations, mines, and construction projects around the world. Their labor contributed to the economic development of various countries.

Overall, Indian trade had a significant impact on the global economy during the late nineteenth century, benefiting Britain and other countries involved in trade with India.

Q13: Describe the impact of ‘Rinderpest’ in Africa in the 1890s.    (AI 2019)  

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Ans: Rinderpest, also known as cattle plague, had a devastating impact on Africa in the 1890s. Some key impacts of Rinderpest in Africa are:

  • Rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880s, carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed Italian soldiers invading East Africa.
  • The disease spread rapidly across Africa, moving from east to west like a forest fire. By 1892, it had reached Africa’s Atlantic coast.
  • Rinderpest killed approximately 90% of the cattle it infected. This led to a massive loss of cattle, which was a vital source of livelihood for many Africans.
  • The loss of cattle destroyed African livelihoods, as people who relied on cattle for milk, meat, and transportation were left without these essential resources.
  • As a result of the loss of their cattle-based livelihoods, many Africans were forced to work for wages in order to survive. This had a significant impact on the economy and labor dynamics in Africa.
  • The colonial government took advantage of the situation and forced Africans into the labor market, providing cheap labor for colonial needs.

In summary, Rinderpest had a devastating impact on Africa, leading to the loss of cattle-based livelihoods and the forced entry of Africans into the labor market.

Q14: Describe the condition of indentured labour that migrated from India during the nineteenth century.    (2019)  

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Ans: The condition of indentured laborers who migrated from India during the nineteenth century was characterized by various hardships and exploitative practices. Some key aspects of their conditions are:

  • Indentured laborers were often recruited through deceptive practices. Agents would provide false information about the nature of work, living conditions, final destinations, and modes of travel, tempting poor individuals into migrating.
  • In some cases, less willing workers were forcibly abducted by the agents and taken to the plantations against their will.
  • Once on the plantations, the working conditions were harsh, and the laborers had few legal rights. They were subjected to long working hours, physical labor, and poor living conditions.
  • Punishments, including beatings and imprisonment, were common for laborers who failed to meet the demanding tasks or attempted to escape their jobs.
  • Medical attention provided to the laborers was often nominal, and wages were deducted for absences or failure to fulfill tasks.
  • The laborers faced various forms of exploitation, including low wages, debt bondage, and limited opportunities for social mobility.

Overall, the indentured laborers faced challenging conditions characterized by exploitation, deception, and harsh working and living conditions.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q15: Why did big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885?    (2018)  

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Ans: They met in Berlin in 1885 to partition Africa among themselves. 

Q16: “Food offers many examples of long-distance cultural exchange.” Support your answer with three examples.    (CBSE 2016-17,2018)

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Ans: 

  • Travellers and traders introduced new crops to the lands they travelled. For example, noodles travelled west from China to become spaghetti.
  • Arab traders took pasta to fifth century Sicily (Italy). Similar foods were known to the Indians and Japanese people. Thus, there was long-distance cultural contact even in the premodern world.
  • Potatoes, maize, tomatoes, chillies etc., were not known in India until about five centuries ago. These were introduced in Europe and Asia after the discovery of the Americas by Christopher Columbus.
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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q17: Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.    (2017)  

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Ans: 

  • A rise in food prices due to a year of bad harvest left the country poorer.
  • The ratio of the rise in population was larger than that of employment generation, leading to overcrowded slums.
  • Peasants suffered under the burden of feudal dues and obligations in some regions of Europe.
  • Unhappy with high food prices, urban dwellers and industrialists forced the abolition of the Corn Laws.

Q18: Elucidate any three factors that led to the Great Depression.    (2017, 2016)  

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Ans: 

  • Agricultural overproduction remained a problem, which was made worse by falling agricultural prices.
  • As prices slumped and agricultural incomes declined, farmers tried to expand production, leading to a large volume of produce flooding the market and pushing down prices.
  • Many countries financed their investments through loans from the US in the mid-1920s, but the withdrawal of these loans led to a crisis, including the failure of small major banks and the collapse of currencies such as the British Pound Sterling.

Q19: Describe the contribution of indentured labourers towards the cultural fusion in the emerging global world.   (2017, 2014)

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Ans: 

Indentured laborers made significant contributions towards cultural fusion in the emerging global world. Their experiences and interactions with different cultures led to the blending of various cultural forms. Some examples of their contributions are:

  • Indentured laborers lived and worked in harsh conditions, which forced them to seek avenues of comfort and relaxation. This resulted in the blending of different cultural forms, creating new cultural expressions.
  • In Trinidad, for example, the annual Muharram procession was transformed into a riotous carnival called ‘Hosay,’ in which workers of all races and religions participated.
  • The development of “Chutney music” in Trinidad and Guyana is another creative expression of the post-indenture experience, blending Indian musical traditions with Caribbean influences.
  • The protest religion of Rastafarianism is also said to reflect social and cultural links with Indian migrants to the Caribbean, suggesting a fusion of Indian and Afro-Caribbean cultural elements.

These examples highlight how the indentured laborers’ experiences and interactions contributed to the fusion of different cultural forms in the emerging global world.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q20: Why did Europeans flee to America in the 19th century? Give three reasons. (CBSE 2016) 

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Ans: Europeans fled to America in the 19th century because: 

(1) Europeans were facing problems of poverty and hunger. Economic opportunities were limited to a very high population. America had lesser competition. 

(2) Hunger, deadly diseases and religious conflicts were causing a lot of deaths. Europeans fled to America to save their lives. 

(3) Since America was not developed by the time, hungry Europeans fled to assert their power over Americans to earn more money.

Q21: Explain the three impacts of the First World War on the British economy.    (2016)  

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  • After the war, Britain found it difficult to recapture its earlier position of dominance in the colonial market.
  • The war resulted in huge external debts for Britain as it had borrowed money from the US to finance its war expenditures.
  • The increase in demand, production, and employment during the war was followed by a reduction in bloated war expenditures, leading to job losses. In 1921, one in every five British workers was unemployed.

Q22: Why do multinational companies (MNCs) choose China as an alternative location for investment? Explain the statement.    (2016) 

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Ans: 

  • Since the revolution in 1949, China gradually emerged in the field of world economy and attracted foreign MNCs due to its economic structure.
  • Wages in China are relatively low compared to other countries, making it an attractive location for investment.
  • China has the largest population, providing a larger consumer base for multinational companies.

Q23: Why did the industrialists and people living in cities of Britain force the government to abolish Corn Laws in the 18th century? Give two reasons.    (AI 2016) 

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Ans:

  • Most industrialists and landlords did not support Corn Laws as they hindered free trade.
  • The population in Britain was growing, leading to increased demand for food grains. The rising food prices caused social unrest and forced the government to abolish the Corn Laws.

Q24: “Trade and cultural exchange always went hand in hand.” Explain the statement in the light of silk routes.    (2016) 

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Ans: 

  • The silk routes are a good example of vibrant premodern trade and cultural links between distant parts of the world.
  • The name ‘silk routes’ points to the importance of west-bound Chinese silk cargoes along this route, as well as the flow of precious metals from Europe to Asia.
  • Chinese potteries, textiles from China, and spices from India were traded along the silk routes.
  • Various food items also offer very good examples of long-distance cultural exchanges, as Christian missionaries, Muslim preachers, and Buddhist monks traveled through this route.

Q25: After the 19th century, how did the indentured labourers discover their own ways of survival? Explain.     (2016) 

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Ans: After the 19th century, indentured labourers found various ways to survive in difficult conditions. 

Their adaptations included:

  • Developing new forms of self-expression, blending traditional and modern cultural elements.
  • Transforming the Muharram procession in Trinidad into a lively carnival known as ‘Hosay’, which included participants from all races and religions.
  • Creating the protest religion of Rastafarianism, reflecting cultural connections between Indian migrants and Afro-Caribbean communities.
  • Learning new skills and utilising their existing knowledge to adapt to their new environments and economic conditions.
  • Establishing businesses or engaging in small-scale entrepreneurship to enhance their economic prospects.
  • Forming close-knit communities that provided mutual support, fostering a sense of belonging and shared cultural identity.

These strategies enabled indentured labourers to navigate their challenging circumstances and create new opportunities in the post-indenture period.

Q26: Describe any five factors that led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalisation.     (2016) 

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Ans: Several factors contributed to the end of the Bretton Woods System and the beginning of globalization. 

Here are five key factors:

  • Decline in the economic power of the United States: The US dollar, which was central to the Bretton Woods System, lost its value in relation to gold. This decline eroded confidence in the US dollar and the fixed exchange rate system, leading to the collapse of fixed exchange rates and the shift towards floating exchange rates.
  • Change in international finance: The creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank under the Bretton Woods System significantly transformed the international financial system. However, by the 1970s, the international financial landscape had changed, and developing countries were increasingly forced to borrow from western commercial banks rather than relying solely on the IMF and World Bank. This shift in international finance had implications for the Bretton Woods System.
  • Unemployment in industrialized countries: Industrialized countries faced a rise in unemployment during the 1970s. This increased unemployment led to social and economic problems and contributed to a loss of confidence in the Bretton Woods System.
  • Shifting production enterprises: Multinational corporations (MNCs) began shifting their production units to Asian countries, attracted by abundant labor and low wages. This shift in production contributed to the decline of industrialized countries’ economies and the emergence of new economic centers in Asia.
  • Changes in China: China’s economic reforms and opening up to the global market had a profound impact on the global economy. China became an attractive destination for foreign investment, and its economic rise contributed to the transformation of the global economic landscape.

These factors, among others, led to the end of the Bretton Woods System and marked the beginning of globalization, characterized by a shift in economic power, changing financial dynamics, and the emergence of new global economic players.

Also read: NCERT Summary: The Making of Global World

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q27: The Spanish conquest and colonisation in America were decisively underway by the mid-sixteenth century. Explain with examples. (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: The Portuguese and the Spanish conquered America through the introduction of a lethal biological weapon in the form of germs of smallpox. 

This can be explained as follows: 

(1) Smallpox was carried to America on their person and introduced among the nonimmune Americans. 

(2) The Americans caught the disease which led to the destruction of most of their community. 

(3) The European and the Spanish invaders were both immune to this disease. 

(4) Americans could not turn this weapon back upon their invaders unlike the conventional weapons.

02. Previous Year Questions: Nationalism in India

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Explain the role of anti-colonial movement in the rise of ‘modern nationalism’ in India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The rise of modern nationalism in India was linked to the anti-colonial movement, as people discovered their unity in the struggle against British oppression. The shared sense of being exploited tied many diverse groups together, and though their experiences and ideas of freedom were different, this collective struggle gave birth to the feeling of nationalism.


Q2: Why did Gandhiji say ‘Satyagraha is pure soul-force’? Explain by giving two arguments.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Gandhiji said “Satyagraha is pure soul-force” because it emphasised the power of truth and non-violence. First, a satyagrahi does not use physical force or seek to harm the adversary but appeals to the conscience of the oppressor. Second, it is based on truth, love and non-violence, which Gandhiji believed was the supreme dharma that could unite all Indians.


Q3: “Tribal peasants interpreted the message of Mahatma Gandhi and the idea of ‘Swaraj’ in yet another way.” Explain the statement in the context of Non-Cooperation Movement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Tribal peasants interpreted Gandhiji’s message of swaraj in their own way during the Non-Cooperation Movement:

  1. In the Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh, they opposed restrictions on entering forests, grazing cattle, and collecting fuelwood and fruits, and resisted begar for road building.
  2. Alluri Sitaram Raju led them, claiming divine powers, and inspired people to wear khadi and give up drinking, but he believed swaraj could only be achieved through force.
  3. The tribals carried out guerrilla warfare, attacking police stations and officials, showing that for them swaraj meant regaining their traditional rights and livelihoods, not strictly Gandhiji’s non-violence.


Q4: “Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj.” Support the statement in context of plantation workers of Assam.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Plantation workers in Assam understood Gandhiji and swaraj in their own way:

  1. For them, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the plantations and to keep contact with their villages.
  2. Bound by the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, they were not allowed to leave without permission, which was rarely granted.
  3. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands left the plantations believing that Gandhi Raj was coming and they would get land in their villages, but most were stranded, caught by the police, and beaten up.


Q5: Two places ‘A’ and ‘B’ have been marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them with the help of the following information and write their correct names on the lines drawn near them:  (2 Marks)

A. The place where the session of Indian National Congress was held in 1920.

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Ans: A is Nagpur

The Indian National Congress held its session in Nagpur in December 1920, where the Non-Cooperation Movement was formally adopted, and Gandhi’s resolution for Swaraj was passed.

B. The place where Gandhiji started Dandi March.

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Ans: B is Sabarmati (Ahmedabad)
Gandhi began the Dandi Salt March on March 12, 1930, from his Sabarmati Ashram in Ahmedabad, Gujarat, to protest the British salt monopoly by marching to Dandi to make salt.


Q6: How did reinterpretation of history become a means of creating a sense of nationalism by the end of the 19th century in India? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: By the end of the nineteenth century, Indians began to reinterpret history to instill pride and a sense of nationalism. They highlighted India’s glorious achievements in ancient times in fields like art, science, religion and trade, and contrasted this with the decline under colonial rule. This reinterpretation helped people see themselves as part of a great civilisation and inspired them to struggle against British domination.


Q7: How did symbols and icons contribute to creating a feeling of nationalism among the people in the national movement of India? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Symbols and icons helped people identify with the nation and feel united. The image of Bharat Mata, created first by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay and later painted by Abanindranath Tagore, became a symbol of devotion to the motherland. Similarly, the tricolour flag with the spinning wheel designed by Gandhiji represented self-help and defiance. Carrying these symbols in processions inspired collective belonging and strengthened the feeling of nationalism.


Q8: Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? Analyse any three reasons.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement because:

  1. The movement had begun to turn violent in many places, which went against the principle of non-violence.
  2. At Chauri Chaura in Gorakhpur (1922), a peaceful demonstration turned violent when protesters clashed with police and set a police station on fire.
  3. Gandhiji felt that satyagrahis needed to be properly trained in non-violence before launching such mass struggles again.


Q9: Analyse the role of women in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Women played an active role in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  1. During Gandhiji’s Salt March, thousands of women came out of their homes, joined protest marches, manufactured salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops.
  2. Many women, both from high-caste urban families and rich peasant households in rural areas, went to jail for participating.
  3. They viewed service to the nation as a sacred duty, though the Congress largely limited their role to symbolic presence and did not allow them positions of real authority.


Q10: Analyse the role of peasant communities in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Peasant communities played a significant role in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  1. Rich peasants like the Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh supported it enthusiastically, as they were badly hit by the Depression and unable to pay high revenue demands.
  2. They organised their communities and joined boycott programmes, but were disappointed when revenue rates were not revised, so many withdrew when the movement restarted in 1932.
  3. Poorer peasants, mostly small tenants, wanted unpaid rent to landlords remitted; they often joined radical movements, but the Congress avoided full support to ‘no rent’ campaigns, leading to an uncertain relationship with them.


Q11: “The ideas of nationalism developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore.” Explain the statement in the context of the national movement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The ideas of nationalism were strengthened through the revival of Indian folklore:

  1. Nationalists believed that folk tales, songs, and legends reflected the true culture of the people, which had been corrupted by foreign rule.
  2. Leaders like Rabindranath Tagore collected ballads, nursery rhymes and myths in Bengal, while Natesa Sastri in Madras published The Folklore of Southern India, preserving Tamil tales.
  3. This revival helped restore pride in India’s past, created a sense of shared culture, and inspired unity in the struggle for freedom.


Q12: Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:  (1 Marks)
I. Bardoli Satyagraha, 
II. Rowlatt Satyagraha, 
III. Champaran Satyagraha, 
IV. Kheda Satyagraha.
(a) I, II, III, IV, 
(b) III, II, I, IV, 
(c) II, I, IV, III, 
(d) III, IV, II, I

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Ans: (d) III, IV, II, I

  • III. Champaran Satyagraha (1917) → IV. Kheda Satyagraha (1917) → II. Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) → I. Bardoli Satyagraha (1928).


Q13: Mention any two economic impacts of the First World War on India.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The First World War created a new economic situation in India:

  1. There was a huge increase in defence expenditure, financed by war loans and higher taxes, including customs duties and income tax.
  2. Prices doubled between 1913 and 1918, leading to extreme hardship for common people.


Q14: Analyse the impacts of Gandhi-Irwin Pact on the Indian freedom struggle.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Gandhi-Irwin Pact of 1931 had important impacts on the freedom struggle:

  1. Gandhiji agreed to participate in the Round Table Conference in London, ending the boycott of constitutional discussions by the Congress.
  2. The government, in return, released political prisoners and relaxed certain restrictions, giving temporary relief to the national movement.
  3. However, the negotiations in London broke down, and on returning, Gandhiji found renewed repression; though the pact gave recognition to Congress, it also showed the limits of British willingness to grant real concessions.


Q15: Analyse the role of Alluri Sitaram Raju in the Indian National Movement.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: Alluri Sitaram Raju played a remarkable role in mobilising tribal peasants during the Non-Cooperation Movement:

  1. He led the Gudem Hills tribal revolt in Andhra Pradesh against forest restrictions and forced begar for road building.
  2. Raju inspired the tribals by claiming special powers like healing, predicting, and surviving bullet shots, and was seen as an incarnation of God.
  3. While he praised Gandhiji and urged people to wear khadi and give up drinking, he believed swaraj could only be achieved by armed struggle. He led guerrilla warfare, attacking police stations and officials, before being captured and executed in 1924, becoming a folk hero.


(The Following Question is for Visually Impaired Candidates)
Q16: Who amongst the following organised the ‘Depressed Class Association’ in 1930?  (1 Mark)
(a) B.L. Yadav, 
(b) C.R. Das, 
(c) M.R. Jayeker, 
(d) B.R. Ambedkar

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Ans: (d) B.R. Ambedkar

  • The Depressed Classes Association in 1930 was organised by B.R. Ambedkar.


Q17: Explain with examples the significance of the Non-Cooperation Movement in the Indian national movement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Non-Cooperation Movement (1920–22) was highly significant in the Indian national movement as it marked the first mass struggle under Gandhiji’s leadership and brought diverse groups together.

  1. Mass participation in towns: Students left government schools, teachers resigned, lawyers gave up practice, and foreign cloth was boycotted. The import of foreign cloth fell drastically, and Indian production increased.
  2. Peasant struggles: In Awadh, peasants led by Baba Ramchandra demanded reduction of rent, abolition of begar, and attacked landlords. The Oudh Kisan Sabha was formed under Jawaharlal Nehru and Baba Ramchandra to channelise their grievances.
  3. Tribal revolts: In the Gudem Hills, Alluri Sitaram Raju mobilised tribals against forest restrictions and forced labour, blending Gandhiji’s message with guerrilla warfare.
  4. Plantation workers: In Assam, workers defied the Inland Emigration Act, left plantations, and believed Gandhi Raj would give them land and freedom.
  5. National impact: Though Gandhiji withdrew the movement after Chauri Chaura violence, it had already spread nationalism to the countryside, involving peasants, tribals, workers and urban middle classes, making the struggle against British rule truly broad-based.

Thus, the Non-Cooperation Movement united Indians from different sections of society and gave the national movement its first real mass character.


Q18: How did the Civil Disobedience Movement become a mass movement? Explain with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement (1930) became a mass movement as it drew participation from different social groups across the country, each linking their struggles to the larger cause of swaraj.

  1. Salt March and breaking of colonial laws: Gandhi’s Dandi March turned salt into a symbol of resistance. People across India broke the salt law, boycotted foreign cloth, picketed liquor shops, and refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.
  2. Rich peasants: Communities like the Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh, badly hit by the Depression and unable to pay high revenue, became enthusiastic supporters and organised their communities.
  3. Poor peasants: Small tenants demanded the remission of unpaid rent to landlords. Although Congress did not fully support them, many joined radical movements during the campaign.
  4. Business classes: Industrialists like G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas supported the movement, providing funds and backing the boycott of foreign goods, hoping for protection from colonial restrictions.
  5. Women’s participation: Thousands of women came out of homes for the first time, joined marches, manufactured salt, picketed foreign shops, and many went to jail, seeing service to the nation as a sacred duty.

Thus, the Civil Disobedience Movement became a truly mass movement by uniting peasants, workers, women, and business groups in the fight against colonial rule.


Q19: Explain the role of Gandhiji in the Non-Cooperation Movement with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi played the central role in shaping and leading the Non-Cooperation Movement, making it the first nationwide mass struggle.

  1. Introduction of Satyagraha: After returning from South Africa, Gandhiji introduced satyagraha, emphasising truth and non-violence as powerful weapons against injustice. He had already led successful movements at Champaran (1917) for indigo peasants, Kheda (1917) for revenue reduction, and Ahmedabad (1918) among mill workers, which gave him credibility.
  2. Rowlatt Satyagraha: In 1919, Gandhiji organised a satyagraha against the Rowlatt Act, which led to protests and culminated in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre. This convinced him of the need for a broader movement.
  3. Alliance with Khilafat Movement: Gandhiji saw the Khilafat issue as an opportunity to unite Hindus and Muslims, and at the Calcutta Session of Congress in 1920, he convinced leaders to adopt Non-Cooperation.
  4. Programme of Non-Cooperation: Gandhiji urged surrender of titles, boycott of foreign goods, schools, law courts, legislative councils, and government institutions, while promoting swadeshi, khadi, and village industries.
  5. Leadership during unrest: When violence broke out, such as at Chauri Chaura (1922) where protesters burnt a police station, Gandhiji immediately withdrew the movement, showing his commitment to non-violence.

Thus, Gandhiji’s vision of non-violent struggle, his ability to mobilise diverse groups, and his insistence on discipline made him the guiding force of the Non-Cooperation Movement.


Q20: How did the Civil Disobedience Movement able to bring all communities together in India? Explain with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement became a broad-based struggle that drew in different communities, each relating swaraj to their own needs, thereby creating a united national movement.

  1. Salt March as a unifying symbol: Gandhiji chose salt, an item used by both rich and poor, to launch the movement, making it a powerful symbol of resistance against British rule.
  2. Peasants: Rich peasants like the Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh supported the movement against high revenue demands, while poorer peasants wanted remission of rent to landlords.
  3. Business classes: Industrialists such as G.D. Birla and Purshottamdas Thakurdas backed the movement, hoping swaraj would end colonial restrictions on trade and industry.
  4. Women: Thousands of women, both from urban high-caste families and rural peasant households, came out in large numbers, joining marches, manufacturing salt, picketing shops, and even going to jail.
  5. Workers and tribals: Though industrial workers did not participate in large numbers, some joined strikes and protests. Tribals and forest people broke forest laws, relating swaraj to regaining traditional rights.

Thus, by addressing the grievances of peasants, workers, business groups, women and tribals, the Civil Disobedience Movement was able to bring all communities together into a common struggle against colonial rule.


Q21: How did Gandhiji’s Salt March mobilize people across different strata against British rule? Explain with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Gandhiji’s Salt March of 1930 turned into a powerful movement that mobilised Indians from diverse social backgrounds against British rule.

  1. Symbol of salt: By choosing salt, a basic necessity consumed by all, Gandhiji made the struggle relatable to both the rich and the poor, showing the most oppressive face of colonialism.
  2. Mass participation: After Gandhiji’s symbolic act of making salt at Dandi, thousands across India broke the salt law, manufactured salt, and demonstrated before government salt depots.
  3. Peasants: Many refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, while village officials resigned, linking their economic hardships to the demand for swaraj.
  4. Workers and tribals: Forest people violated forest laws by entering Reserved Forests to collect wood and graze cattle; in cities like Sholapur, workers attacked symbols of British authority after Gandhiji’s arrest.
  5. Women: Thousands of women came out of their homes for the first time, joined marches, made salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops, seeing participation as a sacred duty.

Thus, the Salt March successfully united people across different strata of society—peasants, tribals, workers, women, and business classes—making the Civil Disobedience Movement a truly nationwide struggle against British rule.


Q22: “History, fiction, folklore, songs, popular prints and symbols developed the sense of collective belonging in Indians during the 19th century.” Explain the statement with examples.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: In the 19th century, Indians began to feel a sense of unity and belonging through history, songs, stories, symbols and prints which made them think of themselves as one nation.

  1. Bharat Mata: Bankim Chandra wrote Vande Mataram and Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata as a mother figure. Later, many prints showed her with symbols of power, and people saw devotion to her as proof of nationalism.
  2. Folk traditions: Leaders collected folk tales, songs and legends to protect Indian culture. Rabindranath Tagore collected ballads in Bengal, and Natesa Sastri published The Folklore of Southern India.
  3. Nationalist flag: During the Swadeshi movement a tricolour flag was designed, and later Gandhiji made another flag with a spinning wheel to show self-reliance.
  4. History writing: Indians rewrote their history to highlight the greatness of ancient India in art, science and trade, and to oppose the British view that Indians were backward.
  5. Popular prints and songs: Pictures of leaders like Tilak and Nehru with Bharat Mata and patriotic songs helped spread nationalist feelings among ordinary people.

So, through history, folklore, songs, symbols and images, Indians developed a common feeling of belonging to one nation.


Q23: How did ‘salt’ become a powerful weapon to unite the country in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Explain any two causes.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: Salt became a powerful weapon in the Civil Disobedience Movement because:

  • Common need: Salt was used by everyone, rich or poor, so the tax on it showed the unfairness of British rule and touched all sections of society.
  • Symbol of oppression: The government’s monopoly on salt production and its tax became a clear sign of colonial exploitation, making it an easy symbol to unite people against the British.


Q24: Analyse three main impacts of Non-Cooperation Movement on the economic front.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Non-Cooperation Movement had important effects on the economic front:

  1. Boycott of foreign goods: People stopped using foreign cloth, liquor shops were picketed, and foreign goods were burnt in public bonfires.
  2. Fall in imports: The import of foreign cloth was reduced by half, from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore between 1921 and 1922.
  3. Rise in Indian production: As people shifted to Indian products, the demand for khadi, handloom and Indian mill cloth increased, boosting local industries.


Q25: Why did the Non-Cooperation Movement start slowing down in the cities? Analyse three causes.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The Non-Cooperation Movement in cities began to slow down because:

  1. High price of khadi: Khadi cloth was costlier than mill cloth, so poor people could not afford it for long.
  2. Lack of alternatives: To replace British institutions, new Indian schools and courts were needed, but these came up very slowly, making it hard for students and lawyers to continue the boycott.
  3. Return to government institutions: As a result, many students and teachers went back to government schools and lawyers resumed work in British courts.


Q26: Arrange the following historical events in chronological order and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)
I. Second Round Table Conference, 
II. Simon Commission arrives in India, 
III. Beginning of Dandi March, 
IV. Incident of Chauri-Chaura.
(a) I, II, III, IV, 
(b) IV, II, III, I, 
(c) IV, II, I, III, 
(d) I, II, IV, III

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Ans: (b) IV, II, III, I

IV. Chauri-Chaura (1922) → II. Simon Commission (1928) → III. Dandi March (1930) → I. Second Round Table Conference (1931).

Correct option: (b) IV, II, III, I


Q27: How did Indians react to the Jallianwala Bagh massacre? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The Jallianwala Bagh massacre shocked and angered Indians deeply. People came out on the streets in many north Indian towns, went on strikes, clashed with police, and attacked government buildings. The British replied with brutal repression—satyagrahis were humiliated, flogged, and villages near Gujranwala were even bombed—showing how the massacre turned public resentment into widespread protest against colonial rule.


Q28: Read the following source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 Marks)
The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January 1930

“We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We also believe that if any government deprives people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.”

(i) Why was Swaraj considered as an inalienable right of the India?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: Swaraj was considered an inalienable right because Indians, like all people, had the natural right to enjoy freedom, the fruits of their labour, and opportunities for growth.

(ii) Which type of government is supported in the source?  (1 Mark)

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Ans: The source supports a democratic government where people have the power to alter or abolish an oppressive rule.

(iii) Explain any two effects of British rule in India.  (2 Mark)

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Ans: Two effects of British rule in India were:

  • It led to economic exploitation, ruining India’s industries and agriculture.
  • It also caused political, cultural and spiritual decline, by denying Indians freedom and imposing foreign control.


Q29: Why was the Rowlatt Act opposed in India? Explain.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: The Rowlatt Act (1919) was opposed because it gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities and allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years. Indians saw it as unjust and repressive, and Gandhiji called for a non-violent satyagraha against it.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Arrange the following events of Indian National Movement in chronological order and choose the correct option.

(I) Formation of Swaraj Party

(II) Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress

(III) Gandhi-Irwin Pact

(IV) Formation of Depressed Class Association     (CBSE 2024)

(a) (II), (III), (I) and (IV )

(b) (I), (II), (IV ) and (III)

(c) (I), (III), (II) and (IV )

(d) (IV ), (III), (II) and (I)

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Ans: (b)

(1) Formation of Swaraj Party: 1 January 1923 

(2) Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress: 31 December 1929 

(3) Formation of Depressed Class Association: August 1930 

(4) Gandhi-Irwin Pact: 5 March 1931

Q2: “There were variety of cultural processes through which Indian Nationalism captured people’s imagination.” Explain the statement with examples.     (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Many cultural developments that caught the Indian people’s attention had an impact on the rise of Indian Nationalism in the late 19th and early 20th centuries were:

(1) Cultural Renaissance Movements: In an effort to challenge colonial cultural hegemony, a number of cultural revival movements have developed throughout India to support indigenous customs, languages, and creations of art.

(2) Poetry and Writing: Indian poetry and writing contributed significantly to the uprising against colonial rule and the advancement of nationalist ideas. Poets and writers like Subramania Bharati, Rabindranath Tagore, and Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay used their writing to encourage a sense of solidarity among Indians as well as sentiments of patriotism and pride in Indian culture. For example, the song “Vande Mataram”.

(3) Historical Narratives: In an effort to invalidate colonial narratives that depicted Indians as inferior and backward, historians and intellectuals reinterpreted Indian history to emphasise the accomplishments and contributions of Indian civilisation.

(4) Popular Culture and Mass Mobilisation: Famous nationalists such as Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Mahatma Gandhi used public speeches, cultural events, and large-scale gatherings to gain popular support for their cause and stoke opposition to colonial rule.

(5) Religious and Social Reform Movements: The ideas of social equality, religious tolerance, and human dignity were highlighted by religious and social reform movements like the Arya Samaj, Brahmo Samaj, and the movements headed by personalities like Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Mahatma Gandhi.

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q3: Explain the implications of the ‘First World War’ on the economic and political situation of India.    (2023, Al 2019)

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Ans: The First World War had significant implications for India’s economic and political landscape:

  • Increased defence budget: The war led to higher defence spending, which was financed through loans.
  • Rising prices: Shortages caused prices to double between 1913 and 1918, resulting in hardship for many.
  • Higher taxes: Customs duties and taxes were raised, contributing to the cost of living.
  • Forced recruitment: Many were compelled to join the army, leading to widespread discontent.
  • Food shortages: Crop failures resulted in acute shortages of food items.
  • Epidemic spread: An influenza epidemic caused the death of millions.

These factors fostered a sense of anger and frustration among the Indian populace, setting the stage for future movements for independence.

Q4:  “Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.” Examine the statement in the context of the Civil Disobedience Movement.      (2023)

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Ans:

  • Mahatma Gandhi found salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31st January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating wide-ranging eleven demands.
  • All classes of Indian society identified with the broad-ranging demands. The most stirring of all was the demand to abolish the salt tax.
  • Salt was something consumed by the rich and the poor alike, and it was one of the most essential items of food. The tax on salt and the government monopoly over its production revealed the most oppressive face of British rule.
  • In the Dandi march, the volunteers walked for 24 days, about 10 miles a day. Thousands came to hear Mahatma Gandhi wherever he stopped, and he told them what he meant by swaraj and urged them to peacefully defy the British.
  • On 6th April, he reached Dandi and ceremonially violated the law by manufacturing salt from boiling seawater. This marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement.
  • People were now asked not only to refuse cooperation with the British, as they had done in 1921-22, but also to break colonial laws.
  • Thousands of people broke the salt law in different parts of the country, manufactured salt, and demonstrated in front of government salt factories.
  • As the movement spread, foreign cloth was boycotted, and liquor shops were picketed. Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes, village officials resigned, and in many places, forest people violated forest laws.

Q5:  Examine the progress of the Civil Disobedience Movement among different strata of society.    (2023)

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Ans: The following points analyse the progress made by different strata of society in the civil disobedience movement:

  • Rich Peasants: Their demand for a reduction in revenue was refused. For them, the fight for Swaraj was the fight against high revenue.
  • Poor Peasants: Economic depression made it very difficult for them to pay rent to the landlords. Congress did not support them in the rent campaign fearing that it would upset the rich farmers. 
  • Business Community: Their demand was for protection against exports and a fixed exchange ratio. To protect their business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.
  • Workers: As the Congress was seen as close to the industrialists, the workers did not participate in the movement except in Nagpur. 
  • Women: There was large-scale participation of women in the Civil Disobedience Movement. They participated in the Salt March and other protest marches. They participated in picketing of foreign cloth and liquor shops.

Q6: Analyse the role of folklore and symbols in the revival of nationalism in India during the late 19th century.     (2023)

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Ans: The role of folklore and symbols played a significant role in the revival of nationalism in India during the late 19th century. 

  • Folklore, songs, popular prints, and symbols served as powerful tools to mobilize and unite the Indian masses against British colonial rule. They helped in creating a sense of collective identity, pride, and resistance among the people.
  • Folklore, which includes folk tales, legends, and myths, played a crucial role in shaping the nationalist sentiment. These stories often highlighted the valour, bravery, and sacrifice of Indian heroes and warriors, instilling a sense of pride and nationalism among the people. 
  • They also emphasized the rich cultural heritage and history of India, reinforcing the idea of an independent and glorious past.
  • Songs and ballads, another form of folklore, were widely used to spread nationalist ideas and mobilize the masses. 
  • Nationalist poets and musicians composed songs that expressed the aspirations and struggles of the Indian people. These songs not only served as a medium of protest but also helped in creating a sense of unity and solidarity among the diverse Indian population.
  • Popular prints, such as posters and images, also played a significant role in shaping nationalist sentiment. These prints depicted iconic figures like Rani Lakshmibai, Bhagat Singh, and Mahatma Gandhi, who became symbols of resistance and inspiration for the people. They were widely circulated and displayed, serving as visual reminders of the nationalist struggle and invoking a sense of pride and determination.
  • Symbols, such as the national flag, the spinning wheel, and the slogan “Vande Mataram,” became powerful representations of the nationalist movement. They were used to rally support and create a sense of collective identity among the people. The national flag, with its tricolour and the charkha, became a symbol of unity and freedom, while “Vande Mataram” became a rallying cry for the nationalist cause.

In conclusion, folklore and symbols played a crucial role in the revival of nationalism in India during the late 19th century. They helped in creating a sense of collective identity, pride, and resistance among the Indian masses, mobilizing them against British colonial rule. Folklore, songs, popular prints, and symbols served as powerful tools to spread nationalist ideas and inspire the people to fight for their independence.

Q7: Analyse the ways through which people of different communities developed a sense of collective belonging in India.  (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: People belonging to different communities, region and language groups in India develop a sense of collective belonging by the following ways: 

(1) The identity of the nation was allegorised and symbolised with the image of Bharat Mata. 

(2) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland and was included in his novel Ananda Math. 

(3) Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Abanindranath Tagore painted Bharat Mata and portrayed it as an ascetic figure; in which she is calm, composed, divine and spiritual. 

(4) Ideas of nationalism also developed through a movement to revive Indian folklore. 

(5) Icons and literary symbols played a significant role in unifying people and inspired them with a feeling of nationalism.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q8: Mention any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement.   (Term-ll, 2021-22 C)

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement was sparked by several key events. 

Two significant causes include:

  • Simon Commission: The formation of the Simon Commission, which had no Indian members, was seen as a direct insult to the Indian people and their aspirations for self-governance.
  • Lala Lajpat Rai’s Death: The brutal beating of Lala Lajpat Rai by police during a protest against the Simon Commission led to widespread outrage and intensified calls for mass civil disobedience.

Q9: “Mahatma Gandhi launched a more broad-based movement in India by joining Khilafat Andolan.” Explain the statement with any three arguments in the context of the Non-Cooperation Movement.    (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi’s decision to join the Khilafat Andolan played a crucial role in broadening the scope and appeal of the Non-Cooperation Movement in India. Here are three arguments explaining this statement:

  • Unity among different religious communities: The Khilafat Andolan was launched by Indian Muslims to protest against the British government’s treatment of the Caliphate in Turkey. By supporting this movement, Gandhi aimed to create a united front of Hindus and Muslims against British rule. This helped in fostering communal harmony and strengthening the non-cooperation movement.
  • Expansion of the movement to rural areas: The Khilafat Andolan had a significant impact in rural areas, where the influence of religious leaders was strong. By aligning with the Khilafat cause, Gandhi was able to mobilize support and participation from the rural population, thus expanding the reach of the non-cooperation movement beyond urban centres.
  • Increased participation of youth and students: The Khilafat Andolan resonated strongly with the youth and students of India, who were deeply concerned about the fate of their fellow Muslims in Turkey. Gandhi’s association with the Khilafat cause attracted a large number of young people to join the non-cooperation movement, bringing fresh energy and enthusiasm to the protests.

Q10: “The effects of the Non-Cooperation Movement on the economic front were more dramatic’’. Support the statement with examples.  (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: The Non-Cooperation Movement had significant effects on the economic front in India. The statement that the effects were more dramatic can be supported by the following examples:

  • Boycott of foreign goods: As part of the non-cooperation movement, there was a widespread boycott of foreign goods. This led to a significant decrease in the import of foreign clothes between 1921 and 1922. The value of imported foreign clothes dropped from Rs. 102 crores to Rs. 57 crores during this period.
  • Picketing of liquor shops: The movement also involved the picketing of liquor shops, which were seen as symbols of British influence and exploitation. This led to a decrease in the consumption of foreign liquor, affecting the revenue generated from its sales.
  • Promotion of Indian textiles and handlooms: As people boycotted foreign clothes, there was a shift towards the use of Indian textiles and handloom products. The production of Indian textiles and handlooms increased, providing a boost to the domestic economy and empowering local artisans.

These examples demonstrate that the Non-Cooperation Movement had a significant impact on the economic front, leading to a reduction in the consumption of foreign goods and the promotion of Indian industries.

Q11: Read the following source carefully and answer the questions that follow.   (Term-ll, 2021-22)

Modern nationalism in Europe came to be associated with the formation of nation-states. It also meant a change in people’s understanding of who they were and what defined their identity and sense of belonging. New symbols and icons, new songs and ideas forged new links and redefined the boundaries of communities. In most countries, the making of this new national identity was a long process. How did this consciousness emerge in India?

In India and as in many other colonies, the growth of modern nationalism is intimately connected to the anti-colonial movement. People began discovering their unity in the process of their struggles with colonialism. The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied many different groups together. But each class and group felt the effects of colonialism differently, their experiences were varied, and their notions of freedom were not always the same. The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried to forge these groups together within one movement. But the unity did not emerge without conflict.

(i) What was people’s understanding of the nation?

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Ans: People’s understanding of nation was of modern states, having centralized powers exercising sovereign control over their own territory.

(ii) How was the growth of modern nationalism intimately connected to the anti-colonial movement?

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Ans: The growth of modern nationalism in India was intimately connected to the anti-colonial movement. The sense of being oppressed under colonialism provided a shared bond that tied different groups together. The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi tried to unite these groups within one movement.

(iii) How did people in India develop a sense of collective belonging? Explain.

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Ans: People in India developed a sense of collective belonging through their shared experiences and struggles with colonialism. The anti-colonial movement brought different groups together, despite their varied experiences and notions of freedom. The Congress under Mahatma Gandhi played a crucial role in forging these groups together within one movement, although there were conflicts along the way. Additionally, history, folklore, and new symbols and icons helped redefine the boundaries of communities and create a sense of collective belonging. 

Q12: Describe the spread of the Non-Cooperation Movement in the countryside.   (Term-ll, 2021-22 C, 2015)

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Ans: The spread of the Non-Cooperation Movementin the countryside involved several key developments:

  • In Awadh, peasants were led by Baba Ramchandra against talukdars and landlords who imposed high rents and various cesses.
  • Peasants faced begar (forced labour) and lacked security as tenants, often being evicted without notice.
  • The movement called for a reduction in revenue, the abolition of begar, and a social boycott of oppressive landlords.
  • Jawaharlal Nehru visited villages in Awadh to support the movement and understand local grievances.
  • By October, the Oudh Kisan Sabha was established, rapidly expanding to over 300 branches in the region.
  • However, the Congress leadership was concerned about the movement’s direction, as it led to violence against landlords and merchants.

Q13: Mention any two causes that led to the Civil Disobedience Movement.     (2022)

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement was one of the most significant movements launched by Mahatma Gandhi in the course of India’s freedom struggle in 1930. The two main causes of the civil disobedience movement are: 

  • The constitution of Simon’s commission with no Indians and the death of Lala Lajpat rai while protesting against the commission enraged the entire nation.
  • In the Lahore session, the demand of Purna Swaraj was declared, thus the civil disobedience movement was launched as the first step to fulfil this goal.

Q14: Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931?   (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1931 because he reached a pact, known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, with the British Viceroy, Lord Irwin. As part of this pact, the British agreed to release political prisoners, allow the participation of Congress in the Second Round Table Conference, and lift the ban on the salt satyagraha. Gandhi believed that this was a significant step forward and decided to suspend the movement to give negotiations a chance.

Q15: Read the given source below carefully and answer the questions that follow:    (Term-II,  2021-22)

The Independence Day Pledge, 26 January, 1930

‘We believe that it is the inalienable right of the Indian people, as of any other people, to have freedom and to enjoy the fruits of their toil and have the necessities of life, so that they may have full opportunities of growth. We believe also that if any government deprives people of these rights and oppresses them, the people have a further right to alter it or to abolish it. The British Government in India has not only deprived the Indian people of their freedom but has based itself on the exploitation of the masses, and has ruined India economically, politically, culturally and spiritually. We believe, therefore, that India must sever the British connection and attain Purna Swaraj or Complete Independence.’

(i) Why was freedom considered an inalienable right of the Indian people?

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Ans: Freedom was considered an inalienable right of the Indian people because, like any other people, they believed they had the right to enjoy the fruits of their labour, have the necessities of life, and have full opportunities for growth. They believed that if any government deprived them of these rights and oppressed them, they had the right to alter or abolish it.

(ii) Why was Purna Swaraj considered essential by the people of India?

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Ans: Purna Swaraj, or Complete Independence, was considered essential by the people of India because they believed that the British government in India had not only deprived them of their freedom but also based itself on the exploitation of the masses. They saw complete independence as the only way to free themselves from economic, political, cultural, and spiritual ruin caused by British rule.

(iii) Explain the significance of the Lahore Session of Congress (1930).

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Ans: The Lahore Session of Congress (1930) was significant because, during this session, the Congress decided to observe 26th January 1930 as the Purna Swaraj Day or the day of Complete Independence. This declaration marked a significant milestone in the Indian freedom struggle and set the stage for the future demand for complete independence from British rule.

Q16:  “It was essential to preserve folk tradition in order to discover one’s national identity and restore a sense of pride in one’s past.” Support the statement in reference to India.       (Term-ll, 2021-22)

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Ans:

(i) The nationalist histories urged the readers to take pride in India’s great achievements in the past and struggle to change the miserable conditions of life under British rule.

(ii) In the nineteenth century the Indian nationalists began recording folk songs sung by bards and they toured different villages to gather folk songs and legends.

(iii) They believe that tales give a true picture of traditional culture that has been corrupted and damaged by outsiders.

(iv) Indians began to look into the past to discover India’s greatest achievements.

(v) They wrote about the glorious developments in ancient times when art and architecture, science and mathematics, religion and culture, law and philosophy, crafts and trade flourished.

Q17: Read the case given below carefully and answer the questions that follow:   (Term-ll, 2021-22)

The Sense of Collective Belonging

This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles. But there were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination. History and fiction, folklore and songs, and popular prints and symbols, all played a part in the making of nationalism. The identity of the nation, as you know, is most often symbolised in a figure or image. This helps create an image with which people can identify the nation. It was in the twentieth century, with the growth of nationalism, that the identity of India came to be visually associated with the image of Bharat Mata. The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay. In the 1870s he wrote ‘Vande Mataram’ as a hymn to the motherland. Later it was included in his novel Anandamath and widely sung during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal. Moved by the Swadeshi movement, Rabindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata. In this painting. Bharat Mata is portrayed as an ascetic figure; she is calm, composed, diving and spiritual. In subsequent years, the image of Bharat Mata acquired many different forms, as it circulated in popular prints, and was painted by different artists. Devotion to this mother figure came to be seen as evidence of one’s nationalism.

(i) How did the ‘nation’ become a reality in the minds of people?

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Ans: The ‘nation’ became a reality in the minds of people through united struggles and various cultural processes. The experience of united struggles helped people develop a sense of collective belonging and identify themselves as part of a nation. Additionally, history, fiction, folklore, songs, popular prints, and symbols played a significant role in shaping the idea of the nation and capturing people’s imagination.

(ii) How did nationalism capture the people’s imagination?

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Ans: Nationalism captured the people’s imagination through cultural processes such as history, fiction, folklore, songs, popular prints, and symbols. These cultural elements created a sense of identity and pride in one’s nation. Nationalist leaders used these cultural tools to evoke emotions, inspire unity, and mobilize people for the cause of nationalism.

(iii) How did people belonging to different groups develop a sense of collective belonging?

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Ans: People belonging to different groups developed a sense of collective belonging through shared experiences of united struggles and cultural processes. The use of folklore, songs, popular prints, symbols, and other cultural elements helped bridge the gaps between different groups and create a sense of unity and belonging. These cultural expressions provided a common ground for people from diverse backgrounds to connect and identify themselves as part of a larger collective.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q18: Describe any two Satyagraha movements launched by Gandhiji just after his return to India from South Africa.    (2021C)

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Ans: After returning to India, Mahatma Gandhi initiated several satyagraha movements:

  • Champaran Movement (1917): Gandhi travelled to Champaran in Bihar to support peasants protesting against the harsh plantation system.
  • Kheda Movement (1918): In Gujarat’s Kheda district, he organised a satyagraha for peasants affected by crop failure and a plague epidemic, who were unable to pay their taxes.
  • Ahemdabad Movement (1918): Gandhi also led a satyagraha among cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad to address their grievances.
Also watch: Audio Notes: Nationalism in India

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q19: Why did Gandhiji support the ‘Khilafat’ issue? Write the main reason.   (2020)

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Ans: Gandhiji supported the ‘Khilafat’ issue as he saw it as an opportunity to bring Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement. He believed that by supporting the Khilafat cause, which aimed to protect the political and territorial rights of the Ottoman Caliphate, he could build a strong alliance between Hindus and Muslims and strengthen the fight for India’s independence.

Q20: Name the two main leaders of the ‘Khilafat Committee’ formed in the year 1919.   (2020)

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Ans: The two main leaders of the ‘Khilafat Committee’ formed in 1919 were Muhammad Ali and Shaukat Ali.

Q21: Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow:   (2020)

Why Non-cooperation? 

In his famous book Hind Swaraj (1909), Mahatma Gandhi declared that British rule was established in India with the cooperation of Indians and had survived only because of this cooperation. If Indians refused to cooperate, British rule in India would collapse within a year, and Swaraj would come.

How could non-cooperation become a movement? Gandhiji proposed that the movement should unfold in stages. It should begin with the surrender of titles that the government awarded and a boycott of civil services, the army, police, courts and legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods.

Then, in case the government used repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched. Through the summer of 1920, Mahatma Gandhi and Shaukat Ali toured extensively, mobilizing popular support for the movement.

(i) What was the weapon of Gandhiji to fight against the British Empire in India?

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Ans: Satyagraha was the weapon of Gandhiji to fight peacefully against the British Empire in India.

(ii) How did the British survive in India?

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Ans: According to Mahatma Gandhi’s book Hind Swaraj, British rule in India was established with the cooperation of Indians and survived only because of this cooperation.

(iii) Explain Gandhiji’s idea for making non-cooperation a movement.

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Ans: Gandhiji proposed that non-cooperation should unfold in stages. It should start with the surrender of titles awarded by the government and a boycott of civil services, the army, police, courts, legislative councils, schools, and foreign goods. If the government responded with repression, a full civil disobedience campaign would be launched. This idea aimed to mobilize popular support and escalate the movement gradually.

Q22:  Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order:    (2020)

I. Coming of Simon Commission to India

II. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC.

III. Government of India Act, 1919

IV. Champaran Satyagraha Choose the correct option:

(a) III – II- IV – I

(b) I-II- IV – III

(c) II – III – I – IV

(d) IV – III – I – II

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Ans: (d)

1. Champaran Satyagraha happened in 1917.

2. The Government of India Act was passed in 1919.

3. The Simon Commission came to India in 1928.

4. The Lahore Session of INC in 1929 demanded Purna Swaraj (complete independence).

Q23: Why was the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 troublesome for plantation workers?   (2020)

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Ans: The Inland Emigration Act of 1859 caused significant issues for plantation workers due to its strict limitations on their freedom of movement. 

Key points include:

  • Workers needed a pass from their employers to leave the tea gardens.
  • This restriction made it hard for them to visit their families.
  • It also prevented them from seeking other job opportunities.
  • As a result, many workers felt trapped in exploitative conditions.

Q24: Name the association formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar for Dalits in 1930.   (2020)

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Ans: The association formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar for Dalits in 1930 is the Depressed Class Association.

Q25: Read the extract given below and answer the questions that follow:    (2020)

Source – Swaraj in the Plantations 

Workers too had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj. For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come. Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact, they were rarely given such permission. When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations, and headed home. They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming, and everyone would be given land in their own villages. They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.

(i) Explain the understanding of Swaraj for plantation workers in Assam.

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Ans: For plantation workers in Assam, Swaraj (freedom) meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space of the tea gardens where they were enclosed. It also meant retaining a link with their native village. These workers were restricted by the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, which prohibited them from leaving the tea gardens without permission. However, upon hearing about the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations, and headed home with the belief that Gandhi Raj (rule) was coming and everyone would be given land in their own villages.

(ii) Explain the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 as a barrier to the freedom of plantation workers.

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Ans: The Inland Emigration Act of 1859 served as a barrier to the freedom of plantation workers in Assam. This act prohibited them from leaving the tea gardens without permission, which was rarely granted. It confined the workers to the plantations and restricted their movement, denying them the freedom to return to their native villages or explore opportunities outside the gardens.

(iii) Explain the main outcome of the participation of workers in the Non-Cooperation Movement. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: The participation of workers in the Non-Cooperation Movement had a significant outcome:

  • Thousands of plantation workers in Assam defied colonial authorities.
  • They left the tea gardens, believing that Gandhi Raj would grant them land in their villages.
  • However, their journey was interrupted by a railway and steamer strike.
  • Many were arrested by the police and faced brutal beatings.
  • Despite not reaching their destination, their actions demonstrated their defiance against colonial rule.
  • This participation reflected their aspirations for a better future.

Q26: Identify the appropriate reason from the following options, for the non-participation of industrial workers in the Civil Disobedience Movement.    (2020)

(a) Industrialists were close to the Congress

(b) Britishers offered them good salaries

(c) They were reluctant towards the boycott of foreign goods

(d) Growth of Socialism

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Ans: (a)

Industrialists had a good relationship with the Congress and did not support the strike or protests that could harm their businesses. As a result, many industrial workers did not actively participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q27: Why did the Simon Commission come to India? Identify the correct reason from the following options.    (2020)

(a) To control the campaign against the British in cities

(b) To look into the functioning of the British

(c) To initiate salt law in India

(d) To suggest changes in the functioning of the constitutional system in India

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

The Simon Commission was established to examine the functioning of the constitutional system in India and to suggest necessary changes. Its primary aim was to address the growing demands for political reform in response to the nationalist movement.

Q28: Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follow:     (2020)

A. The Salt March and The Civil Disobedience Movement Mahatma Gandhi found in salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation. On 31st January 1930, he sent a letter to Viceroy Irwin stating eleven demands. Some of these were of general interest; while others were specific demands of different classes, from industrialists to peasants.

B. In the countryside, rich peasant communities – like the Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh – were active in the movement. Being producers of commercial crops, they were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.

C. The limits of Civil Disobedience Movement –  When the Civil Disobedience Movement started there was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between communities.

(i) How did Gandhiji react to the Salt Law?

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Ans: Gandhiji opposed the British salt tax and its monopoly over its production. He demanded the abolition of the salt tax. To protest against this unjust law, he organized the famous Dandi March, where he and his followers marched to the Arabian Sea and made their own salt by evaporating seawater.

(ii) Why did the rich peasants become supporters of the Civil Disobedience Movement?

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Ans: The rich peasants supported the Civil Disobedience Movement due to several key reasons:

  • They were hit hard by the trade depression and falling prices of commercial crops.
  • As producers, they faced significant economic hardships.
  • They viewed the movement as a way to combat the exploitation and oppression they experienced.
  • The refusal of the government to reduce revenue demands led to widespread resentment.

These factors motivated them to actively participate and organise their communities in support of the movement.

(iii) Examine the limits of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement had certain limitations, including:

(a) Lack of industrialists’ participation: The industrialists did not actively participate in the movement, which affected its economic impact.

(b) Limited demands of workers: The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of workers as part of its program of struggle, which limited the scope of the movement.

Q29: Who among the following wrote the Vande Mataram?     (2020)

(a) Rabindranath Tagore

(b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

(c) Abindranath Tagore

(d) Dwarkanath Tagore

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote the patriotic song Vande Mataram, which became a symbol of India’s struggle for independence. It was included in his novel Anandamath.

Q30: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow: 

Case: The Movement in the Towns 

The movement started with the participation of the middle-class in the cities. Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices. The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras, where the Justice Party, the party of the non-Brahmins, felt that entering the council was one way of gaining some power something that usually only Brahmins had access to.

The effects of Non-cooperation movement on the economic front were more dramatic. Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, its value dropping from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore. In many places merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade. As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up. 

(i) Explain the role of the Justice Party in boycotting council elections. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Justice Party in Madras (Chennai) wanted to contest the council elections to gain power and authority which was only available to Brahmans till then

(ii) How were the effects of ‘Non-cooperation movement on the economic front’ dramatic? 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Merchants burnt foreign clothes in huge bonfires, refusing to buy foreign goods completely and even picketed liquor shops. Import of foreign goods reduced to half due to their dramatic reaction.

(iii) Explain the effect of the ‘boycott’ movement on ‘foreign textile trade’. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The boycott movement affected foreign trade negatively. 

(1) Imports of clothes were reduced to half in initial value. Businessmen refused to finance foreign trade or wear foreign goods. 

(2) People began discarding imported clothes and started wearing only Indian made fabrics from mills and handlooms.

Q31: Why did Mahatma Gandhi organise, Satyagraha in the Kheda district of Gujarat in 1917? Give the main reason. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Peasants affected from crop failure and plague epidemic wanted relaxation in revenue collection. Mahatma Gandhi organised a Satyagraha with these peasants against revenue collectors for the same in 1917.

Q32: Describe the implication of the First World War on the economic and political situation of India. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans:  The First World War had significant implications for India’s economic and political landscape:

  • The war resulted in a dramatic increase in defence spending, funded by war loans and higher taxes.
  • Customs duties were raised, and income tax was introduced.
  • Prices soared, doubled between 1913 and 1918, causing severe hardship for ordinary people.
  • Villages were required to supply soldiers, leading to widespread anger due to forced recruitment.
  • Crops failed in many regions, resulting in acute food shortages.
  • This crisis was exacerbated by an influenza epidemic, with 12 to 13 million people perishing from famines and disease.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q33: Explain the implications of the ‘First World War’ on the economic and political situation of India.    (2023, Al 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The First World War had significant effects on the economic and political landscape of India:

  • Increased defence expenditure: The war led to a rise in the defence budget, forcing the government to take out war loans.
  • Rising prices: Shortages during the war caused prices to double between 1913 and 1918, resulting in hardship for many.
  • Higher taxes: Customs duties and taxes were raised, contributing to the overall price increase.
  • Forced recruitment: Many people were compelled to join the army, leading to widespread discontent.
  • Food shortages: Crop failures resulted in acute shortages of food items.
  • Epidemics: The spread of disease during this period caused the deaths of millions.

Q34: Who had organised the Dalits into the depressed classes association in 1930? Describe his achievements.    (CBSE Delhi 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was instrumental in organising the Dalits into the Depressed Classes Association in 1930. His achievements include:

  • Ambedkar was a member of the Mahar caste, one of the untouchable or Dalit castes in India.
  • He became a strong advocate against oppression, using both politics and writing to uplift the Dalits.
  • His notable work, The Annihilation of Caste, was a powerful critique of the caste system.
  • At the second Round Table Conference, he demanded separate electorates for Dalits, which led to a significant clash with Mahatma Gandhi.
  • When the British government agreed to his demand, Gandhi began a fast, believing that separate electorates would hinder Dalit integration into society.
  • Ultimately, Ambedkar accepted Gandhi’s position, resulting in the Poona Pact of September 1932.
  • This pact provided reserved seats for the Depressed Classes (later known as the Scheduled Castes) in legislative councils, although they were to be voted in by the general electorate.
  • Ambedkar believed in political empowerment as a solution to the issues faced by Dalits, contrasting Gandhi’s approach of seeking a change of heart among upper castes.

Ambedkar’s efforts were crucial in raising awareness and advocating for the rights of the Dalit community, laying the groundwork for future movements.

Q35: “Plantation workers had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi’s ideas and the notion of ‘Swaraj’.” Support the statement. (2019 C, Delhi 2017, Al 2016)

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Ans: (i) Plantation workers had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj. For plantation workers, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed, and it meant retaining a link with the village from which they had come.

(ii) Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission, and in fact they were rarely given such permission.

(iii) When they heard of the Non-Cooperation Movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities, left the plantations and headed home.

(iv) They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own villages.

Q36: Define the term ‘Civil Disobedience Movement.’ Describe the participation of rich and poor peasant communities in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement.’  (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: Civil Disobedience is the active, professed refusal of a citizen to obey certain laws, demands, orders or commands of a government. In India, it refers to the movement led by Gandhiji against the British rule.

Both the rich and the poor peasants did not participate in the Civil Disobedience movement because of varying reasons. Their reasons were as follows 

Rich Peasants: 

(i) They were hit by depressed prices of the food grains.

(ii) They were unable to pay the land revenue. Their demand for a reduction in revenue was refused.

(iii) For them fighting for Swaraj was the fight against high revenue.

(iv) They were disappointed with the calling off of the civil disobedience movement and were reluctant to join it back upon its relaunch.

Poor Peasants: 

(i) Economic depression made it very difficult for them to pay rent to the landlords

(ii) Congress did not support their no-rent campaign fearing that it would upset the rich farmers.

Q37: Explain the limitations of the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.   (AI 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The limitations of the Civil Disobedience Movement included:

  • Neglect of Dalits: The Congress overlooked the needs of the Dalits and depressed classes to appease high-caste Hindus, resulting in limited participation from these groups.
  • Muslim Participation: The Congress’s ties with Hindu nationalist groups led to reduced involvement from Muslims, who felt alienated.
  • Community Distrust: Distrust between communities grew, causing many Muslims to refrain from joining the movement.
  • Discontent Among Peasants: Wealthy peasants were dissatisfied when the movement ended in 1931 without changes to revenue rates, leading to poor participation from landless peasants.
  • Industrial Workers: The Congress’s close relationship with the business class alienated the industrial working class, resulting in minimal involvement in the movement.

Q38: Identify the appropriate reason for the formation of the Swaraj party from the options given below. 

(a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics. 

(b) Wanted members of Congress to ask for Poorna Swaraj for Indians. 

(c) Wanted members of Congress to ask Dominion State for India. 

(d) Wanted members of Congress to oppose Simon Commission.   (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

The Swaraj Party was formed in 1923 by prominent leaders like C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru. They believed that it was important for Congress members to participate in the legislative councils established by the British in order to voice Indian interests and obstruct colonial policies from within. This approach, called “Council Entry,” aimed to use the councils as a platform to demand reforms and fight colonial policies.

Thus, the correct answer is (a) Wanted members of Congress to return to Council Politics.

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q39: Why was Congress reluctant to allow women to hold any position of authority within the organisation? How did women participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.    (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: 

Congress’s reluctance to allow women in authority:

  • For a long time, Congress believed that women’s primary role was to care for the home and family.
  • Gandhiji viewed women as essential as mothers and wives, limiting their roles in leadership.
  • Congress was mainly interested in having women present for symbolic purposes.

Women’s participation in the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  • During the Salt March, many women left their homes to listen to Gandhiji.
  • Women took part in protest marches, made salt, and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops.
  • Some women even faced imprisonment for their involvement.

Q40: How did the Non-Cooperation Movement spread to the countryside and drew into its fold the struggles of peasants and tribal communities? Elaborate.    (CBSE 2018)

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Ans: (a) Peasants of Awadh:

(i) They participated under the leadership of Baba Ramchandra – a Sanyasi.

(ii) Their demands were reduction of revenue, and abolition of begar.

(iii) Activities: Nai-dhobi bandhs were organised. Oudh Kisan Sabha was formed.

(iv) Results: As the struggle became violent, the Congress was unhappy

(b) Tribals in Gudem Hills of Andhra Pradesh:

(i) The causes were the closure of forest areas, restrictions on livelihoods, and begar.

(ii) Activities: They attacked police stations and killed British officials. They carried guerrilla warfare.

(iii) Their leader was Alluri Sitaram Raju. He was captured and executed in 1924.

(iv) Importance: Tribal people could not achieve their objectives as their violent activities were disapproved by Congress.

Q41: How did Non-Cooperation Movement start with the participation of middle-class people in the cities? Explain its impact on the economic front.    (CBSE 2018)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) In the towns, the middle classes participated in the movement in the following ways:

(i) Students left the schools and colleges. Headmasters and teachers resigned. Lawyers gave up their practice.

(ii) Elections were boycotted except in Madras.

(iii) Foreign goods were boycotted.

(iv) Liquor shops were picketed.

(v) Foreign clothes were burnt in huge bonfires.

(vi) Many traders refused to import foreign cloth or trade in foreign goods.

(b) The economic effects of the Non-Cooperation Movement are given below:

(i) The import of foreign cloth decreased from Rs. 102 crore to Rs. 57 crore between 1921 and 1922.

(ii) Merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods.

(iii) People started wearing only Indian clothes. This led to increased production by the Indian textile mills and handlooms.

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q42: What is the meaning of ‘Begar’?    (CBSE (AT) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Labour that villager was forced to contribute without any payment.

Q43: Name the writer of the novel ‘Anandamath’    (CBSE Delhi 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Q44: What is meant by Satyagraha?    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The idea of Satyagraha emphasised the power of truth and the need to search for the truth.

Q45: Name the famous book written by Mahatma Gandhi.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: ‘Hind Swaraj’.

Q46: Under which agreement did the Indian ‘Depressed Classes’ get reserved seats in the Provincial and Central Legislative Councils in 1932?    (CBSE Delhi 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The Poona Pact was an agreement reached in September 1932, which provided reserved seats for the Depressed Classes (now known as Scheduled Castes) in both provincial and central legislative councils. 

Key points include:

  • Dr. B.R. Ambedkar initially demanded separate electorates for dalits.
  • Mahatma Gandhi opposed this, fearing it would hinder integration into society.
  • After negotiations, Ambedkar accepted Gandhi’s position, leading to the Poona Pact.
  • Reserved seats were to be filled by votes from the general electorate.

This pact was significant in the political empowerment of the dalit community, although apprehensions about the Congress-led national movement persisted.

Q47: Who wrote the song ‘Vande Mataram?    (CBSE (F) 2017)

Hide Answer  

AnsBankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote the song ‘Vande Mataram’.

Key points about the song:

  • Written in the 1870s as a hymn to the motherland.
  • Originally included in his novel Anandamath.
  • Gained popularity during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.

Q48: By what means does hand-spun khadi provide large-scale employment to weavers?    (CBSE Sample Question 2017)

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Ans: Hand-spun khadi provides significant employment opportunities for weavers through the following means:

  • It operates as a cottage industry, allowing weavers to work from home.
  • This setup enables flexibility in work hours, making it accessible for many.
  • By promoting local production, it creates a demand for skilled weavers.

Overall, hand-spun khadi supports the livelihood of numerous weavers by integrating them into the local economy.

Q49: How did the First World War create a new economic situation in India? Explain with examples.    (CBSE (F) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The First World War significantly altered the economic landscape in India:

  • Defence expenditure surged due to the war, leading to increased financial demands on the government.
  • Taxes were raised, putting additional pressure on the populace.
  • Custom duties were increased, affecting trade and prices.
  • The introduction of income tax marked a new financial obligation for many Indians.
  • Villages were compelled to supply soldiers, resulting in forced recruitment that caused widespread discontent.

These changes contributed to economic hardship, with prices doubling between 1913 and 1918, leading to severe struggles for ordinary people.

Q50: Why was the Non-Cooperation Movement launched by Gandhiji? Explain any three reasons.    (CBSE (Comp.) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Reasons for the launching of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

(i) To support Khilafat agitation.

(ii) To protest against the Rowlatt Act.

(iii) To redress the wrong done in Punjab.

(iv) The dissatisfaction with the Government of India act of 1919.

(v) Demand for Swaraj

Q51: “Gandhiji’s idea of Satyagraha emphasized the Power of truth and the need to search for truth.” In light of this statement assess the contribution of Gandhiji towards Satyagraha.    (CBSE (Comp.) 2017)

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Ans: 

Contribution of Gandhiji towards Satyagraha:

  • The concept of satyagraha highlighted the power of truth and the importance of seeking it.
  • It proposed that if a cause is just and the struggle is against injustice, physical force is unnecessary.
  • satyagrahi could achieve victory through non-violence, appealing to the conscience of the oppressor.
  • Persuasion, rather than coercion, was key to making oppressors recognise the truth.
  • Gandhi believed that this principle of non-violence could unite all Indians.

After returning to India, Gandhi led several successful satyagraha movements:

  • In 1917, he inspired peasants in Champaran, Bihar, to resist oppressive plantation practices.
  • He organised a movement in Kheda, Gujarat, where peasants faced crop failure and were unable to pay taxes.
  • In 1918, he initiated a satyagraha among cotton mill workers in Ahmedabad.

Gandhi’s approach was rooted in the belief that non-violence is the supreme duty, and he demonstrated this through his actions and teachings.

Q52: How was the sense of collective belonging developed during the freedom movement? Explain.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A sense of collective belonging developed during the freedom movement through various means:

  • It emerged from the experience of united struggles against colonial rule.
  • Cultural processes, such as history, fiction, folklore, and songs, played a significant role in shaping nationalism.
  • Popular prints and symbols contributed to the creation of a national identity.
  • The figure of Bharat Mata symbolised the identity of the nation.
  • The song Vande Mataram became popular during the Swadeshi movement in Bengal.
  • Icons and symbols helped unify people and foster a sense of nationalism.
  • Reviving Indian folklore also contributed to the development of nationalist ideas.
  • Folk tales sung by bards in villages depicted traditional culture, enhancing national pride.
  • Reinterpretation of history instilled a sense of nationalism.
  • Nationalist histories encouraged pride in India’s past achievements and motivated the struggle against British oppression.

Q53: Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919? Explain any three reasons.    (CBSE (Delhi) 2017, 2016)

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Ans: Nationwide Satyagraha was decided to be launched against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919 because:

(i) This act had been hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council despite the united opposition of the Indian members.

(ii) It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities.

(iii) Allowed detention of political prisoners without trial for two years.

Q54: How had the First World War created economic problems in India? Explain.    (CBSE (Comp.) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The First World War significantly impacted India’s economy, creating numerous challenges:

  • Increased Defence Expenditure: The war led to a substantial rise in defence spending, funded by war loans and higher taxes.
  • Rising Prices: Prices surged during the war, doubling from 1913 to 1918, which caused severe hardship for ordinary people.
  • Forced Recruitment: Villages were compelled to supply soldiers, resulting in widespread anger due to forced recruitment in rural areas.
  • Crop Failures: Between 1918-1920 and 1920-21, many regions faced crop failures, leading to acute food shortages, exacerbated by an influenza epidemic.

According to the 1921 census, approximately 12 to 13 million people died from famines and the epidemic during this period.

Q55: Why did Gandhiji relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement after the Second Round Table Conference? Explain any three reasons.    (CBSE (F) 2017)

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Ans: Reasons for Gandhiji relaunching of Civil Disobedience Movement

(i) The negotiations with regard to India’s freedom broke down in the Second Round Table Conference held in London.

(ii) Back in India, he discovered that the government had begun a new cycle of repression.

(iii) Ghaffar Khan and Jawaharlal Nehru were put to jail.

(iv) The Congress had been declared illegal.

(v) A series of measures had been imposed to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts. In such a situation he decided to relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q56: Evaluate the ‘Satyagraha Movement’ of Gandhiji against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919.    (CBSE (F) 2017)

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AnsSatyagraha Movement Against The Rowlatt Act:

(i) Gandhiji in 1919 decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act (1919).

(ii) Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which would start with a hartal on 6 April.

(iii) Rallies were organised in various cities.

(iv) Workers went on strike in railway workshops, and shops closed down.

(v) lines of communication such as the railways and telegraph would be disrupted.

(vi) The British administration decided to clamp down on nationalists.

(vii) Local leaders were put to jail.

(viii) On 13 April the Jallianwalla Bagh incident took place.

(ix) Crowds took to the streets in many towns.

(x) The government started brutal repression.

(xi) At the Calcutta session of the Congress in September 1920, he felt the need to start a Non- non-cooperation movement in support of Khilafat as well as for Swaraj.

Q57: Evaluate the contribution of folklore, songs, popular prints etc., in shaping the nationalism during freedom struggle.    (CBSE Delhi 2017)

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Ans: Role of folklore:

  • Folklore, songs, and popular prints significantly contributed to the rise of nationalism.
  • The identity of India became closely linked with the image of Bharat Mata.
  • In the 1870s, Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote ‘Vande Mataram’, a hymn celebrating the motherland.
  • Nationalists sought to revive Indian folklore to strengthen national identity.

These elements helped foster a sense of pride and unity among the people during the freedom struggle.

Q58: How did the salt Satyagraha become an effective tool of resistance against British colonialism in India during 1930? Explain.    (CBSE Sample Question 2017)

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Ans: The Salt Satyagraha became an effective tool of resistance against British colonialism in India during 1930 due to several key factors:

  • Universal Appeal: Salt was a basic necessity consumed by both the rich and the poor, making it a unifying issue.
  • Salt March: Mahatma Gandhi led a 240-mile march to Dandi with 78 volunteers, symbolising defiance against British laws.
  • Ceremonial Violation: On 6th April, Gandhi made salt by boiling seawater, openly breaking the law.
  • Widespread Participation: Thousands across India joined the movement, breaking the salt law and protesting at government factories.
  • Broader Boycotts: The movement also involved boycotting foreign cloth and picketing liquor shops.
  • Government Response: The colonial government arrested Congress leaders, including Gandhi, leading to increased public anger.
  • Brutal Repression: The government’s harsh measures highlighted the oppressive nature of British rule, galvanising further resistance.

These elements combined to demonstrate the effectiveness of the Salt Satyagraha as a powerful form of resistance against colonialism.

Q59: Evaluate the role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: Role of business classes in the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’:

(i) The business classes reacted against colonial policies that restricted business activities.

(ii) They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods and a rupee sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.

(iii) In order to organise business interests, they formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.

(iv) They gave financial assistance for the movement.

(v) They refused to buy and sell imported goods.

Q60: What action did the British government take after the famous Dandi March?

OR How did the Colonial Government repress the ‘Civil Disobedience Movement’? Explain.    (CBSE (AI) 2017)

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Ans: The colonial government took several actions in response to the Dandi March and the subsequent Civil Disobedience Movement:

  • The government began arresting Congress leaders one by one, which caused violent clashes in many areas.
  • When Mahatma Gandhi was arrested, industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police posts and other symbols of British rule.
  • In response to the unrest, the government adopted a policy of brutal suppression.
  • Peaceful satyagrahis faced violence, with many women and children beaten, and around 100,000 people arrested.
  • Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a close associate of Gandhi, was also arrested in April 1930.
  • Angry protests erupted in Peshawar, leading to police firing and numerous casualties.

Q61: Explain the importance of the ‘Salt March’ of Gandhiji as a symbol to unite the nation.    (CBSE (F) 2017)

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Ans: The Salt March led by Mahatma Gandhi was a significant event that united the nation for several reasons:

  • Inclusivity: It brought together all classes of Indian society in a common cause.
  • Defiance: Gandhi openly broke the salt law by marching from Sabarmati to Dandi.
  • Widespread Participation: Thousands across the country also broke the salt law, made salt, and protested at government factories.
  • Boycotts: The movement encouraged the boycott of foreign clothes and the picketing of liquor shops.
  • Tax Resistance: Peasants refused to pay taxes, including revenue and chaukidari taxes.
  • Resignations: Many village officials resigned in protest.
  • Forest Law Violations: Forest communities defied laws by collecting wood and grazing cattle in protected areas.
  • Social Unity: Various social groups, including rich and poor peasants, actively participated.
  • Women and Workers: Business class workers from Nagpur and women also joined the movement.

Q62: Why did Gandhiji launch the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain any three reasons.    (CBSE (Comp) 2017)

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Ans: Reasons for launching the Civil Disobedience Movement:

  • Economic depression of 1930 impacted many Indians.
  • The Simon Commission arrived without any Indian representatives.
  • The British offered vague Dominion status, which did not satisfy Indian demands.
  • Decisions made at the Lahore session of the Congress in 1929 called for action.
  • The British imposed a salt tax, which angered many Indians.

Q63: What were the effects of the Non-cooperation Movement on the economic front?    (CBSE Delhi 2017)

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Ans: The effects of the Non-cooperation Movement on the economic front were significant:

  • Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops were picketed, and foreign cloth was burned in large bonfires.
  • The import of foreign cloth halved between 1921 and 1922, with its value dropping from Rs 102 crore to Rs 57 crore.
  • In many areas, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods.
  • As the boycott spread, people began to discard imported clothes and wear only Indian ones, leading to an increase in production at Indian textile mills and handlooms.

Q64: Why were men from Indian villages forcefully recruited to the British army during the first world war? (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: During the First World War, many men from Indian villages were forcefully recruited into the British army for several reasons:

  • Most British soldiers were already engaged in combat.
  • India had a large population, providing a strong workforce.
  • Indian soldiers required less maintenance and were paid significantly less.
  • This made it financially easier for the British to recruit them.

As a result, many Indian men were compelled to join the British army during the war.

Also watch: Audio Notes: Nationalism in India

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q65: Trace the reason because of which Gandhiji started Satyagraha in 1919.    (2016)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi initiated the concept of satyagraha in 1919 in response to several injustices faced by Indians under British rule. 

The key reasons include:

  • His successful experience in South Africa, where he fought against racist laws using non-violent methods.
  • The belief that truth and non-violence could effectively challenge oppression.
  • Growing discontent among Indians due to oppressive measures, including the Rowlatt Act, which allowed for detention without trial.
  • The need to unite Indians against injustice and promote civil disobedience.

Gandhi’s approach aimed to appeal to the conscience of the oppressor, encouraging a struggle based on moral strength rather than physical force.

Q66: What did the British do to repress the Rowlatt Satyagrahis?   (2016)

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Ans: To repress the Rowlatt Satyagrahis, the British colonial government employed harsh tactics:

  • Many satyagrahis, including Mahatma Gandhi, were arrested and detained.
  • Armed forces were deployed to suppress protests.
  • Violence was used against peaceful demonstrators, culminating in the Jallianwala Bagh massacre in Amritsar.

Q67: Who had designed the ‘Swaraj Flag’ by 1921? Explain the main features of this ‘swaraj flag’ ?    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhiji designed the “Swaraj Flag” by 1921.

Features:

(i) It had tricolours-Red, Green and White

(ii) It had a spinning wheel in the centre.

(iii) It represents the Gandhian idea of self-help.

(iv) It had become a symbol of defiance.

Q68: “The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement.” Support the statement with examples.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The Civil Disobedience Movement was different from the Non-Cooperation Movement:

Non-Cooperation Movement:

(i) The people were asked not to cooperate with the government.

(ii) Foreign goods were boycotted.

(iii) Liquor shops were picketed.

(iv) Foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires.

(v) In many places merchants and traders refused to trade on foreign goods or finance foreign traders.

(vi) Students left the government-owned schools and colleges.

(vii) Lawyers gave up legal practices.

Civil Disobedience Movement:

(i) People were asked to break colonial laws.

(ii) The countrymen broke the salt law.

(iii) Peasants refused to pay revenue and chaukidari tax.

(iv ) Village officials resigned from their jobs.

(v) Forest people violated forest rules and laws.

Q69: What type of flag was designed during the ‘Swadeshi Movement’ in Bengal? Explain its main features.   (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal the flag designed was the Tricolour flag.

The three features of the flag were:

(i) The colour of the flag was — Red, Green and Yellow.

(ii) It represented eight provinces in British India.

(iii) It had a crescent moon representing Hindus and Muslims.

Q70: Describe the participation of the industrial working class in the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Or “The Congress was reluctant to include the demands of industrial workers in its programme of struggle.” Analayse.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: (A) (i) They did not participate in the movement in large numbers except in the Nagpur region.

(ii) As the industrialists came closer to Congress, the workers stayed aloof.

(iii) Some workers did participate in the Civil Disobedience Movement in the following activities :

(а) Boycott of foreign goods as part of their own movements against low wages and poor working conditions.

(b) Railway strikes in 1930.

(c) Dock workers strike in 1932.

Q71: “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj”. Support the statement with arguments.    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the notion of Swaraj.

(i) For plantation workers in Assam, freedom meant the right to move freely in and out of the confined space in which they were enclosed.

(ii) Swaraj meant relating a link with the village from which they had come.

(iii) Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859 plantation workers were not permitted to leave the Tea Gardens without permission.

(iv) When they heard of the Non-Cooperation movement thousands of workers defined the authorities, left plantations and headed home.

(v) They believed that Gandhi Raj was coming and everyone would be given land in their own village.

Q72: How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of collective belonging?    (CBSE Sample Question 2016)

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Ans: (i) This sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles and growing anger among people against the colonial government.

(ii) But there were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination:

(a) The identity of the nation is symbolised in a figure or image of Bharat Mata created through literature, songs, paintings, etc.

(b) Movement to revive Indian folklore to enhance nationalist sentiments.

(c) Role of icons and symbols in unifying people and inspiring in them a feeling of nationalism.

(d) Creating a feeling of nationalism was through reinterpretation of history.

Q73: Why did Gandhiji decide to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919? How was it organised? Explain.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act 1919:

(i) The Rowlatt Act was hurriedly passed through the Imperial Legislative Council.

(ii) Indian members unitedly opposed it.

(iii) It gave the government enormous powers to repress political activities.

(iv) It allowed the detention of political prisoners without trials for two years.

Organization of Satyagrah:

(i) Mahatma Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws.

(ii) It was started with a ‘Hartal’ on 6th April.

(iii) Rallies were organized in various cities.

(iv) Workers went on strike in railway workshops.

(v) Shops closed down.

Q74: Why did Mahatma Gandhi find in ’salt’ a powerful symbol that could unite the nation? Explain.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi viewed salt as a powerful symbol to unite the nation. On 31 January 1930, he wrote to Viceroy Irwin, outlining eleven demands, with the most significant being the abolition of the salt tax.

  • Salt was a basic necessity for both the rich and the poor.
  • The tax on salt represented the oppressive nature of British rule.
  • Irwin refused to negotiate, prompting Gandhi to initiate the famous salt march.
  • The march covered over 240 miles from Sabarmati to Dandi.
  • Gandhi was joined by 78 volunteers and thousands of supporters along the way.
  • On 6 April, he reached Dandi and publicly defied the law by making salt from seawater.

This act marked the beginning of the Civil Disobedience Movement, encouraging widespread participation in resisting British laws.

Q75:  How did a variety of cultural processes play an important role in the making of nationalism in India? Explain with examples.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Role of cultural processes in making of nationalism in India;

(i) The sense of collective belonging came partly through the experience of united struggles.

(ii) There were also a variety of cultural processes through which nationalism captured people’s imagination.

(iii) History, fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols played a part in the making of nationalism.

(iv) The identity of the nation is most often symbolised in a figure or an image.

(v) This helped to create an image with which people could identify the nation.

Q76: Why did Mahatma Gandhi decide to call off the Civil Disobedience Movement? Explain.    (CBSE (Al) 2016)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi decided to call off the civil Disobedience Movement because:

(i) Worried by the development of the civil Disobedience movement the colonial government began arresting the congress leaders one by one.

(ii) This led to violent clashes in many places.

(iii) When Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a devoted disciple of Mahatma Gandhi was arrested (April 1930) angry crowds demonstrated in the street of Peshawar, facing armoured cars and police firing. Many were killed.

(iv) A month later, when Mahatma Gandhi was arrested, industrial workers in Sholapur attacked police force municipal buildings, law courts, railway stations and all other structures that symbolised British rule.

(v) A frightened government responded with the policy of brutal repression.

(vi) The peaceful satyagrahi were attacked, women and children were beaten and about 1 lakh people were arrested.

Under these circumstances, Mahatma Gandhi called off the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Q77: Why did Mahatma Gandhi relaunch the Civil Disobedience Movement with great apprehension? Explain.    (CBSE (Al) 2016)

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Ans: Mahatma Gandhi relaunched the Civil Disobedience Movement with great apprehension:

(i) In December 1931, Gandhiji went to London for the Round Table Conference, but the negotiations broke down and he returned disappointed.

(ii) In India, he discovered that the government had begun a new cycle of repression.

(iii) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Jawahar Lai Nehru were both in jail.

(iv) The Congress had been declared illegal.

(v) A series of measures had been imposed to prevent meetings, demonstrations and boycotts.

Q78: How had the Non-cooperation Movement spread in cities? Explain.    (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: Non-cooperation movement in cities:

(i) The movement started with middle-class participation in the cities.

(ii) Thousands of students left government-controlled schools and colleges, headmasters and teachers resigned, and lawyers gave up their legal practices.

(iii) The council elections were boycotted in most provinces except Madras.

(iv) Foreign goods were boycotted, liquor shops picketed, and foreign cloth burnt in huge bonfires. The import of foreign cloth halved.

(v) In many places, merchants and traders refused to trade in foreign goods or finance foreign trade.

(vi) As the boycott movement spread, and people began discarding imported clothes and wearing only Indian ones, production of Indian textile mills and handlooms went up.

Q79: How did the ‘First World War’ create a new economic and political situations in India? Explain with examples.    (CBSE (F) 2016)

OR

How had the ‘First World War’ created economic problems in India? Explain with examples.

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Ans: First World War created a new economic and political situation in India

(i) It led to huge increases in defence expenditure which was financed by war loans and increasing taxes.

(ii) Custom duties were raised

(iii) Income tax introduced.

(iv) Through the war years prices increased-doubling between 1913 and 1918 – leading to extreme hardship for the common people.

(v) Villagers were called upon to supply soldiers.

(vi) Forced recruitment in rural areas caused widespread anger.

(vii) Crops failed in many parts of India resulting in an acute shortage of food. This was accompanied by influenced evidence.

Q80: “The plantation workers in Assam had their own understanding of Mahatma Gandhi and the nation of Swaraj.” Support the statement with arguments.    (CBSE 2016)

Or

How did the plantation workers of Assam interpret Mahatma Gandhi’s notion of Swaraj?

Or

Why did plantation workers join the Non-Cooperation Movement? What were its results?

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Reasons:

(i) Under the Inland Emigration Act of 1859, plantation workers in Assam were not permitted to leave the tea gardens without permission. So they wanted freedom to move freely.

(ii) To retain a link with their village.

(iii) To own land in their own village.

(b) Events:

(i) During the non-cooperation movement, thousands of workers defied the authorities. They left the plantations and headed home.

(ii) They, however, never reached their destination. Stranded on the way by a railway and steamer strike, they were caught by the police and brutally beaten up.

(c) Interpretation of Swaraj:

(i) The workers of Assam interpreted Swaraj in their own manner for them it was to break the ties of British bondage.

(ii) For them it also meant, freedom of movement from plantation areas of their own villages.

Q81: Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan “Go Back Simon” at arrival in India. Support this reaction of Indians with arguments.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: (a) In 1928, the Simon Commission under Sir John Simon was constituted by the Tory government in Britain in response to the nationalist movement.

(b) The main aim of the Commission was to look into the functioning of the constitutional system in India and suggest changes.

(c) Arguments in favour of Indian reaction:

(i) The commission did not have a single Indian member.

(ii) All members were British.

(iii) Not to include an Indian was against the spirit of nationalists in India. Hence demonstration against the commission was justified.

Q82: Describe the various activities that took place during the first phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. Why was it withdrawn in March 1931?     (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: (a) The various activities that took place during the first phase of the movement were as mentioned below:

(i) Violation of salt laws by manufacturing salt.

(ii) Boycott of foreign cloth.

(iii) Picketing of liquor shops.

(iv) Refusal of peasants to pay revenue and chaukidari taxes.

(v) Resignation of village officials.

(vi) Violation of forest laws and going to Reserved forests to collect wood and grazing cattle.

(b) Policy of the government:

(i) The government adopted a repressive policy.

(ii) It arrested the Congress leaders.

(iii) Abdul Gaffar Khan, a devout disciple of Gandhiji, was arrested in April 1930.

(iv) In police firing many people were killed.

(v) In Sholapur, people attacked lawcourts, railway stations and the structures that symbolised British rule.

(vi) About 100,000 people were arrested.

(c) As a result of the government’s repressive policy, Gandhiji once again decided to call off the movement. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed on 5th March 1931.

Q83: Why did the different social groups join the Civil Disobedience Movement?    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: (a) Rich peasants:

(i) The rich communities like the Fatidars of Gujarat and the Jats of Uttar Pradesh were producers of commercial crops. They were very hard hit by the trade depression and falling prices.

(ii) They were not in a position to pay revenue to the government. They joined the movement in order to reduce revenue.

(b) Poor peasantry: Poor peasantry joined the movement in the hope that their unpaid rent to the landlord would be remitted because due to the Depression, they were not in a position to pay the rent.

(c) Business classes:

(i) They wanted protection against imports of foreign goods and a rupee-sterling foreign exchange ratio that would discourage imports.

(ii) They formed the Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920 and the Federation of the Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industries (FICCI) in 1927.

(iii) They refused to sell or buy imported goods.

(d) Workers:

(i) The participation by the workers in Civil Disobedience was limited. They participated in the Civil Disobedience Movement against low wages and deplorable working conditions.

(ii) There were strikes by railway workers, dock workers and mine workers in the Chota Nagpur regions.

(iii) Women: They participated in Protest Marches, manufactured salt and picketed foreign cloth and liquor shops.

Q84: State the slogan with which Simon Commission was greeted in 1928 in India. (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Simon Commission was greeted with the slogan ‘Simon Go back’ in 1928 in India. 

Q85: Explain any two provisions of the Rowlatt Act and its impact. (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Provisions of the Rowlatt Act:

  • Repression of Political Activities: The Act empowered the government to suppress any political demonstrations or activities.
  • Detention Without Trial: It allowed for the detention of political prisoners for up to two years without trial.
  • Arrest and Search Without Warrant: The British government could arrest individuals and search properties without needing a warrant.

Impact of the Rowlatt Act:

  • The Act sparked widespread outrage among Indians, leading to protests and civil disobedience.
  • It intensified the struggle for independence and unified various groups against colonial rule.

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q86: “Nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation.” Support the statement.    (CBSE 2015)

Or

How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups in India develop a sense of collective belonging ? Elucidate.

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Ans: It is true to say that nationalism spreads when people begin to believe that they are all part of the same nation when they discover some unity that binds them together. In India sense of collective belonging came through the experience of united struggles. Cultural processes history, fiction, folklore and songs, popular prints and symbols all played a part in the making of nationalism as mentioned below:

(i) Symbol of a figure or image:

(a) The identity of India was visualised with the image of Bharat Mata.

(b) The image was first created by Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay.

(c) Abinindranath Tagore painted his famous image of Bharat Mata.

(ii) Revival of Indian folklore: In the late nineteenth century, the revival of folklore helped in the development of nationalism. Folk songs and legends gave a true picture of traditional culture. It helped in discovering national identity and restoring a sense of pride. Rabindra Nath Tagore collected ballads, nursery rhymes and Myths. Similarly, Natesa Sastri wrote folklore of Southern India.

(iii) Icons and symbols: The design of a tricolour flag during Swadeshi, swaraj flag by Gandhiji in 1921 helped in unifying people and inspire a feeling of nationalism. During demonstrations, the carrying of a Swaraj flag became a symbol of defiance.

(iv) Interpretation of history: The interpretation of history also helped in raising the sense of nationalism among the Indians. Nationalist history drew the attention of the Indians to the great achievements of the past as was done by the extremists like Lok Manya Tilak.

Q87: Evaluate the Satyagraha movement of Mahatma Gandhi against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919. (CBSE 2015, 14, 10)

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Ans: The Satyagraha Movement of Mahatma Gandhi against the proposed Rowlatt Act, 1919 can be described using the given points: 

(1) Mahatma Gandhi in 1919, decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against the proposed Rowlatt Act in 1919. 

(2) Gandhi wanted non-violent civil disobedience against such unjust laws, which started with a hartal (strike) on 6th April. 

(3) Rallies were organised in various cities and workers went on strike in railway workshops, and shops were closed down.

01. Previous Year Questions: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Which one of the following regions became a part of unified Italy in 1866?  (1 Mark)
(a) Sardinia-Piedmont, 
(b) Venetia, 
(c) Sicily, 
(d) Papal State

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) Venetia

  • Venetia was added to the unified Italy in 1866, while other regions joined in different years.


Q2: Analyse the significance of the ‘Napoleonic Code’ in making the administrative system rational and efficient.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Napoleonic Code of 1804 played a crucial role in making the administrative system more rational and efficient.

  • It abolished privileges based on birth, thus promoting equality before the law.
  • It established the right to property, giving security to individuals and encouraging economic activity.
  • The Code was exported to regions under French control such as the Dutch Republic, Switzerland, Italy, and Germany.
  • Napoleon simplified administrative divisions, abolished feudalism, and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
  • In towns, guild restrictions were removed, and transport and communication were improved.
    Significance: These measures brought uniformity and efficiency in governance. They created conditions for economic growth and allowed peasants, artisans, workers, and businessmen to enjoy new freedoms, realising that a uniform system of laws, measures, and currency facilitated trade and exchange. 
    Thus, the Napoleonic Code laid the foundation of a modern, rational, and efficient administrative system in Europe.


Q3: How was liberalism allied to national unity in Europe in the early decades of the 19th century? Analyse.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: In the early 19th century, liberalism was closely allied to the idea of national unity in Europe.

  • Meaning of Liberalism: Derived from the Latin word liber (free), liberalism stood for freedom of the individual and equality before the law. Politically, it meant government by consent, a constitution, and a representative government.
  • Link to National Unity: The educated middle classes believed that aristocratic privileges and numerous political divisions were obstacles to national unification. They demanded the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, and wanted a nation governed by laws made by representatives.
  • Economic Liberalism: Liberals also supported freedom of markets and removal of customs duties. For example, the Zollverein (1834) abolished tariff barriers in German states and reduced currencies, facilitating trade. This created a sense of economic nationalism, strengthening wider nationalist feelings.
  • Exclusion: However, political rights were often limited to propertied men, with women and non-propertied men excluded. Still, liberal movements generated demands for a unified national community based on shared laws and institutions.

Analysis:

Thus, liberalism provided both political ideals (constitutionalism, equality before law) and economic measures (free markets, customs union) that promoted the vision of national unity in 19th-century Europe.


Q4: Analyse the role of Giuseppe Mazzini in the unification of Italy.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Giuseppe Mazzini played a pioneering role in the unification of Italy:

  • Early Revolutionary Activities: Born in Genoa in 1805, he joined the secret society of the Carbonari. At 24, he was exiled for attempting a revolution in Liguria (1831).
  • Formation of Secret Societies: He founded Young Italy in Marseilles and later Young Europe in Berne, which included members from Poland, France, Italy, and German states. These groups spread ideas of liberty, democracy, and nationalism.
  • Vision: Mazzini believed that God intended nations to be natural units of mankind. Italy, divided into small states and under foreign domination, had to be forged into a single unified republic.
  • Influence: His ideas inspired secret societies in other parts of Europe (Germany, Switzerland, Poland). He linked Italian unification with a wider alliance of nations.
  • Impact: Though his revolutions failed, Mazzini’s relentless opposition to monarchy and his dream of a democratic republic laid the ideological foundation for Italian unification. Even conservative leaders like Cavour and monarchs later carried forward the cause.

Analysis:

Mazzini gave intellectual and revolutionary direction to the Italian unification movement. Metternich even called him “the most dangerous enemy of our social order.”
Thus, Mazzini’s role was crucial in spreading nationalist ideas and inspiring movements, making him a key figure in the unification of Italy.


Q5: “The 1830s were considered the beginning of great difficulties in Europe.” Analyse the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The 1830s were marked by hunger, hardship, and popular revolt, making them a period of great difficulties in Europe.

  • Population Pressure: There was an enormous increase in population, which created more job seekers than employment opportunities.
  • Rural to Urban Migration: Many migrated from villages to cities, leading to overcrowded slums.
  • Competition from Industrial Goods: Small producers in towns suffered due to cheap machine-made goods from England, especially in textiles.
  • Peasant Hardships: In regions where aristocracy still held power, peasants remained burdened with feudal dues and obligations.
  • Food Crisis: The rise in food prices and bad harvests created pauperism (extreme poverty) in both towns and villages.
  • Popular Revolts: Economic distress led to revolts such as the Silesian weavers’ uprising (1845) against contractors who exploited them by cutting wages.

Analysis:
Thus, the 1830s exposed Europe to serious social, economic, and political difficulties, where widespread poverty and unemployment led to unrest and revolts. These conditions prepared the ground for larger revolutionary movements in the 1840s.


Q6: “Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation in 19th century Europe.” Evaluate the statement in the context of romanticism.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Culture, especially Romanticism, played a key role in shaping nationalist feelings in 19th-century Europe.

  • Reaction against Reason and Science: Romantic artists and poets criticised the glorification of reason. They stressed emotions, intuition, and mystical feelings to evoke national unity.
  • Shared Collective Heritage: Their effort was to create a sense of common cultural past and shared heritage as the basis of a nation.
  • Volksgeist (National Spirit): The German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder argued that true German culture was found among the common people (das volk). Folk songs, dances, and poetry were seen as expressions of the nation’s true spirit.
  • Grimm Brothers’ Folktales: They collected and published German folktales, seeing them as symbols of authentic German culture and resistance to French domination.
  • Language and Music: Vernacular languages and folk traditions became tools to spread nationalist ideas to largely illiterate populations. For example, in Poland, folk dances like the polonaise and mazurka and use of the Polish language in Church helped preserve national identity.

Evaluation:
Romanticism thus used art, language, music, and folklore to popularise nationalism. It gave the abstract idea of a nation a cultural and emotional foundation, mobilising people beyond politics and wars.


Q7: “The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the area called the Balkans.” Evaluate the statement in context of Slavic Movement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Balkans became the most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871, closely linked to the Slavic movement.

  • Ethnic Diversity: The Balkans comprised modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia, and Montenegro, inhabited broadly by Slavs.
  • Decline of Ottoman Empire: Much of the Balkans was under Ottoman control. As the empire weakened, different Slavic groups aspired to independence.
  • Use of National History: Balkan peoples based their claims on the idea that they had once been independent but later subjugated by foreign powers, so their struggles were seen as attempts to regain lost independence.
  • Conflicting Aspirations: The Balkan states were jealous of each other, each seeking to expand its territory at the expense of others. This made the region intensely unstable.
  • Big Power Rivalry: European powers like Russia, Germany, England, and Austro-Hungary interfered in Balkan affairs to expand influence. Their rivalries deepened tensions.
  • Outcome: These conflicts, fuelled by Slavic nationalism, escalated into wars in the region and ultimately contributed to the outbreak of the First World War (1914).

Evaluation:
Thus, the Slavic movement for independence combined with imperialist rivalries made the Balkans the “most explosive” area of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871.


Q8: Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option:   (1 Mark)
I. Defeat of Napoleon in the battle of Leipzig, 
II. Beginning of struggle for Greek independence, 
III. Formation of customs union Zollverein, 
IV. Signing of Treaty of Vienna.
(a) I, II, III, IV, 
(b) I, VI, II, III, 
(c) II, I, III, IV, 
(d) II, I, IV, III

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Ans: (B) I, VI, II, III

I. Defeat of Napoleon at Leipzig — October 1813

IV. Signing (Final Act) of the Congress of Vienna — June 1815

II. Beginning of the Greek War of Independence — 1821

III. Formation of the Zollverein (German Customs Union) — 1834


Q9: How did the French Revolution spread the spirit of nationalism in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The French Revolution of 1789 was the first clear expression of nationalism and it spread the spirit of nationalism across Europe in the following ways:

  • Transfer of Sovereignty: Sovereignty shifted from the monarch to a body of French citizens, proclaiming that the people would shape the destiny of the nation.
  • Symbols of Unity: The ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) created a sense of collective identity. The tricolour flag replaced the royal standard.
  • Uniform Reforms: A centralised administrative system, uniform laws, abolition of internal customs duties, and adoption of common weights and measures strengthened national unity.
  • Language and Culture: Regional dialects were discouraged; French (Paris style) became the national language. New hymns, oaths, and commemorations honoured the nation.
  • Mission to Liberate Europe: Revolutionaries declared that it was the destiny of France to liberate other nations from despotism. French armies carried the ideas of nationalism abroad, influencing Holland, Belgium, Switzerland, Italy, and German regions.
  • Jacobin Clubs: Students and educated middle classes in Europe set up clubs inspired by the French model, spreading revolutionary and nationalist ideas.

Conclusion:
Thus, the French Revolution spread nationalism through political, cultural, and administrative reforms at home and by inspiring movements abroad with its ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity.


Q10: How did the Greek freedom struggle arouse nationalist sentiments in Europe? Explain with suitable arguments.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Greek war of independence (1821) played an important role in arousing nationalist sentiments across Europe:

  • Background: Greece had been part of the Ottoman Empire since the 15th century. Inspired by revolutionary nationalism, Greeks began their struggle for independence in 1821.
  • Support from Exiled Greeks: Nationalists in Greece received help from Greeks living in exile, who actively supported the struggle.
  • European Sympathy: Educated elites across Europe sympathised with Greece because of their admiration for ancient Greek culture, regarded as the cradle of European civilisation.
  • Role of Poets and Artists: Poets and artists glorified Greece’s struggle. For instance, Lord Byron, the English poet, collected funds, joined the war, and even died in Greece in 1824. Painters like Delacroix depicted Greek suffering to mobilise support.
  • Public Opinion: Such cultural and artistic efforts stirred public opinion in favour of Greece, turning the war into a symbol of the wider struggle between nationalism and foreign domination.
  • Outcome: With continuous support, the struggle succeeded and the Treaty of Constantinople (1832) recognised Greece as an independent nation.

Conclusion:
The Greek freedom struggle linked nationalism with culture, art, and history, and inspired nationalist sentiments all over Europe, strengthening the broader movement against imperial rule.


Q11: In reference to the Germania allegory, the “olive branch around the sword” symbolizes which one of the following?  (1 Mark)
(a) Being freed, 
(b) Heroism and strength, 
(c) Willingness to make peace, 
(d) Beginning of a new era

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Ans: (c) Willingness to make peace

  • Germania allegory: Represents German nationhood, with the olive branch symbolizing peace and reconciliation, paired with the sword for strength.
  • Other Being freed (A) relates to broken chains, heroism (B) to the sword alone, and new era (D) is not specifically symbolized.


Q12: Read the given source and answer the questions that follow:  (4 marks)
The Revolutionaries

During the years following 1815, the fear of repression drove many liberal-nationalists underground. Secret societies sprang up in many European states to train revolutionaries and spread their ideas. To be revolutionary at this time meant a commitment to oppose monarchical forms that had been established after the Vienna Congress, and to fight for liberty and freedom. Most of these revolutionaries also saw the creation of nation-states as a necessary part of this struggle for freedom.

(i) Mention any one political demand of the liberals.

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Ans: Constitutional government

  • One political demand of the liberals was the establishment of a constitution and representative government to end autocracy.

(ii) Mention the main cause for the rise of secret societies in European States.

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Ans: Fear of repression
Explanation:

  • The main cause for the rise of secret societies was the fear of repression under conservative, autocratic regimes established after the Vienna Congress of 1815.

(iii) Analyse the reasons for many liberal-nationalists going underground after 1815.

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Ans: After 1815, conservative governments tried to suppress criticism and dissent. They imposed censorship laws and restored monarchies, rejecting liberal ideas of freedom and equality. This repression forced many liberal-nationalists to go underground, where they organised secret societies to continue spreading their ideas of liberty, freedom, and creation of nation-states.


Q13: Arrange the following events in the chronological order and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
I. The Treaty of Vienna, 
II. The beginning of Napoleonic wars, 
III. Proclamation of the Prussian King William I as German Emperor, 
IV. Proclamation of Victor Emmanuel II as the King of Italy.
(a) I, III, IV, and II, 
(b) II, IV, I, and III, 
(c) II, I, IV, and III, 
(d) III, II, IV, and I

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Ans: (c) II, I, IV, and III

  • Napoleonic wars began – 1797
  • Treaty of Vienna – 1815
  • Victor Emmanuel II proclaimed King of Italy – 1861
  • William I proclaimed German Emperor – 1871

So, the correct order is II → I → IV → III.


Q14: Describe the steps taken by French revolutionaries to create a sense of national unity and belonging.

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Ans: The French revolutionaries took several steps to create a sense of national unity and belonging:

  • Introduced the ideas of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen), emphasising a united community enjoying equal rights under a constitution.
  • Adopted a new national flag, the tricolour, to replace the royal standard.
  • Transformed the Estates General into the National Assembly, elected by active citizens.
  • Composed new hymns, took oaths, and commemorated martyrs in the name of the nation.
  • Established a centralised administrative system, framing uniform laws for all citizens.
  • Abolished internal customs duties and adopted a uniform system of weights and measures.
  • Discouraged regional dialects and promoted French (as spoken in Paris) as the common national language.

These measures helped forge a collective identity among the French people and spread the spirit of nationalism.


Q15: Describe the historical factors that contributed to the emergence of nationalist tensions in the Balkans.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The emergence of nationalist tensions in the Balkans was due to several historical factors:

  • The decline of the Ottoman Empire encouraged different nationalities to demand independence.
  • The Balkans was a region of ethnic diversity – Serbs, Bulgarians, Croats, Greeks, Romanians, and others – each seeking to assert their own identity.
  • Slavic nationalities based their claims on the idea that they had once been independent but were later subjugated, so they saw their struggles as a way to regain lost independence.
  • Rivalries among the Balkan states and the interference of big European powers (Russia, Germany, England, Austro-Hungary) further intensified tensions.


Q16: Read the following facts related to ‘Napoleonic Code’ carefully and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
I. Abolition of privileges based on birth. 
II. Establishing equality before the law. 
III. Securing property rights. IV. Imposing manorial dues on the peasants.
(a) only I, II, and III are correct. 
(b) only II, III, and IV are correct. 
(c) only I, II, and IV are correct. 
(d) only I, III, and IV are correct.

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Ans: (a) only I, II, and III are correct.
The Napoleonic Code (1804) abolished privileges based on birth, established equality before law, and secured property rights. It removed manorial dues instead of imposing them.


Q17: “The political and constitutional changes that came in the wake of the French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from monarchy to a body of French Citizens.” Explain the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The French Revolution of 1789 marked a decisive shift of sovereignty from the monarchy to the people of France.

  • End of Absolutism: Before 1789, France was ruled by an absolute monarch, but the Revolution declared that sovereignty would lie with the citizens.
  • Nation as the Source of Power: The revolution proclaimed that it was the people who would constitute the nation and shape its destiny, not the king.
  • Symbols of Unity: Concepts of la patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) created a sense of collective belonging.
  • Institutional Changes: The Estates General was transformed into the National Assembly, elected by active citizens, symbolising power in the hands of the people.
  • Legal and Administrative Reforms: A centralised administrative system with uniform laws, abolition of internal duties, and standardisation of weights and measures promoted equality.
  • Cultural Measures: Regional dialects were discouraged and French (Paris style) was adopted as the common national language to unify citizens.

Thus, the Revolution shifted sovereignty from the king to a nation of citizens, laying the foundation for modern nationalism.


Q18: “During 19th century, in the economic sphere, liberalisation stood for the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital.” Explain the statement.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: In the 19th century, liberalism in the economic sphere was closely connected with the rise of the middle classes and their demand for free markets.

  • Meaning of Economic Liberalism: It stood for the freedom of markets and the removal of state-imposed restrictions on trade, goods, and capital.
  • Obstacles to Trade: In German-speaking regions, there were 39 states, each with its own currency, weights, and measures. Merchants faced multiple customs barriers. For example, in 1833 a merchant travelling from Hamburg to Nuremberg had to cross 11 customs barriers, paying duties at each point.
  • Inconveniences of Local Measures: Duties were calculated differently in each region. Even the elle (measure of cloth) varied from place to place (54.7 cm in Frankfurt, 55.1 cm in Mainz, 65.6 cm in Nuremberg). This delayed trade and increased costs.
  • Demand for Unification: The new commercial classes saw these restrictions as obstacles to economic growth and demanded a unified economic territory.
  • Zollverein (1834): Prussia initiated a customs union that abolished tariff barriers and reduced currencies from over 30 to 2, facilitating trade. Railways further enhanced mobility, strengthening economic nationalism.

Thus, in the 19th century, economic liberalisation meant removing restrictions to create free, unified markets, which also fostered nationalist sentiments.


Q19: How did the tension in the Balkans region in 1871 become the major cause of the First World War? Explain.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: The Balkans region after 1871 became the most explosive part of Europe and a key cause of the First World War.

  • Ethnic Diversity: The Balkans comprised Slavic nationalities like Serbs, Bulgarians, Croats, Greeks, and others, each demanding independence or expansion of their territories.
  • Decline of Ottoman Empire: As Ottoman control weakened, these groups based their claims on the idea that they had once been independent and wanted to regain lost independence.
  • Mutual Rivalry: Balkan states were jealous of each other and competed to expand their boundaries at the expense of neighbours, making the region unstable.
  • Great Power Rivalry: The Balkans became the focus of big power rivalries. Russia, Germany, England, and Austro-Hungary all tried to increase influence and counter each other’s hold in the region.
  • Wars and Escalation: These rivalries fuelled a series of wars in the Balkans, where the conflict between Slavic nationalism and imperial ambitions escalated.
  • Outcome: This atmosphere of hostility and competition directly contributed to the outbreak of the First World War in 1914.

Thus, nationalist tensions in the Balkans, combined with the interference of European powers, transformed the region into a “powder keg of Europe,” whose explosion led to the First World War.


Q20: Explain the programme for a unified Italian republic put forward by Giuseppe Mazzini in the decade of 1830.  (5 Marks)

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Ans: Giuseppe Mazzini put forward a clear programme for a unified Italian republic in the 1830s:

  • Vision of National Unity: Mazzini believed that God had intended nations to be the natural units of mankind, so Italy could not remain divided into small states and kingdoms. It had to be united into a single republic.
  • Secret Societies: He founded Young Italy (1831) in Marseilles to spread the idea of Italian unification through education and revolutionary activities. Later, he established Young Europe (1833) in Berne with members from Italy, Germany, France, and Poland.
  • Republican Ideals: His programme was based on the creation of a democratic republic, not a monarchy, as the only path to Italian liberty.
  • National and International Goal: He saw Italian unification as part of a wider alliance of nations, where free republics across Europe would cooperate for liberty.
  • Influence: His ideas inspired revolts in Italy (1831 and 1848) and influenced nationalist movements in other countries, though his revolutions were suppressed.

Thus, Mazzini’s programme in the 1830s provided the ideological foundation of Italian nationalism and kept alive the dream of a united republican Italy.


Q21: Arrange the following regions of Italy in the order of their inclusion in the Unified Italy and choose the correct option:  (1 Mark)
I. Venetia, 
II. Savoy Sardinia, 
III. Sicilies.
(a) I, II, and III, 
(b) II, III, and I, 
(c) I, III, and II, 
(d) II, I, and III

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Ans: (b) II, III, and I

  • Savoy Sardinia (Sardinia-Piedmont) led the unification process and was the first region.
  • Kingdom of the Two Sicilies joined in 1860 with Garibaldi’s support.
  • Venetia was added later in 1866.

Correct order: II → III → I.


Q22: Explain the functioning of conservative regimes established in France in 1815.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: The conservative regimes established in France in 1815 functioned in an autocratic manner:

  • The Bourbon dynasty was restored after Napoleon’s defeat, and monarchies were re-established.
  • These regimes did not tolerate criticism or dissent and sought to suppress ideas of liberty and freedom associated with the French Revolution.
  • Censorship laws were imposed to control newspapers, books, plays, and songs that reflected revolutionary ideals.

Thus, the conservative order of 1815 worked to restore monarchy and maintain control by limiting freedoms.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Analyse the process of Italian unification.     (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: Italy was unified after numerous struggles and movements as described below:
(1) Italy had a long history of political fragmentation among various dynastic states. Sardinia-Piedmont was the only one of seven states ruled by an Italian princely house.
(2) Other regions were ruled by non-Italian rulers. The Italian language had multiple regional and local variations.
(3) In 1830, Giuseppe Mazzini established a secret society called Young Italy and tried to bring about a revolutionary uprising but failed. Thereafter, war was the only resort left.
(4) Chief Minister Cavour led the movement of unification and diplomatically joined Sardinia-Piedmont, in an alliance with France after defeating the Austrian forces in 1859.
(5) Armed volunteers led by Giuseppe Garibaldi also supported the troops and they marched into South Italy and the Kingdom of Two Sicilies. They were supported by peasants in driving out Spanish rulers.
(6) After continuous struggles, Victor Emmanuel II was finally declared the king of unified Italy in 1861.

Q2: Analyse the process of German unification.     (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: The process of nation state building in Germany took place in the following manner:
(1) Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class Germans who tried to unite the different regions of the German confederation into a nation state governed by an elected parliament.
(2) This liberal movement faced repression from the monarchy and military, supported by the large landowners known as Junkers.
(3) Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification. Its Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck was the architect of this process, which was carried out with the help of the Prussian Army and bureaucracy.
(4) Over seven years, three wars against Austria, Denmark, and France resulted in Prussian victories, culminating in the unification of Germany.
(5) On 18 January 1871, the Prussian King, William I, was declared the German Emperor in a ceremony at Versailles.


Q3: There are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark your answer as per the codes provided below: 
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(c) (A) is correct but (R) is wrong. 
(d) (A) is wrong but (R) is correct.
Assertion (A): On Prussian initiative ‘Zollverein’ Custom Union was formed. 
Reason (R): It was to create unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people and capital.   (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: (a)
Assertion (A): On Prussian initiative ‘Zollverein’ Customs Union was formed.
This statement is true. The Zollverein was indeed initiated by Prussia in the early 19th century, with the purpose of consolidating the fragmented German states economically.
Reason (R): It was to create a unified economic territory allowing the unhindered movement of goods, people, and capital.
This statement is also true. The primary aim of the Zollverein was to eliminate internal tariffs and barriers among the German states, fostering an integrated economic zone where goods, people, and capital could move freely. This economic integration was seen as a step toward political unity in Germany.
Since both statements are true and the reason correctly explains the purpose behind the formation of the Zollverein Customs Union, the correct answer is (a): Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).


Q4: From which of the following countries Giuseppe Garibaldi belonged to?   (CBSE 2024)
(a) 
Austria 
(b) Italy 
(c) Greece 
(d) Spain

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Ans: (b) Italy 
Giuseppe Garibaldi was a key figure in the unification of Italy . He was an Italian general, politician, and revolutionary who played a major role in the Risorgimento , the movement for Italian unification.


Q5: Two statements are given below. They are Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read both the statements and choose the correct option.   (CBSE 2024)
Assertion (A): The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was Balkan. 
Reason (R): A large part of the Balkan was under the control of Ottoman Empire. 
(a) 
Both, (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both, (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true. 

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Ans: (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A). 

  • Assertion (A): The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1871 was the Balkans. This is true because the Balkans were a region of intense nationalist movements and conflicts, particularly between the different ethnic groups and empires.
  • Reason (R): A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the Ottoman Empire. This is also true. The Ottoman Empire controlled much of the Balkan region, which contributed to nationalist tensions as various groups in the Balkans sought independence or autonomy.

The reason correctly explains the assertion, as the control of the Ottoman Empire over the Balkans was one of the key factors that led to nationalist tensions.

Q6: Arrange the following events in chronological order and choose the correct option from the following: (2024) 
I. Treaty of Constantinople 
II. Unification of Italy 
III. Defeat of Napoleon 
IV. Unification of Germany 
(a) 
I, II, IV and III 
(b) II, III, I and IV 
(c) III, I, II and IIV 
(d) IV, I, III and II 

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Ans: (c) III, I, II and IIV 
1. Defeat of Napoleon (III): Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated at the Battle of Waterloo in 1815 , marking the end of the Napoleonic Wars. This is the earliest event in the list.
2. Treaty of Constantinople (I): The Treaty of Constantinople was signed in 1832 . It recognized Greece as an independent nation after the Greek War of Independence (1821–1832). This event occurred after the defeat of Napoleon.
3. Unification of Italy  (II): The unification of Italy (also known as the Risorgimento) was completed in 1870 when Rome became the capital of Italy, following the capture of the Papal States. This happened just before the unification of Germany. The unification of Germany occurred in 1871 after the Franco-Prussian War. This marked the formation of the German Empire under Prussian leadership.
4. Unification of Germany (IV): The unification of Germany occurred in 1871 after the Franco-Prussian War. This marked the formation of the German Empire under Prussian leadership.
Chronological Order: III → I → II → IV
(Defeat of Napoleon → Treaty of Constantinople → Unification of Italy → Unification of Germany)
Correct Option: (c) II, I, IV and III

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q7: Arrange the following in chronological order and choose the correct option: 
(I) Napoleonic wars 
(II) The Treaty of Vienna 
(III) Greek Struggle for Independence 
(IV) Slav Nationalism in the Ottoman Empire   (2023)
(a) III, II, I and IV
(b) I, II, III and IV
(c) IV, III, II and I
(d) IV, II, III and I        

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Ans: (b)
The following events took place in the following sequence: 
(1) Napoleonic wars- 1797 
(2) The Treaty of Vienna- 1814-1815 
(3) Greek Struggle for Independence- 1821 
(4) Slav Nationalism in Ottoman Empire-1905


Q8:  Explain Romanticism as a cultural movement in Europe.   (2023)

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Ans: Romanticism was a significant cultural movement in Europe that fostered a unique sense of nationalist sentiment. Key features include:

  • Focus on emotions and intuition over reason and scientific thought.
  • Emphasis on mystical feelings and the collective heritage of nations.
  • Influence of artists and poets who celebrated cultural roots and common pasts.

Romanticism played a crucial role in shaping the idea of the nation through art, poetry, and music.


Q9: Explain Frederic Sorrieu’s dream in the context of democratic and social republics in France during 1848.   (2023)

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Ans: Frédéric Sorrieu was a French artist who, in 1848, created a series of four prints. These prints depicted his vision of a world composed of democratic and social republics.

  • The first print shows people from Europe and America, of all ages and backgrounds, marching towards the Statue of Liberty.
  • Liberty is represented as a female figure, holding the torch of Enlightenment and the Charter of the Rights of Man.
  • Above them, figures like Christ and angels symbolise fraternity among nations.
  • Sorrieu’s work reflects the hopes for unity and democracy during a time of significant political change.


Q10: “Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism.” Examine the statement. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: The ideas of national unity were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism in Europe during the nineteenth century. This can be asserted by the following statements: 
(1) The term liberalism is derived from the Latin word ‘liber’ which means free. Revolutionaries stood for the freedom of individuals and equality of all before the law. 
(2) Liberals began a revolution in 1848. They began many national movements pioneered by the educated middle class to fight for the cause of liberty, freedom and unification for their nation. 
(3) Politically, the idea of liberalism advocated for a constitutional and represented government through Parliament. Hence, the ideologies of liberalism and nationalism were closely allied.

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q11: Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815?  (2022)
(a) 
Conservative
(b) 
Liberal
(c) 
Federal
(d) 
Feudal    

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Ans: (a)

After the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were primarily influenced by conservatism. Key characteristics included:

  • Emphasis on preserving traditional institutions such as the monarchy, the Church, and social hierarchies.
  • A recognition that modernisation could strengthen these institutions.
  • Formation of conservative regimes that were largely autocratic and intolerant of dissent.
  • Implementation of censorship laws to control public discourse.

The Congress of Vienna in 1815 aimed to restore the monarchies overthrown by Napoleon and establish a new conservative order in Europe.


Q12: Which one of the following groups of countries collectively defeated Napoleon in 1815?  (2022)
(a) 
Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Austria
(b) Britain, Russia, Prussia, and Australia
(c) Britain, Russia, Netherlands and Germany
(d) Britain, Luxembourg, Germany and Italy

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Ans: (a)
ln 1815, European powers like Britain, Russia; Prussia, and Austria collectively defeated Napoleon.


Q13: Industrialisation began in which one of the following  European countries in the second half of the eighteenth century?  (2022)
(a)
 Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) England

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Industrialization began in England during the second half of the eighteenth century.

  • Other countries, such as FranceGermany, and Italy, started industrialising later, mainly in the late nineteenth century.
  • This early industrialisation in England led to the rise of new social groups, including a working class and a middle class of industrialists and professionals.


Q14: In which one of the following countries did the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval take place in July  1830?  (2022)
(a)
 France
(b) Germany
(c) England
(d) Italy

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Ans: (a)

In July 1830, the first liberalist-nationalist upheaval occurred in France.

  • The Bourbon kings, restored to power after 1815, were overthrown.
  • Liberal revolutionaries established a constitutional monarchy.
  • Louis Philippe became the head of this new government.
  • This revolution inspired further uprisings, including one in Brussels, leading to Belgium’s independence.


Q15: Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?  (2022)
(a)
 Lord Byron
(b) Metternich
(c) Johann Herder
(d) Napoleon

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Metternich remarked, “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches a cold.” This statement was made in the context of the July Revolution in France, which ignited uprisings across Europe.

  • The July Revolution led to a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe as its head.
  • This event sparked an uprising in Brussels, contributing to Belgium’s independence from the United Kingdom of the Netherlands.
  • Metternich’s observation reflected the influence of France on the political landscape of Europe.


Q16: Read the facts regarding the Revolution of the Liberals in Europe during 1848 and choose the correct option:
I. Abdication of the monarch
II. Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
III. Political Rights for women were given
IV. Freedom of the press has been asked for  (2022)
(a)
 Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only I, II, and III are correct.
(c) Only I and IV are correct.
(d) only I, II, and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Regarding the 1848 Revolution of the Liberals in Europe, the correct facts include:

I. Abdication of the monarch
II. Universal male suffrage had been proclaimed
IV. Freedom of the press has been asked for

Political rights for women (III) were not typically granted during this period. Therefore, the correct options are I, II, and IV.


Q17: Which of the following is not a part of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain?  (2022)

(a) England
(b) Poland
(c) Scotland
(d) Ireland

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Ans: (b)
The United Kingdom (UK) is made up of England, Scotland, Wales, and Northern Ireland. Poland is not part of the UK, as it is a separate country in Europe. Hence, the correct answer is (b) Poland.


Q18: Who among the following was the architect of the unification of Germany?  (2022)
(a)
 Otto Von Bismarck
(b) William I
(c) Frederick III
(d) William II  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

Otto Von Bismarck was the key figure in the unification of Germany.

  • He played a pivotal role in the process, which culminated in 1871.
  • Bismarck is often referred to as the architect of German unification.
  • His leadership involved strategic wars with Austria, Denmark, and France.
  • These conflicts ultimately led to Prussian victories and the formation of the German Empire.
  • In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was declared the German Emperor at Versailles.


Q19: Who among the following together a coherent programme Italian Republic during the 1830s?  (2022)
(a)
 Victor Emmanuel I
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Mazzini
(d) Count Cavour

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Giuseppe Mazzini aimed to create a clear plan for a unified Italian Republic during the 1830s. He established a secret society called Young Italy to promote his vision.

  • Mazzini believed that Italy should not remain a collection of small states.
  • He envisioned a single, unified republic as essential for Italian freedom.
  • His ideas inspired similar secret societies across Europe.
  • Despite his efforts, revolutionary movements in 1831 and 1848 failed.
  • As a result, the task of unifying Italy fell to King Victor Emmanuel II of Sardinia-Piedmont.


Q20: Who among the following was proclaimed King of united Italy in 1861?  (2022)
(a) 
Charles I
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(d) Nero  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
In 1861, Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed the king of united Italy.


Q21: On which of the following modern aspects did the new Germany place a strong emphasis?  (2022)
I. Currency
II. Banking
III. Legal system
IV. Demography
(a) 
Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only II and III are correct.
(c) Only III and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II, and III are correct.

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Ans: (d)
The new German state placed a strong emphasis on modernizing the currency, banking, legal, and judicial systems.


Q22: Which one of the following Italian states was ruled by an Italian princely house?  (2022)
(a) 
Papal State
(b) Lombardy
(c) Venetia
(d) Sardinia-Piedmont

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Ans: (d)

Sardinia-Piedmont was the only Italian state ruled by an Italian princely house during the mid-nineteenth century.

  • Italy was divided into seven states at that time.
  • The northern regions were under the control of the Austrian Habsburgs.
  • The central area was governed by the Pope.
  • The southern parts were dominated by the Bourbon kings of Spain.

This division highlighted the political fragmentation of Italy before its unification.


Q23: Identify the characteristics of Cavour among the following and choose the correct option:
I. He was an Italian statesman.
II. He spoke French much better than Italian.
III. He was a tactful diplomat.
IV. He belonged to a Royal family.  (2022)
(a) 
Only I and II are correct.
(b) Only I, II, and III are correct.
(c) Only II, III, and IV are correct.
(d) Only I, II, and IV are correct.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Cavour did not belong to a Royal family. He belonged to a family that had served the House of Savoy as soldiers and officials.

Also read: Unit Test: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q24: Describe the major outcomes of the French Revolution of 1789.   (2021 C)

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Ans: The major outcomes of the French Revolution of 1789 are as follows: 

  • It resulted in the transfer of power from King Louis XVI to the National Assembly.
  • A collective identity of the people developed.
  • The Estate General was elected by the body of active citizens and renamed the National Assembly.
  • Jacobin clubs were set up for the propagation of liberal thoughts.
  • A new French Flag, the tricolour, was chosen to replace the former royal standard.
  • Regional dialects were discouraged and French became the common language of the nation.


Q25: Which type of governments were mainly driven in Europe after the defeat of Napoleon in 1815? 
(a) Conservative 
(b) Liberal 
(c) Federal 
(d) Feudal   (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (a)
After the defeat of Napoleon in 1815, European governments were primarily conservative. The Congress of Vienna, held in 1815, aimed to restore pre-Napoleonic order and reinforce monarchical and aristocratic rule. The conservatives, led by figures like Austria’s Prince Metternich, sought to suppress revolutionary ideas, maintain traditional power structures, and resist liberal and nationalist movements. This conservative dominance aimed to prevent the spread of the democratic and nationalist ideals that had emerged during the French Revolution and Napoleonic Wars.
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Conservative.


Q26: Who among the following was the architect for the unification of Germany ? 
(a) Otto von Bismarck 
(b) William I 
(c) Frederick III 
(d) William II   (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (a)
Otto von Bismarck, the Prime Minister of Prussia, was the key architect behind the unification of Germany. Through his policies of “blood and iron” and strategic wars (such as the Danish War, Austro-Prussian War, and Franco-Prussian War), Bismarck unified the various German states under Prussian leadership. His diplomatic skills and military strategies played a crucial role in consolidating the German Empire, which was officially declared in 1871 with the proclamation of the German Empire in the Hall of Mirrors at Versailles.
Thus, the correct answer is (a) Otto von Bismarck.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q27: Describe the unification process by which Germany unified as a nation state.  (CBSE 2016, 15)

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Ans: The process of nation state building in Germany took place in the following manner: 
(1) Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle class Germans who tried to unite the different regions of the German confederation into a nation state governed by an elected parliament. 
(2) The liberal initiative of nation building was repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military. 
(3) Prussia took on the leadership of the movement for national unification. Its Chief Minister, Otto von Bismarck was the architect of this process, which was carried out with the help of the Prussian Army and bureaucracy. 
(4) Three wars for over seven years ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification. 
(5) In January 1871, the Prussian King, William-I, was proclaimed the German emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles.


Q28: Which of the following revolutions is called the first expression of ‘Nationalism’?  (2020)
(a)
 French Revolution
(b) Russian Revolution
(c) Glorious Revolution
(d) The Revolution of the Liberals

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Ans: (a)

The French Revolution of 1789 is regarded as the first clear expression of nationalism. It marked a significant shift in power from the monarchy to the people, establishing the idea that:

  • The nation is formed by its citizens.
  • People should unite for equality and self-governance.
  • The revolution inspired similar movements across Europe.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) French Revolution.


Q29: Examine the significance of the Statue of Liberty in Frederic Sorrieu’s paintings, ‘The Dream of Worldwide Democratic and Social Republics’.  (2020)

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Ans: The Statue of Liberty is depicted as a female figure holding the Torch of Enlightenment in one hand and the Charter of Rights in the other.

In the foreground, the shattered symbols of absolutist institutions represent the end of oppressive rule.

Sorrieu’s vision portrays:

  • People from various nations, identifiable by their flags and national costumes.
  • The United States and Switzerland leading the procession, symbolising established nation-states.
  • A call for unity among nations, with a hopeful outlook for democracy.


Q30: Who among the following remarked “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold”?  (2020)
(a)
 Lord Byron
(b) Metternich
(c) Johann Herder
(d) Napoleon  

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Metternich remarked, “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold.” This statement followed the July Revolution in France, which ignited uprisings in various parts of Europe.

  • The revolution led to the establishment of a constitutional monarchy with Louis Philippe as its head.
  • It also sparked a rebellion in Brussels, contributing to Belgium’s independence from the Netherlands.


Q31:  How did the Greek War of Independence mobilize nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe? Explain  (2020)

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Ans: Greek War of Independence mobilized the nationalist feelings in Europe in the following ways:
(i) Greece was viewed as a part of Europe that had been annexed by Ottomans and now needed to be liberated.
(ii) Greece was perceived as the foundation and cradle of civilization in Europe by poets and artists and this led to nationalist consciousness.
(iii) Greek nationalists received support from other Greeks living in exile.
(iv) Many Europeans had a natural sympathy for the ancient Greek civilization.
(v) Europeans and Greek nationalists were against the Muslim Empire.


Q32: Who among the following leaders formed a secret society called ‘Young Italy’?  (2020)
(a) 
Victor Emmanuel II
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Giuseppe Garibaldi.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy in 1831. This society aimed to promote the idea of a united and independent Italian republic. Mazzini believed that:

  • Italy should be unified and free from foreign control.
  • National unity was essential for Italian liberty.
  • God intended nations to be the natural units of mankind.

Thus, the correct answer is (b) Giuseppe Mazzini.


Q33: Why was Otto Von Bismarck considered the chief architect of German unification? Choose the correct option from the following:  (2020)
(a)
 He allied with Italy and France for the unification process.
(b) He granted autonomy to Prussia with the Conservatives.
(c) He carried the nation-building process with the army and the bureaucracy.
(d) He carried liberal and Romantic scholars for cultural movement.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Otto von Bismarck is regarded as the chief architect of German unification due to his pivotal role in the process. Key points include:

  • He led the movement for national unification after the failed liberal initiatives of 1848.
  • Bismarck utilised the Prussian army and bureaucracy to achieve his goals.
  • He orchestrated three significant wars against Austria, Denmark, and France, which ended in Prussian victories.
  • These victories were crucial in consolidating the German states into a unified nation.
  • In January 1871, Bismarck’s efforts culminated in the proclamation of the German Empire at Versailles.


Q34: Who was proclaimed as King of United Italy in 1861?  (2020)

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Ans: Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1861.

Despite this significant event:

  • Many Italians were unaware of the concept of a united Italy.
  • High illiteracy rates contributed to a lack of understanding of liberal-nationalist ideas.
  • Some peasants believed that “Italia” referred to Victor Emmanuel’s wife.


Q35: Choose the correctly matched pair from the following: 
(a) Otto von Bismarck – Germany 
(b) Napoleon – Spain 
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi – France 
(d) Bourbon Kings – Italy (CBSE 2020) 

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Ans: (a)
(a) Otto von Bismarck – Germany: Correct. Otto von Bismarck was the Prussian statesman who played a leading role in the unification of Germany in 1871, making him closely associated with German history.
(b) Napoleon – Spain: Incorrect. Napoleon Bonaparte was the Emperor of France, not Spain. Although he invaded and occupied parts of Spain, he is historically associated with France.
(c) Giuseppe Garibaldi – France: Incorrect. Giuseppe Garibaldi was an Italian nationalist and revolutionary leader who played a key role in the unification of Italy, not France.
(d) Bourbon Kings – Italy: Incorrect. The Bourbon dynasty primarily ruled France and Spain. Although a branch of the Bourbon family did rule the Kingdom of the Two Sicilies in southern Italy, they are not associated with Italy as a whole.
Therefore, the correctly matched pair is (a) Otto von Bismarck – Germany.


Q36: Ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism. Examine this statement. (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: The ideas of national unity in the early nineteenth century Europe allied to the ideology of liberalism in various ways: 
(1) With the invention of railway, mobility was stimulated resulting in harnessing economic interest for national unification. 
(2) The concept of government by consent was emphasised by liberals. 
(3) Liberals supported the creation of a unified economic territory. 
(4) Liberals stood for individual freedom and equality of all before law for the new middle class. 
(5) Liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and special privileges.

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Previous Year Questions 2019

Q37:  How had the Napoleonic code been exported to the regions under French control? Explain with examples.  (2019)

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Ans: The Napoleonic Code was drafted by a commission of four eminent jurists and entered into force in 1804. 

  • The Code was a major step in replacing the previous patchwork of feudal laws. It has a special place as it is one of the few documents that have influenced the whole world. 
  • The Napoleonic Code was not the first legal code to be established in a European country with a civil legal system; it was preceded by many but it was, however, the first modern legal code to be adopted with a pan-European scope, and it strongly influenced the law of many of the countries formed during and after the Napoleonic Wars. 
  • The Napoleonic Code influenced developing countries outside Europe, especially in the Middle East, attempting to modernize their countries through legal reforms.


Q38: Describe the role of Otto von Bismarck in the making of Germany.  (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: After Napoleon’s defeat in 1815, many Germans desired an independent Germany. The King of Prussia, Kaiser William I, appointed Chief Minister Bismarck to unify Germany under Prussian rule.

  • Bismarck was a determined leader who recognised the urgent need for unification. He began by modernising the army, even defying parliament to collect taxes. This approach became known as the “Blood and Iron” policy, earning him the title of the “Iron Chancellor”.
  • He significantly improved the army and encouraged the German populations of Schleswig and Holstein to revolt against Denmark. In 1864, Bismarck allied with Austria to defeat Denmark. Later, he also defeated Austria, leading to the formation of the North German Confederation.
  • Through skilled diplomacy, Bismarck managed to keep Italy, Russia, and Napoleon III of France from engaging in war.
  • The unification of Germany was completed under Kaiser William I in 1871. Germany then emerged as a leading power in Europe, expanding its colonial empire to enhance its economic interests and global influence.


Q39: Why was Otto von Bismarck considered as the architect of the unified Germany? (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Otto von Bismarck is regarded as the architect of a unified Germany due to his strategic leadership and military prowess. Key points include:

  • Bismarck utilised the Prussian army and bureaucracy to achieve unification.
  • He orchestrated three significant wars over seven years against AustriaDenmark, and France, all of which ended in Prussian victories.
  • In January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was declared the German Emperor in a ceremony at Versailles, marking the completion of unification.

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q40: What do you understand by Liberalism? Describe their ideas in the political, social, and economic spheres. Ideas of national unity in early-nineteenth-century Europe were closely allied to the ideology of liberalism. What did it mean for the middle class in France? Explain.  (2018)

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Ans:
(1) The term ‘liberalism’ is derived from the Latin word liber, meaning free. Thus, for the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law.

(2)
(a) Political ideas
(i) It emphasized the concept of government by consent.
(ii) Since the French Revolution, liberalism stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution and representative government through Parliament.
(iii) It did not necessarily stand for universal suffrage. Thus in the 19th and 20th centuries, movements were demanding equal political rights.
(b) Social ideas: The liberals supported the abolition of discrimination based on birth.
(c) Economic ideas: It supported the freedom of markets and the abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods and capital. During the 19th Century, this was a strong demand for the emerging middle classes.


Q41: Which power dominated the nation-building process in Germany?  (2018)

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Ans: The dominant power in the nation-building process in Germany was the Prussian State.

Also read: Unit Test: The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q42: Who founded the secret society, ‘Young Italy’, during the 1830s?  (Delhi 2017)

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Ans: During the 1830s, Giuseppe Mazzini had sought to put together a coherent program for a unitary Italian Republic. He formed a secret society called Young Italy.


Q43: Describe any three conditions that led to the formation of the British Nation-State. [CBSE Foreign-2017]

OR

In Britain, the formation of the nation-state was not the result of a sudden upheaval or revolution. Validate the statement with relevant arguments.    (CBSE Foreign-2017)

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Ans: The conditions that led to the formation of the British Nation State were:
(a) The primary identities of the people who inhabited the British Isles were ethnic ones – such as English, Welsh, Scot, or Irish. All of these ethnic groups had their own cultural and political traditions. But as the English nation steadily grew in wealth, importance, and power, it was able to extend its influence over the other nations of the islands.
(b) The English Parliament, which had seized power from the monarchy in 1688 at the end of a protracted conflict, was the instrument through which a nation-state, with England at its centre, came to be forged.
(c) The Act of Union (1707) between England and Scotland that resulted in the formation of the ‘United Kingdom of Great Britain’ meant, in effect, that England was able to impose its influence on Scotland. The British parliament was henceforth dominated by its English members.


Q44: ‘Ideas of national unity in early nineteenth-century Europe was closely allied to the ideology of liberalism’. Support the statement with arguments.    (CBSE Sample Paper-2017, CBSE (Comp) 2017)

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Ans: Liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasized the concept of government by consent.
(a) Derived from’ liber’ means free.
(b) Stood for freedom for all and equality for all before the law.
(c) Politically -Government by consent.
(d) Universal suffrage, the right to vote for all.
(e) The French Revolution stood for the end of autocracy and clerical privileges, a constitution, and a representative government through parliament.
(f) Struggles for equal political rights.
(g) It stressed on inviolability of private property.
(h) Freedom of markets and abolition of state restrictions.


Q45: Describe any three Economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1930s.

OR

Describe the great economic hardship that prevailed in Europe during the 1830s.

OR

The 1830s were years of great economic hardship in Europe. Explain how?

OR

“The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe”. Support the statement with arguments.    (CBSE (A1) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s :
(a) There was an enormous increase in population all over Europe. In most countries, there were more seekers of jobs than employment.
(b) Population from rural areas migrated to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
(c) Small producers in towns were often faced with stiff competition from imports of cheap machine-made goods from England.
(d) In those regions of Europe where the aristocracy still enjoyed power, peasants struggled under the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
(e) The rise of food prices or a year of bad harvest led to widespread pauperism in towns and countries.


Q46: ‘The idealistic liberal-democratic sentiment of nationalism became a narrow creed with limited ends.’ Support the statement in the context of Balkan nationalism in the early 19th century.    (CBSE Sample Paper-2017)

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Ans: The Balkans, which include modern-day RomaniaBulgariaAlbaniaGreeceMacedoniaCroatiaBosnia-HerzegovinaSloveniaSerbia, and Montenegro, experienced significant turmoil in the early 19th century due to various factors:

  • The disintegration of the Ottoman Empire and the rise of romantic nationalism created a volatile environment.
  • European nationalities began to break free from Ottoman control, seeking independence.
  • Balkan revolutionaries aimed to reclaim their long-lost independence.
  • Intense rivalry existed among Balkan states, each wanting to expand their territory at the expense of others.
  • Major European powers, including RussiaGermanyEngland, and Austro-Hungary, competed for influence in the region.

These tensions ultimately contributed to the outbreak of the First World War in 1914.


Q47: To which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong?    (CBSE (Comptt.) 2017)

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Ans: Frederic Sorrieu was an artist from France.


Q48: Why did French artist, Frederic Sorrieu prepare a series of prints based on democratic and socialist republics in 1848?    (CBSE Sample Paper-2017)

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Ans: Frédéric Sorrieu created a series of prints in 1848 to illustrate his vision of a world composed of democratic and socialist republics. His prints aimed to:

  • Show the peoples of the world as distinct nations.
  • Highlight their identities through flags and national costumes.
  • Pay homage to the Statue of Liberty, symbolising freedom and enlightenment.

In this way, Sorrieu expressed his hope for a united and peaceful world.


Q49: Analyse the measures and practices introduced by the French Revolution to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.
Or
Describe any five steps that were taken by the French Revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity among the French people.    (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: The French revolutionaries implemented several measures to foster a sense of collective identity among the French people:

  • The concepts of la Patrie (the fatherland) and le citoyen (the citizen) were introduced, promoting unity and equal rights.
  • A new national flag, the tricolour, replaced the royal standard.
  • The Estates-General was renamed the National Assembly, representing the active citizens.
  • New hymns were composed, oaths were taken, and martyrs were commemorated in the name of the nation.
  • centralised administrative system was established, creating uniform laws for all citizens.
  • Internal customs duties were abolished, facilitating trade.
  • A uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
  • The French language, as spoken in Paris, became the common language, discouraging regional dialects.
  • The revolutionaries aimed to liberate other European peoples from despotism, promoting the idea of nationhood.

These steps not only unified the French people but also inspired movements across Europe.


Q50: Who hosted the ‘Vienna Congress’ in 1815? Analyze the main changes brought by the ‘Vienna Treaty.’
OR
Describe the main clauses of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815.    (CBSE Delhi 2017)

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Ans: The main clauses of the Treaty of Vienna signed in 1815 were: Vienna Congress: The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor “Duke Metternich”.
(a) The Bourbon dynasty which had been deposed during the French Revolution was restored to power.
(b) France lost the territories it had annexed under Napoleon.
(c) A series of states were set up on the boundaries of France to prevent French extension in the future.
(d) Kingdom of the Netherlands including Belgium was set up.
(e) Prussia was given important new territories on its western frontiers.


Q51: Explain the nation-building process of Germany.
OR
Examine the Nation-State Building process in Germany after 1848.     (CBSE 2017, CBSE Sample Paper 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: German Unification
(a) After 1848, nationalism in Europe moved away from its association with democracy and revolution.
(b) Nationalist sentiments were often mobilized by conservatives for promoting state power and achieving political domination over Europe.
(c) Nationalist feelings were widespread among middle-class Germans in the 19th Century.
(d) In 1848 they tried to unite the different regions of the German confederation into a nation-state governed by an elected parliament.
(e) This liberal initiative to nation-building was repressed by the combined forces of the monarchy and the military, supported by the large landowners (called Junkers) of Prussia.
(f) Prussia took on the leadership of Otto von Bismarck, who became the architect of this process.
(g) Three wars over seven years – with Austria, Denmark, and France – ended in Prussian victory and completed the process of unification.
(h) On 18 January 1871, the Prussian king, William I, was declared the German Emperor in a ceremony at Versailles.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q52: What was the main aim of revolutionaries of Europe during the years following 1815?    (2016)

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Ans: The main aim of the revolutionaries in Europe after 1815 was to:

  • Oppose monarchial governments established after the Vienna Congress.
  • Promote the idea of a united community with equal rights.
  • Advocate for a constitution that guarantees freedom and liberty.


Q53: What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna 1815?   (2016)

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Ans: The main aim of the Treaty of Vienna (1815) was to:

  • Reverse changes made in Europe during the Napoleonic Wars.
  • Restore monarchies that had been overthrown.
  • Establish a new conservative order to prevent future conflicts.

Key outcomes included:

  • The restoration of the Bourbon dynasty in France.
  • France lost territories gained under Napoleon.
  • Creation of buffer states around France to limit its expansion.
  • New territories were allocated to Prussia and Austria.


Q54: What was the strong demand of the emerging middle classes in Europe during the nineteenth century?  (2016)

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Ans: The strong demand of the emerging middle classes in Europe during the nineteenth century was for:

  • Freedom of the markets
  • Abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods

This reflected their desire for a more open and competitive economic environment.


Q55: Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?  (2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed the German Emperor during a ceremony on 18 January 1871.

  • The event took place in the Hall of Mirrors at the Palace of Versailles.
  • It involved princes from various German states and key military representatives.
  • This proclamation marked the establishment of the German Empire.
  • The ceremony highlighted the dominance of Prussian state power in the unification of Germany.


Q56: What was the strong demand for the emerging middle classes in Europe during the nineteenth century?    (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: The strong demand from the emerging middle classes in Europe during the nineteenth century focused on:

  • The freedom of markets.
  • The abolition of state-imposed restrictions on the movement of goods.
  • The free movement of capital.

These demands were crucial for fostering economic growth and promoting trade.


Q57: What was the objective of the Treaty of Vienna? OR What was the main aim of the Treaty of Vienna 1815?    (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: The objective of the Treaty of Vienna in 1815 was to:

  • Reverse changes from the Napoleonic Wars.
  • Restore the Bourbon dynasty, which had been removed during the French Revolution.
  • Limit French expansion by establishing new states around France.
  • Reinstate conservative monarchies across Europe.

This treaty aimed to create a new conservative order, ensuring stability and preventing future revolutions.


Q58: What was the meaning of liberalism in the early 19th century in Europe?    (CBSE (F) 2016)

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Ans: The term liberalism is derived from the Latin word liber meaning free. Thus for the new middle classes, liberalism stood for freedom for the individual and equality of all before the law. Politically, it emphasized the concept of government by consent.


Q59: What does Metternich remark about events in France?  (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: Metternich remarked, “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches a cold”.


Q60: What was the main aim of revolutionaries of Europe during the years following 1815?    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The main aim of the revolutionaries in Europe after 1815 was to:

  • Oppose monarchical forms of government.
  • Promote liberty and freedom for individuals.
  • Establish nation-states as part of their struggle.


Q61: Name the Treaty of 1832 that recognized Greece as an independent nation.   (CBSE Delhi 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Treaty of 1832: Constantinople Treaty.


Q62: Name the event that mobilized nationalist feelings among the educated elite across Europe in 1830-1848.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Event that mobilized nationalist feelings: The Greek War of Independence.

This conflict, which began in 1821, was significant for several reasons:

  • Greece had been under the control of the Ottoman Empire since the 15th century.
  • The rise of revolutionary nationalism in Europe inspired the Greek struggle for independence.
  • Support came from Greeks in exile and many Western Europeans who admired ancient Greek culture.
  • Prominent figures, such as the English poet Lord Byron, raised funds and fought in the war, ultimately dying in 1824.
  • The conflict concluded with the Treaty of Constantinople in 1832, recognising Greece as an independent nation.


Q63: Who was proclaimed the King of United Italy in 1861?    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed King of United Italy in 1861.

Key points:

  • He became king after the unification of various Italian states.
  • This unification was largely influenced by the efforts of leaders like Cavour and Garibaldi.
  • Despite this achievement, many Italians were unaware of the concept of a unified Italy.


Q64: What is an Allegory? State any one example to clarify the same.    (CBSE Sample Paper-2016)

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Ans: Allegory: An allegory is a way of expressing an abstract idea through a person or object. It conveys deeper meanings beyond the literal interpretation.

Examples:

  • The Statue of Liberty represents freedom.
  • Marianne symbolises the French Republic.
  • Germania embodies the German nation.


Q65: Who remarked, “When France sneezes the rest of Europe catches a cold”.    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: Metternich remarked, “When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches a cold.” This statement highlights the significant influence of France on European affairs.


Q66: Who was proclaimed German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871?    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Kaiser William I of Prussia was proclaimed German Emperor during a ceremony held at the Palace of Versailles on 18 January 1871.

Key points about the event:

  • The ceremony took place in the Hall of Mirrors, attended by princes of German states and military representatives.
  • This event marked the establishment of the new German Empire, highlighting Prussian dominance in the nation-building process.
  • Otto von Bismarck, the chief minister of Prussia, played a crucial role in orchestrating this unification.


Q67: Explain the role of romanticism in the national feeling.
OR
“The development of nationalism did not come about only through wars and territorial expansion. Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation.” Elaborate upon the statement.    (CBSE Sample Paper-2016)

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Ans: Culture played an important role in creating the idea of the nation; art and poetry, stories and music. They all helped express and shape nationalist feelings.
(a) Romantic artists and poets created a sense of shared collective heritage, a common cultural past, as the basis of a nation.
(b) It was through folk songs, folk poetry, and folk dances that the true spirit of the nation was popularised.
(c) Emphasis was given to the vernacular language and the collection of folklore to carry the modern nationalist message to large audiences.


Q68: How had the female figures become an allegory of the nation during the nineteenth century in Europe? Analyze.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: The female figures became a powerful allegory of the nation during the nineteenth century in Europe. This transformation can be understood through the following points:

  • Representation: Artists depicted nations as female figures, allowing a country to be visualised as a person.
  • Symbolism: The female figure did not represent any specific woman but embodied the abstract idea of the nation.
  • Concrete Form: This personification provided a tangible representation of the nation.
  • Historical Context: During the French Revolution, artists used female allegories to express concepts like LibertyJustice, and the Republic.

For instance, in France, the female figure known as Marianne symbolised the nation, drawing characteristics from Liberty and the Republic, such as the red cap and tricolour. Statues of Marianne were placed in public spaces to remind citizens of their national identity.


Q69: “Culture had played an important role in the development of nationalism in Europe during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries.” Support the statement with examples.   (CBSE (F) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Culture played a vital role in the development of nationalism in Europe during the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. 
Here are some key points:

  • Expression of Nationalism: Art, poetry, stories, and music helped to express and shape nationalist feelings.
  • Shared Heritage: The focus was on creating a sense of a shared cultural past as the foundation of a nation.
  • Critique of Rationalism: Many artists and thinkers criticised the overemphasis on reason and science.
  • Folk Culture: German philosopher Johann Gottfried Herder promoted the spirit of the nation through folk songs, poetry, and dance.


Q70: “The decade of 1830 had brought great economic hardship in Europe.” Support that statement with arguments.

OR

Why was the decade of the 1830s known as the great economic hardship in Europe? Explain any three reasons.

OR

Describe any three economic hardships faced by Europe in the 1830s.    (CBSE 2016)

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Ans: The 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe due to the following reasons;
(a) There was an enormous increase in population all over Europe.
(b) There were more seekers of jobs than employment.
(c) People migrated from rural areas to the cities to live in overcrowded slums.
(d) There was stiff competition between the products of small producers and machine-made products imported from England.
(e) Peasants’ condition was bad due to the burden of feudal dues and obligations.
(f) The prices of food had risen due to a bad harvest. This resulted in widespread pauperism in town and country.


Q71: Analyze the measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries to create a sense of collective identity amongst the French people.    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

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Ans: Measures and practices introduced by the French revolutionaries for collective identity:
(a) The ideas of la Patrie and le citoyen are emphasized.
(b) A new French flag, the tri-color was chosen.
(c) The Estate General was elected by the active citizens.
(d) The elected body of active citizens renamed as National Assembly.
(e) New hymns were composed.
(f) Oaths were taken
(g) Martyrs commemorated.
(h) A centralized administrative system was implemented.
(i) Formulated uniform laws.
(j) A uniform system of weights and measures was adopted.
(k) French became the common language of the nation.


Q72: “Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field he had incorporated revolutionary principles in order to make the whole system more rational and efficient.” Analyze the statement with arguments.    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

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Ans: Napoleon had destroyed democracy in France but in the administrative field, he had incorporated revolutionary principles to make the whole system more rational and efficient.
(a) All privileges based on birth were removed.
(b) He had established equality before the law.
(c) Right to property was given.
(d) Simplified administrative divisions were made.
(e) The feudal system was abolished and freed peasants from serfdom and manorial dues.
(f) Guild restrictions were removed.
(g) Transport and communication systems were improved.


Q73: “Nationalism no longer retained its idealistic liberal democratic sentiment by the last quarter of the nineteenth century in Europe.” Analyze the statement with examples. (CBSE (F) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Nationalism in Europe- The Balkans:
(a) During this period, nationalist groups become increasingly intolerant of each other.
(b) Manipulations of the nationalist aspirations were there.
(c) The Balkan was under the control of the Ottoman Empire.
(d) Ideas of romantic nationalism spread in the Balkan.
(e) They claimed independence or political rights on nationality and used history to prove that they had once been independent but had subsequently been subjugated by foreign domination.
(f) Russia, Germany, England, Austria-hungry were keen on countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans.
(g) This led to a series of wars in the region and finally the First World War.

14. Previous Year Questions: Probability

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: If in a lottery, there are 10 prizes and 30 blanks, then the probability of winning a prize is:
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 3/4
(d) 2/3

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Ans: (a)
Given, number of prizes = 10 
Number of blanks = 30 
Total outcomes= 10 + 30 = 40 
∴ Probability of wining a prize = 10/40 = 1/4


Q2: A die is thrown once. The probability of getting a number which is not a factor of 36, is:
(a) 1/2
(b) 2/3
(c) 1/6
(d) 5/6

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
When a die is thrown, possible outcomes are 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. Out of them factors of 36 are 1, 2, 3, 4 and 6. 
Let E be the event ‘getting a number not a factor of 36. 
∴ E = {5}
∴ P(E) = 1/6


Q3: A card is selected at random from a deck of 52 playing cards. The probability of it being a red face card is:
(a) 3/13
(b) 2/13
(c) 1/2
(d) 3/26

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Total number of cards= 52
Number of red face cards = 6 
∴ P(Red face card) = 6/52 = 3/26


Q4: Assertion (A): The probability of selecting a number at random from the numbers 1 to 20 is 1. 
Reason (R) : For any event E, if P(E) = 1, then E is called a sure event. 
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
The probability of selecting a number at random from the numbers 1 to 20 is 1/20.
So, Assertion is false. 
For, P(E) = 1, E is called a sure event. 
So, Reason is true. 
Hence, Assertion is false, but Reason is true. 


Q5: Two coins are tossed simultaneously. The probability of getting at least one head is 
(a) 1/4
(b) 1/2
(c) 3/4
(d) 1

Hide Answer  

Ans:  (c)
Total outcomes on tossing two coins = {(H, H), {H, T), (T, H), (T, T)} 
Favourable outcomes= {{H, H), {H, T), (T, H)} 

Q6: In an experiment of throwing a die,
Assertion (A): Event E1:  getting a number less than 3 and Event E2 : getting a number greater than 3 are complementary events. 
Reason (R): If two events E and Fare complementary events, then P(E) + P(F) = 1.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) Q is true. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Clearly, reason is true.
On throwing a die, favourable outcomes are {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. 

∴ E1 and E2 are not complementary events. 
∴ Assertion is false. 


Q7: The probability of guessing the correct answer of a certain test question is x/12. If the probability of not guessing the correct answer is 5/6, then find the value of x.

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let A be the event of guessing the correct answer and A’ be the event of not guessing the correct answer. 


Q8: The number of red balls in a bag is three more than the number of black balls. If the probability of drawing a red ball at random from the given bag is 12/23, find the total number of balls in the given bag.

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Ans: 
Let the number of black balls be x. 
⇒ Number of red balls= x + 3 
∴ Total balls = x + x + 3 = 2x + 3 
Now, probability of drawing a red ball at random = 12/23

⇒ 23x + 69 = 24x + 36 
⇒ 24x – 23x = 69 – 36 
⇒ x = 33 
∴ Total Balls  = 2 × 33 + 3 = 69


Q9: If 65% of the population has black eyes, 25% have brown eyes and the remaining have blue eyes, what is the probability that a person selected at random has: 
(a) blue eyes? 
(b) brown or black eyes?

Hide Answer  

Ans: Probability that a person has black eyes = 65/100
Probability that a person has brown eyes = 25/100
(a) Probability that person selected has blue eyes =

(b) Probability that person selected has brown or black eyes =


Q10: All face cards of spades are removed from a pack of 52 playing cards and the remaining pack is shuffled well. A card is then drawn at random from the remaining pack. Find the probability of getting: 
(a) a face card 
(b) an ace or a jack

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Total number of cards in a deck = 52 
Number of face cards of spades in a deck = 3 
Number of cards left in the deck = 52 – 3 = 49 
(a) Total number of face cards left in the deck = 12 – 3 = 9 
Probability that the card drawn is a face card= 9/49 

(b) Number of a ace and jack cards left in the deck = 4 + 3 = 7 
Probability that the card drawn is an ace or a jack = 7/49 = 1/7


Q11: Three unbiased coins are tossed simultaneously. Find the probability of getting: 
(a) exactly two tails 
(b) at least one head 
(c) at most two heads

Hide Answer  

Ans: Possible outcomes are: {HHH, HHT, HTT, THT, HTH, TTT, TTH, THH} 
∴ Total number of possible outcomes= 8
(a) Favourable outcomes are {HTT, THT, TTH} i.e., 3 in number
∴ P(exactly two tails) = 3/8

(b) Favourable outcomes are {HTH, HHT, HTT, THT, HTH, TTH, THH} i.e., 7 in number 
∴ P(at least one head) = 7/8
(c) Favourable outcomes are {HHT, HTT, THT, TTT, HTH, TTH, THH} i.e., 7 in number 
∴ P(at most two heads) = 7/8


Q12: Two dice are rolled together. Find the probability of getting: 
(i) a multiple of 2 on one and a multiple of 3 on the other die. 
(ii) the product of two numbers on the top of the two dice is a perfect square number.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Total number of possible outcomes= 6 x 6 = 36 
(i) Favourable outcomes are (2, 3), (2, 6), (3, 2), (3, 6), (4, 3), (4, 6), (6, 2), (6, 3), (6, 4), (6, 6). 
∴ Probability of getting a multiple of 2 on one and a multiple of 3 on the other die = 10/36 = 5/18
(ii) Favourable outcomes are (1, 1), (2,2), (3,3), (4,4), (5, 5), (6, 6), (1, 4), (4, 1). · 
Probability of getting the product of two numbers on the top of the two dice is a perfect square number = 8/36 = 2/9


Q13: Two dice are thrown at the same time. Determine the probability that the difference of the numbers on the two dice is 2.

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Ans: When two dice are thrown at same time, total number of outcomes = 6 x 6 = 36 
Possible outcomes when difference of numbers on two dice is 2 
= {(1, 3), (2, 4), (3, 1), (3, 5), (4, 2), (4, 6), (5, 3), (6, 4)} 
Number of favourable outcomes= 8 


Q14: A bag contains some red and blue balls. Ten percent of the red balls, when added twenty percent of the blue balls, give a total of 24. If three times the number of red balls exceeds the number of blue balls by 20, find the number of red and blue balls.

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the number of red balls= x 
and number of blue balls= y 
According to question,

⇒ x + 2y = 240   … (i) 
Also, 3x – y = 20  … (ii) 
Multiply eqn (ii) by 2, then adding to eqn (i), we get 
6x – 2y + x + 2y = 40 + 240 
⇒ 7x = 280 ⇒ x = 40 
Put the value of x in eqn. (i), 
40 + 2y= 240 
⇒ 2y = 200 ⇒ y = 100 
Therefore, number of red balls is 40 and number of blue balls is 100. 

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: A bag contains 3 red balls, 5 white balls and 7 black balls. The probability that a ball drawn from the bag at random will be neither red nor black is:     (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/5
(c) 7/15
(d) 8/15

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
No. of red balls = 3 
No. of white balls = 5 
No. of black balls = 7 
Total balls = 15 
Probability that ball drawn is neither red nor black = 5/15 = 1/3


Q2: The probability of getting a bad egg in a lot of 400 eggs is 0.045. The number of good eggs in the lot is:      (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 18
(b) 180
(c) 382
(d) 220

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Probability of getting bad in the lot = 0.045 
Let the no. of bad eggs = x 
∴ Probability of bag eggs 
= No. of bad eggsTotal eggs

⇒ 0.045 = x/400
⇒ x = 400 × 0.045
⇒ x = 18 
No. of bad eggs = 18 
No. of good eggs = 400 – 18 
= 382


Q3: Two dice are thrown together. The probability that they show different numbers is:      (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 1/6
(b) 5/6
(c) 1/3
(d) 2/3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Total outcomes, when two dice are thrown 
= {(1, 1)(1, 2)(1, 3)(1, 4)(1, 5)(1, 6)
(2, 1)(2, 2)(2, 3)(2, 4)(2, 5)(2, 6)
(3, 1)(3, 2)(3, 3)(3, 4)(3, 5)(3, 6)
(4, 1)(4, 2)(4, 3)(4, 4)(4, 5)(4, 6)
(5, 1)(5, 2)(5, 3)(5, 4)(5, 5)(5, 6)
(6, 1)(6, 2)(6, 3)(6, 4)(6, 5)(6, 6)}
 Outcomes of showing same numbers = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (4, 4), (5, 5), (6, 6)}
No. of favourable outcomes = 36 – 6 = 30
Total outcomes = 36
So, P(E) = 30/36
= 5/6


Q4: Assertion (A): In a cricket match, a batsman hits a boundary 9 times out of 45 balls he plays. The probability that in a given ball, he does not hit the boundary is 4/5.
Reason (R): P(E) + P(not E) = 1.  (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A). 
(b) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true, but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A). 
(c) The assertion (A) is true, but the reason (R) is false. 
(d) The assertion (A) is false, but the reason (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Assertion: 
Total balls (outcomes) = 45 
No. of times boundaries hit = 9     
(E = hitting the boundary) = 9/45
= 1/5
∴ P(E= not hitting the boundary)
= 1 – 15 =  45
Reason: This is a fundamental property of probability:

The sum of the probability of an event P(E) and the probability of its complement P(not E) is always equal to 1.

Thus, Reason (R) is also true.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q5: In a group of 20 people. 5 can’t swim. If one person is selected at random, then the probability that he/she can swim is      (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 3/4
(b) 1/3
(c) 1
(d) 1/4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Total number of people = 20
Number of people who can’t swim = 5
Number of people who can swim = 20 – 5 = 15
∴ Required probability = 15/20 = 3/4


Q6: The probability of the occurrence of an event is denoted by p, and the probability of the non-occurrence of the event is denoted by q. The relation between p and q is       (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) p + q = 1
(b) p = 1, q = l
(c) p = q – 1    
(d) p + p + 1 = 0

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Probability of happening of an event + Probability of non – happening of an event
∴ p +q = 1


Q7: A girl calculates that the probability of her winning the first prize in a lottery is 0.08. If 6000 tickets are sold, how many tickets has she bought?      (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 40
(b) 240
(c) 480
(d) 750

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Probability of winning first prize = Ticket bought by girl  / Total ticket sold
⇒ 0.08 = Ticket bought by girl  / 6000
⇒ Ticket bought by girl = 0.08 x 6000 = 480


Q8: Two dice are thrown together. The probability of getting the difference of numbers on their upper faces equals 3 is 
(1 Mark) (CBSE, 2023)
(a) 1/9
(b) 2/9
(c) 1/6
(d) 1/12

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Total number of outcomes = 6 x 6 = 36
Favourable outcomes are {(1,4), (2, 5), (3, 6), (4, 1), |5. 2), (6.3)} i.e.,  6 in number
∴ Required probability = 6/36 = 1/6


Q9: A card is drawn at random from a well-shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability that the card drawn is not an ace is   (1 Mark)   (2023)
(a) 1/13
(b) 9/13
(c) 4/13
(d) 12/13

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Total number of cards = 52
Number of ace card =4
∴ Number of non ace card = 52 – 4 = 48
∴ Required probability = 48/52 = 12/13


Q10: DIRECTIONS: In the question, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason (R). Choose the correct option out of the following:       (1 Mark) (CBSE 2023)
Assertion (A): The probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays is 2/7.
Reason (R): The probability that a non-leap year has 53 Sundays is 5/7.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of Assertion (A).
(c) The assertion (A) is true, but the Reason (R) is false.
(d) The assertion (A) is false, but the Reason (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
The leap year has 366 days, i.e, 52 weeks and 2 days.
∴ Required probability = 2/7
The non-leap year has 365 days. i.e.. 52 weeks and 1 day.
∴ Required probability = 1/7
Therefore, assertion is true but reason is false.


Q11: A bag contains 5 red balls and n green balls. If the probability of drawing a green ball is three times that of a red ball, then the value of n is      (1 Mark)  (2023)
(a) 18
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 20

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Probability of drawing a green ball = 3 x Probability of drawing a red ball

n5 + n = 3 × 55 + n

Since 5+n is common and non-zero, we can cancel it.
n = 3×5∴ n = 15 


Q12: A bag contains 4 red, 3 blue and 2 yellow balls. One ball is drawn at random from the bag. Find the probability that the drawn ball is (i) red and (ii) yellow.       (2 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Number of red balls =4
Number of blue balls = 3
Number of yellow balls = 2
Total number of balls = 4 + 3 + 2= 9
(i) P(drawing a red balI) = 4/9
(ii) P(drawing a yellow ball) = 2/9


Q13: If a fair coin is tossed twice, find the probability of getting ‘almost one head. ‘        (2 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let A be the event of getting atmost one head, and S be the sample space.

S = (HH, HT, TH, TT) and A = (HT, TH, TT)

⇒ n(S) = 4
Also, n(A) = 3

Required probability = n(A) / n(S)
= 3/4

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q14: The probability of getting two heads when two fair coins are tossed together is       (2022)
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/4
(c) 1/2
(d) 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Sample space = {(H,H), (H,T), (T,H), (T,T)}
∴ Number of total outcomes = 4
Favourable outcomes = {(H,H)}
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 1
∴ Required probability = 1/4


Q15: In a single throw of a die. The probability of getting a composite number is       (2022)
(a) 1/3
(b) 1/2
(c) 2/3
(d) 5/6

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Sample space = (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6)
∴ Number of total outcomes = 6
Favourable outcomes = (4, 6)
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 2
∴ Required probability = 2/6 = 1/3


Q16: The probability that a non-leap year has 53 Wednesdays is       (2022)
(a) 1/7
(b) 2/7
(c) 5/7
(d) 6/7

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
We know that there are 52 complete weeks = 364 days
Since, it is non leap year.
So. there will be 52 Wednesdays and remaining 365th day may be any of the days of week
So, total number of ways = 7

∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 1
∴ Required probability = 1/7


Q17: From the letters of the word “MANGO”, a letter is selected at random. The probability that the letter is a vowel is       (2022)
(a) 1/5
(b) 3/5
(c) 2/5
(d) 4/5

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Total number of letters in the word MANGO are 5.
So, number of total outcomes = 5
Vowels in the word ‘MANGO’ are A, O
So, number of favourable outcomes = 2
∴ Required probability  = 2/5

Also read: PPT: Probability

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q18: Case study-based questions are compulsory. Attempt any 4 sub-parts from the question. Each sub-part carries 1 mark.       (2021)
During summer break, Harish wanted to play with his friends, but it was too hot outside, so he decided to play some indoor games with his friends. He collects 20 identical cards and writes the numbers 1 to 20 on them (one number on one card). He puts them in a box. He and his friends make a bet on the chances of drawing various cards out of the box. Each was given a chance to tell the probability of picking one card out of the box.
Based on the above, answer the following questions:
(i) The probability that the number on the card drawn is an odd prime number is
(a) 3/5
(b) 2/5
(c) 9/20
(d) 7/20

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Card numbered from {1,2, 3, …., 20}
Total number of possible outcomes = 20
Odd prime numbers from 1 to 20 = {3, 5, 7, 11,13,17,19)
Total number of favourable outcomes = 7
Hence, the probability that the number on the card drawn is an odd prime number = 7/20

(ii) The probability that the number on the card drawn is a composite number is
(a) 11/20
(b) 3/5
(c) 4/5
(d) 1/2   [2021, 1 Mark]

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Total number of composite numbers between 1 to 20 = [4, 6, 8, 9, 10, 12, 14, 15, 16, 18, 20)
Total number of favourable outcomes = 11
So, the probability that the number on the drawn card is a composite number = 11/20

∴ Required Probability = 11/20

(iii) The probability that the number on the card drawn is a multiple of 3, 6 and 9 Is
(a) 1/20
(b) 1/10
(c) 3/20
(d) 0

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Multiple of 3 = {3, 6, 9,12,15, 18}
Multiple of 6 = (6, 12, 18)
Multiple of 9 = (9, 18)
Total number of favourable outcomes = 1
Hence the probability that the card is a multiple of 3, 6 and 9 = 1/20
∴ Required Probability = 1/20

(iv) The probability that the number on the card drawn is a multiple of 3 and 7 is
(a) 3/10
(b) 1/10
(c) 0
(d) 2/5  [2021, 1 Mark]

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
 Multiple of 3 between 1 to 20 = {3, 6, 9, 12,15, 18}
Multiple of 7 between 1 to 20 = (7,14)
∴ Multiple of 3 and 7 = 0
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes = 0/20
∴ Required Probability = 0

(v) If all cards having odd numbers written on them are removed from the lie box and then one card is drawn from the remaining cards, the probability of getting a card having a prime number is
(a) 1/20
(b) 1/10
(c) 0
(d) 1/5

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
If all odd number cards are removed then remaining cards which are left = {2,4, 6, 8,10,12,14,16, 18, 20}
Now, prime number cards in remaining cards = 1
So, the probability of getting a prime number from the remaining cards = 1/10

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q19: The probability of an event that is sure to happen is  _______.       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The probability of an event that is sure to happen is 1.


Q20: If the probability of an event E happening is 0.023, then P(E) = ________. (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, P(E) =0.023
P(E) = 1- P(E) = 1 – 0.023 = 0.977


Q21: A letter of the English alphabet Is chosen at random. What Is the probability that the letter is a consonant?       (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of English alphabets = 26
Number of consonants = 26 – 5 = 21
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 21
P (chosen letter is a consonant) = 21/26


Q22: A die is thrown once. What is the probability of getting a number less than 3?        (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of outcomes = 6
Favourable outcomes are {1.2} i.e.. 2 in number
∴ Required probability = 2/6 = 1/3


Q23: If the probability of winning a game is 0.07, what is the probability of losing it?       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, probability of winning a game is 0.07
∴  Probability of losing it = 1 – 0.07 = 0.93


Q24: A jar contains 18 marbles. Some are red, and others are yellow. If a marble is drawn at random from the jar. The probability that it is red is  2/3. Find the number of yellow marbles in the jar.       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: There a re 18 marbles in the jar.
∴ Number of possible outcomes = 18
Let there are x yellow marbles in the jar.
∴ Number of red marbles = 18 – x
⇒ Number of favourable outcomes = (18 – x)
∴ Probability of drawing a red marble = (18 – x) / 18
Now. according to the question, = (18 – x) / 18 = 2/3
⇒ 3(18 – x ) = 2 x 18
⇒ 54 -3x  = 36
⇒ 3x = 18
⇒ x  = 6
So, number of yellow  marbles in jar = 6


Q25: A die is thrown twice. What is the probability that
(i) 5 will come up at least once, and
(ii) 5 will not come up either time?       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Since, throwing a die twice or throwing two dice simultaneously are same.
Possible outcomes are:

{(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6),

(2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6),

(3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6),

(4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6),

(5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6),

(6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)}

(i) Let N be the event that 5 will come up at least once, the number of favourable outcomes:

= 5 + 6

= 11

∴ P(N) = 1136

(ii) Let E be the event that 5 does not come up either time, then the number of favourable outcomes:

= [36 – (5 + 6)]

= 25

∴ P(E) = 2536


Q26: If a number x is chosen at random from the numbers -3, -2, -1, 0, 1, 2, 3. What is the probability that x2 ≤ 4?       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of outcomes = {-3, -2, -1,0, 1, 2, 3} i.e. 7.
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = (-2, 1, 0, 1, 2) i.e., 5.
∴ Required Probability = 5/7


Q27: Two dice are thrown simultaneously. What is the probability that the product of the numbers appearing on the top is 1? (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of possible outcomes = 36 
Only one outcome, i.e., (1, 1) has the product of the two numbers as 1. 
So, the required probability is 1/ 36 .


Q28: A Group Housing Society has 600 members who have their houses on the campus and decided to hold a Tree Plantation Drive on the occasion of the New Year. Each household was given the choice of planting saplings of its choice. The number of different types of saplings planted were: 
(1) Neem – 125 
(2) Peepal – 165 
(3) Creepers – 50 
(4) Fruit plants – 150 
(5) Flowering plants – 110 
At the opening ceremony, one of the plants is selected randomly for a prize. After reading the above passage, answer the following questions.
What is the probability that the selected plant is: 
(A) A fruit plant or a flowering plant? 
(B) either a Neem plant or a Peepal plant? (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Of the 600 plants, there are 150 fruit plants and 110 flowering plants.
So, required probability
= (150 + 110)600 = 260600 i.e., 1330
=(B) Of the 600 plants, there are 290 (125 + 165) plants which are either neem plants or peepal plants.
So, required probability = 290/600 i.e., 29/60


Q29: If a number x is chosen at random from the numbers –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3. What is the probability that x2 < 4? (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: All possible outcomes are –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3 
Favourable outcomes are – 1, 0, 1 (As x2 < 4) 
So, required probability = 3/7


Q30: Find the probability that a leap year selected at random will contain 53  Sundays and 53 Mondays. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: A leap year has 52 complete weeks + 2 days. 
These two days may be 
(Sun, Mon), (Mon, Tue), (Tue, Wed), (Wed, Thu), (Thu, Fri), (Fri, Sat) and (Sat, Sun). 
Of the 7 possible outcomes, only 1 
i.e., (Sun, Mon) is the favourable outcome. 
So, required probability is 1/7


Q31: A game in a booth at a Diwali fair involves using a spinner first. Then, if the spinner stops on an even number, the player is allowed to pick a marble from a bag. The spinner and the marbles in the bag are represented in the figure.
Prizes are given when a black marble is picked. Shweta plays the game once.

(A) What is the probability that she will be allowed to pick a marble from the bag?
(B) Suppose she is allowed to pick a marble from the bag; what is the probability of getting a prize, when it is given that the bag contains 20 marbles out of which 6 are black? (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Shweta will be allowed to pick up a marble, only when the spinner stops on an even number. 
P(getting an even number) = 5 / 6 
Hence, the probability that she will be allowed to pick a marble from the bag is 5 / 6 
(B) P (getting a black marble) = 6 / 20 , or 3 / 10 . 
∴ Probability of getting a prize is 3 / 10 .

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Previous Year Questions 2019

Q32: Cards numbered 7 to 40 were put in a box. Poonam selects a card at random. What is the probability that Poonam selects a card which is a multiple of 7?       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Cards are numbered from 7 to 40. i.e. {7,8,9, ……, 40}
So, total number of outcomes = 34
Multiple of 7 lies between 7 to 40 are {7, 14, 21, 28, 35}
∴ Total number of favourable outcomes= 5
∴ Required probability = 5/34


Q33: A card is drawn at random from a pack of 52 playing cards. Find the probability of drawing a card that is neither a spade nor a king.       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of cards = 52
Total number of spade cards = 13
Total number of king cards = 4
Total number of spade cards and king cards = 13 + 4 – 1 = 16
[One card is subtracted as it is already included as a king of spade]
∴ Probability of drawing a spade or king card = 16/52
So, probability of drawing a card which is neither a spade nor a king = 1- 16/52
= 9/13


Q34: A pair of dice is thrown once. Find the probability of getting
(i) there is an even number on each dice
(ii) a total of 9.       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: If a pair of dice is thrown once, then possible outcomes are:

{(1,1), (1,2), (1,3), (1,4), (1,5), (1,6),

(2,1), (2,2), (2,3), (2,4), (2,5), (2,6),

(3,1), (3,2), (3,3), (3,4), (3,5), (3,6),

(4,1), (4,2), (4,3), (4,4), (4,5), (4,6),

(5,1), (5,2), (5,3), (5,4), (5,5), (5,6),

(6,1), (6,2), (6,3), (6,4), (6,5), (6,6)}
∴ Number of possible outcomes are 36.
(i) Total possible outcomes of getting even number on each die
= {( 2, 2), ( 2, 4 ), ( 2, 6 ), ( 4, 4 ), (4, 6), (6, 6). (6, 2), (6, 4 ), (4, 2)}
Number of favourable outcomes = 9
∴ Required probability of getting an even number on each die = 9/36 = 1/4
(ii) Total possible outcomes of getting a total of 9
= {(3, 6), (4, 5), ( 5, 4), (6, 3)} which are 4 in number.
∴ Probability of getting a total of 9 = 4/36 = 1/9


Q35: A bag contains some balls, of which x are white, 2x are black, and 3x are red. A ball is selected at random. What is the probability that it is       (2019)
(i) not red
(ii) white?

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, total number of balls = x + 2x + 3x = 6x
Total number of outcomes =6x
 (i) Number of favourable outcomes = 3x
∴ Probability of getting red ball = 3x /6x = 1/2
Now, probability of not getting red ball = 1-1/2 = 1/2
∴ Required probability = 1/2
(ii) Total number of favourable outcomes = x
∴ Probability of getting white ball = x / 6x
∴ Required probability = 1/6


Q36: A die is thrown once. Find the probability of getting a number which
(i) is a prime number
(ii) lies between 2 and 6.       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total possible outcomes are f 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, i.e., 6 in number.
(i) Favourable outcomes are {2, 3, 5} i.e.. 3 in number.
∴ P (getting a prime number) = 3/6 = 1/2
(ii) Favourable outcomes are {3, 4, 5} i.e., 3 in number.
∴ P(getting a number lying between 2 and 6) = 3/6 = 1/2


Q37: A game consists of tossing a coin 3 times and noting the outcome each time. If getting the same result in all the tosses is a success, find the probability of losing the game.      (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: When a coin is tossed 3 times, then total possible outcomes are 
{HHH, HHT, HTH, THH, HTT, THT, TTH, TTT}
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 8
Possible outcomes to lose the game are {HHT, HTH, THH, HTT,THT, TTH}
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 6
∴ Required Probability = 6/8 = 3/4


Q38: Cards marked with numbers 5 to 50 (one number on one card) are placed in a box and mixed thoroughly. One card is drawn at random from the box. Find the probability that the number on the card taken out is
(i) a prime number less than 10,
(ii) a number which is a perfect square.       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of cards = 50 – 5 + 1 = 46 
∴ Total number of possible outcomes = 46
(i) Prime numbers less than 10 are 5, 7.
So, number of favourable outcomes = 2
∴ P(getting a prime number less than 10) = 2/46 = 1/23
(ii) Perfect squares from 5 to 50 are 9, 16, 25,  36, 49 i.e., 5 in number.
∴ P (getting a number which is a perfect square) =5/46


Q39: A child has a die whose 6 faces show the letters given below:
The die is thrown once: What is the probability of getting (i) A (ii) B?       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of faces in a die = 6
(i) Number of favourable outcomes = 3
∴ P(getting A) = 3/6 = 1/2
(ii) Number of favourable outcomes = 2
∴ P (getting B)  = 2/6 = 1/3

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q40: A number is selected at random from the natural numbers 1 to 20. Find the probability that the selected number is a prime number. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Total number of outcomes = 20 
Let, E be the event that a number selected is a prime number. 
Since, the prime number between 1 to 20 (or favourable cases) are 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19 
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 8
∴ P(E) = Number of  favourable outcomes /  Total number of outcomes
= 8/20 = 2/5
Hence, the required probability is 2/5


Q41: A number is chosen at random from the numbers –3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3. What will be the probability that the square of this number is less than or equal to 1? (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The given numbers are {–3, –2, –1, 0, 1, 2, 3} 
The square of these numbere are {9, 4, 1, 0, 1, 4, 9} 
∴ Total numbers of outcomes = 7 
The square of numbers that are less than or equal to 1 = {-1, 0, 1}
∴ Number of favourable outcomes = 3 
P(getting a square of a number less than or equal to 1) = 3 / 7 
Hence, the required probability is 3 / 7 .


Q42: A lot consists of 144 ball pens, of which 20 are defective. The customers will buy a ballpoint pen if it is good but will not buy a defective ballpoint pen. The shopkeeper draws one pen at random from the lot and gives it to a customer. What is the probability that 
(A) customer will buy the ball pen? 
(B) customer will not buy the ball pen? (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Total number of ball pens = 144 
∴Total number of outcomes is 144. 
Also, the number of defective ball pens = 20 
∴ Non-defective ball pens = 144 – 20 = 124 (A) 
Let E1 be the event that customer will buy a ball pen i.e., ball pen is non-defective. 
∵Total number of non-defective pens = 124
∴ P(E1) = 124144 = 3136
Hence, the probability that customer will buy the ball pen is 31 / 36 .
(B) Probability of not buying the ball pen 
= 1 – Probability of buying the ball pen 
= 1 – P(E1
= 1 – 31 / 36 
= 5 / 36 
Hence, the probability that the customer will not buy the ball pen is 5 / 36


Q43: From a pack of 52 playing cards, Jacks and Kings of red colour and Queens and Aces of black colour are removed. The remaining cards are mixed, and a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the drawn card is: 
(A) a black queen. 
(B) a card of red colour. 
(C) a Jack of black colour. 
(D) a face card. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Number of cards removed = (2 + 2 + 2 + 2) = 8 
Total number of remaining cards = (52 – 8) = 44 
Now, there are 2 jacks and 2 kings of black colour and 2 queens and 2 aces of red colour left. 
(A) Number of black queens = 0 
∴ P(getting a black queen) = 0 / 44 = 0 
(B) Number of red cards = 26 – 4 = 22 
∴ P(getting a red card) = 22 / 44 = 1/ 2 
(C) Number of jacks of black colour = 2 
∴ P(getting a black jack) = 2 / 44 = 1 / 22
(D) We know that jacks, queens and kings are face cards. 
∴ Number of remaining face cards = (2 + 2 + 2) = 6 
∴ P(getting a face card) = 6/44 = 3 / 22

Also read: PPT: Probability

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q44: In the figure, a disc is shown on which a player spins an arrow twice. The function a / b  is formed, where ‘a’ is the number of sectors on which the arrow stops on the first spin and ‘b’ is the number of the sectors in which the arrow stops on the second spin. On each spin, each sector has an equal chance of selection by the arrow. Find the probability that the fraction a / b > 1 (CBSE 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  For a / b > 1, 
When a = 1, b can not take any value. 
When a = 2, b can take one value i.e., 1.
When a = 3, b can take two values i.e., 1, 2. 
When a = 4, b can take three values i.e., 1, 2, 3. 
When a = 5, b can take four values i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4. 
When a = 6, b can take five values i.e., 1, 2, 3, 4, 5. 
Here, total number of possible outcomes is same as when we throw a dice twice. 
∴ Total possible outcomes = 36
∴ P ( ab > 1 ) = 1 + 2 + 3 + 4 + 536

= 15/36
= 5 / 12
Hence, the required probability is 5 / 12

13. Previous Year Questions: Statistics

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: The mean of seven observations is 17. If the mean of the first four observations is 15 and that of the last four observations is 18, then the fourth observation is: 
(a) 14
(b) 13
(c) 12
(d) 10

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Let x1, x2, x3 , x4, x5, x6 and x7 be first seven observations. 


Adding (ii) and (iii) and then subtract (i), we get
(x1 + x2 + x3 + x4) + (x4 + x5 + x6 + x7) – (x1 + x2 + x3 + x4 + x5 + x6 + x7) = 60 + 72 – 119
⇒ x4 = 13


Q2: If the mean of 2, 9, x + 6, 2x + 3, 5, 10, 5 is 7, then the value of x is: 
(a) 9
(c) 5
(b) 6
(d) 3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Given mean= 7


Q3: If the maximum number of students has obtained 52 marks out of 80, then 
(a) 
52 is the mean of the data. 
(b) 
52 is the median of the data.
(c) 
52 is the mode of the data. 
(d) 
52 is the range of the data.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) 


Q4: Mode and Mean of a data are 15x and 18x, respectively. Then the median of the data is : 
(a) x
(b) 11x 
(c) 17x
(d) 34x

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Using empirical formula, 
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean 
⇒ 15x = 3 Median – 2(18x) 
⇒ 3 Median = 15x + 36x
⇒ 3 Median = 51x 
⇒ Median= 17x


Q5: If the mode of some observation is 10 and sum of mean and median is 25, then the mean and median respectively are
(a) 12 and 13
(c) 13 and 12
(b) 10 and 15
(d) 15 and 10

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Given, Mode = 10 
Mean+ Median= 25
By Empirical formula, 
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean 
⇒ 10 = 3(25 – Mean) – 2 Mean 
⇒ 5 Mean= 65 ⇒ Mean= 13 
∴ Median= 25 – 13 = 12


Q6: Case Study: The India Meteorological Department observes seasonal and annual rainfall every year in different sub-divisions of our country. It helps them to compare and analyse the results. 
The table below shows sub-divisions wise seasonal (monsoon) rainfall (in mm) in 2023. 
Based on the information given above, answer the following questions :
(i) Write the modal class.  (1 Mark)
(ii) (a) Find the median of the given data.  (2 Marks)

OR

(b) Find the mean rainfall in the season.  (2 Marks)
(iii) If a sub-division having at least 800 mm rainfall during monsoon season is considered a good rainfall sub-division, then how many sub-divisions had good rainfall ? (1 Mark)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

(i) Class corresponding to maximum frequency 7 is 600-800 
∴ Modal class is 600-800. 
(ii) (a) Here, N/2 = 24/2 = 12
The cumulative frequency just greater than 12 is 14 and corresponding class is 600 – 800. 
∴ Median class is 600-800. 
Here, I= 600, N/2 = 12, f = 7, c.f = 7, h = 200


OR
(ii) (b) 
(iii) As a sub-division having at least 800 mm rainfall is considered as a good rain fall. Number of sub divisions that had good rain fall =4+3+3=10


Q7: The lengths of 40 leaves of plant are measured correct to the nearest millimeter, and the data obtained is r epresented in the following table: 
Find the median length of the leaves.

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here, the class intervals are not in inclusive form. So, we first convert them in inclusive form by subtracting 0.5 from lower limit and adding 0.5 to the upper limit. The given frequency distribution in inclusive form is as follows:
Here, N/2 = 40/2 = 20
⇒ Median class is 144.5-153.5
Here, I= 144.5, h = 9, c.f. = 17, f = 12 

Hence, the median length of the leaves is 146.75 mm.


Q8: Following distribution shows the marks of 230 students in a particular subject. If the median marks are 46, then find the values of x and y. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Median= 46, N = 230, h = 10 
∴ Median class= 40 – 50 ⇒ I = 40

∴ 150 + x + y = 230 ⇒ x + y = 80    ..(i)
∴ f = 65 and c = 42 + x

Using equation (i), 
∴ we get y = 80 – 34 = 46 
∴ x = 34 and y = 46

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Vocational training complements traditional education by providing practical skills and 

From the above answer the following questions: (4 & 5 Marks) (CBSE 2024)
(A) What is the lower limit of the modal class of the above data?
(B) Find the median class of the above data.
OR
Find the number of participants of age less than 50 years who undergo vocational training.
(C) Give the empirical relationship between mean, median and mode. 

Hide Answer  

Ans:
First convert the given table in exclusive form subtract 0.5 from lower limit and add 0.5 to upper limit, so the new table will be:

(i) Modal class is the class with highest frequency, so, it is 19.5 – 24.5. hence, lower limit will be ‘19.5’.
(ii) (a)

N/2 = 365/2 = 182.5
Medium class will be 19.5 – 24.5.
OR
(b) Approx 361 participants are there at Class Interval 44.5-49.5 showing 361 cummulative frequency.
Hence 361 participants are less than 50 year of age who undergo vocational training.
(iii) Empirical relationship between mean, median and mode.
Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q2: If the value of each observation of statistical data is increased by 3. then the mean of the data   (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) remains unchanged
(b) increases by 3
(c) increases by 6
(d) increases by 3n

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
New Mean = Old Mean + 3
If each value of observation is increased by 3. then mean is also increased by 3.


Q3: For the following distribution.    (1 Mark) (2023)

The sum of the lower limits of the median and modal class is
(a) 15
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 35

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Here, n/2 = 66/2 = 33
Cumulative frequency just greater than 33 is 37.
So. median class is 10 – 15. Lower limit of median class = 10
Highest frequency is 20 so modal class is 15 – 20.
Sum of the lower limits of the median and modaI class is 10 + 15 = 25 


Q4: India’s meteorological department observes seasonal and annual rainfall every year in different subdivisions of our country.

It helps them to compare and analyse the results. The table given below shows sub-division-wise seasonal (monsoon] rainfall [mm) in 2018:

Based on the above information, answer the following questions.
(I) Write the modal class.
(II) Find the median of the given data.

OR
Find the mean rainfall in this season.
(Ill) If a sub-division having at least 1000 mm rainfall during monsoon season, is considered a good rainfall sub-division, then how many sub-divisions had good rainfall?    (4/5/6 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

(i) Here, maximum class frequency is 7 and class corresponding to this frequency is 600-800, so the modal class is 600-800.
(ii) Here n/2 = 24/2 = 12
Class whose cumulative frequency just greater than and nearest to n/2 is called median class.
Here, cf. = 13 (>12) and corresponding class 600 – 800 is : median class.
1 = 600. c.f. = 6,f= 7, h = 200
∴ Median = l + n2 – c.f.f × h

= 600 + 12 – 67 × 200

= 600 + 67 × 200

= 771.429So. the median of the given data is 771.429OR

Assumed mean a = 1100 and class size, h = 400 – 200 = 200
∴ Mean = a + h∑ fi [∑ fi ui]

= 1100 + 20024 × (-30)

= 1100 – 600024

= 850So, mean rainfall in the season is 850 mm.
(iii)  Number of sub-division having good rainfall
= 2 + 3 +1 + 1 = 7


Q5:  The monthly expenditure on milk in 200 families of a Housing Society is given below

Find the value of x and also, find the median and mean expenditure on milk.     (4/5/6 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Since, 200 = 172 + x ⇒ x = 28
Let the assumed mean, a = 3250 and class size, h = 500

Mean( x̄ ) = a + h × 1n ∑ fi ui

= 3250 + 500 × 1200 × (-235)

= 3250 – 587.5 = 2,662.5

Mean expenditure = ₹ 2,662.5

Also, we have n/2 = 100, which lies in the class interval 2500 – 3000.

Median class is 2500 – 3000.

Here l = 2500, c.f. = 97, f = 28, h = 500

Median = l + n2 – c.f.f × h

= 2500 + 100 – 9728 × 500

= 2500 + 328 × 500

= 2553.57

∴ Median expenditure = ₹ 2553.57


Q6: For the following distribution:

The modal class is: 
(a) 10–20
(b) 20–30
(c) 30–40 
(d) 50–60   (1 Mark) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Step 1: Identify the Class Intervals
The table provided shows cumulative frequencies for marks below certain values:

  • Marks below 10: 3 students
  • Marks below 20: 12 students
  • Marks below 30: 27 students
  • Marks below 40: 57 students
  • Marks below 50: 75 students
  • Marks below 60: 80 students

To find the frequencies for each class, we calculate the difference between consecutive cumulative frequencies:

  1. 10−20: 12−3=9
  2. 20−30: 27−12=15
  3. 330−40: 57−27=30
  4. 40−50: 75−57=18
  5. 50−60: 80−75=5

So, the frequencies for each interval are:

  • 10−20: 9
  • 20−30: 15
  • 30−40: 30
  • 40−50: 18
  • 550−60: 5

Step 2: Determine the Modal Class
The modal class is the class interval with the highest frequency. From the calculated frequencies, the highest frequency is 30, which corresponds to the class interval 30−40.
The modal class is: (c) 30−40.

Also read: Important Definitions & Formulas: Statistics

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q7: If the mean of the following frequency distribution is 10.8. then find the value of p:    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Table for the given data is as follows:

Now Mean =

10.8 = (2 × 3) + (6 × p) + (10 × 5) + (14 × 8) + (18 × 2)3 + p + 5 + 8 + 2

Solving for p:

10.8 = 6 + 6p + 50 + 112 + 3618 + p

10.8 = 204 + 6p18 + p

(10.8)(18 + p) = 204 + 6p

194.4 + 10.8p = 204 + 6p

4.8p = 9.6

p = 9.64.8

p = 2


Q8: Find the mean of the following frequency distribution:    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Midpoint = Lower Limit + Upper Limit2

For the given class intervals:

  • Midpoint of 0-10: 0 + 102 = 5
  • Midpoint of 10-20: 10 + 202 = 15
  • Midpoint of 20-30: 20 + 302 = 25
  • Midpoint of 30-40: 30 + 402 = 35
  • Midpoint of 40-50: 40 + 502 = 45
  • Midpoint of 50-60: 50 + 602 = 55

Now, we’ll multiply each midpoint by its corresponding frequency, sum up these products, and divide by the total frequency to find the mean:

Mean = ∑ (Midpoint × Frequency)Total Frequency

So, the mean is:

Mean = (5 × 12) + (15 × 18) + (25 × 27) + (35 × 20) + (45 × 17) + (55 × 6)

= 60 + 270 + 675 + 700 + 765 + 330

Mean = 2800100

Mean = 28


Q9: The weights (in kg) of 50 wild animals of a National Park were recorded and the following data was obtained is

Find the mean weight (in kg) of animals, using the assumed mean method.    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the assumed mean, a = 125 We have the frequency distribution table for the given data as follows :

∴ Mean ( x̄ ) = a + 1N ∑ fi di

= 125 + 150 × (-60)

= 125 – 6050

= 125 – 1.2 = 123.8Hence, mean weight of animals = 123.8 kg.


Q10: The mean of the following frequency distribution is 25. Find the value off.    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The frequency distribution table from the given data is as follows:

∴ Mean ( x̄ ) = ∑ fi xi∑ fi

⇒ 25 = 940 + 35f44 + f     [∵ Given, mean = 25]

⇒ 25(44 + f) = 940 + 35f

⇒ 1100 + 25f = 940 + 35f

⇒ 10f = 160

⇒ f = 16Hence, the value of f is 16.


Q11: Find the mean of the following data using the assumed mean method.   [2022, 2 Marks]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the assumed mean, a = 12.5 .-. d
⇒ d = xi – a = xi – 12.5  
Now, we have the frequency distribution table as follows:

∴ Mean ( x̄ ) = a + 1N ∑ fi di

= 12.5 + 7050

= 12.5 + 1.4= 13.9


Q12: The mode of a grouped frequency distribution is 75 and the modal class is 65-80. The frequency of the class preceding the modal class is 6 and the frequency of the class succeeding the modal class is 8. Find the frequency of the modal class.     (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We know that

Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h … (i)

Here given l = 65, f0 = 6, f1 = f, h = 15, f2 = 8 and mode = 75

So, from equation (i), we get

75 = 65 + f – 62f – 6 – 8 × 15

75 = 65 + f – 62f – 14 × 15

75 – 65 = (f – 6) × 152f – 14

(2f – 14) × 10 = 15f – 90

⇒ 20f – 15f = -90 + 140

⇒ 5f = 50

∴ f = 10


Q13: Find the missing frequency ‘x ‘ of the following data, if its mode is 240:    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here the given mode = 240, which lies in interval 200-300.
l = 200, f0 = 230, f1= 270, f2 = x (missing frequency] and h = 100

∴ Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

240 = 200 + 270 – 2302 × 270 – 230 – x × 100

240 = 200 + 40310 – x × 100

⇒ 240 – 200 = 4000310 – x

⇒ 40 = 4000310 – x

⇒ 310 – x = 100

⇒ x = 310 – 100 = 210

Missing frequency, x = 210


Q14: If the mode of the following frequency distribution is 55, then find the value of x.     (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here, mode of the frequency distribution = 55.
which lies in the class interval 45-60.
∴ Modal class is 45 – 60
Lower limit (l) = 45
Class interval (h) = 15
Also, f 0 = 15, f 1 = x and f 2 = 10

Mode = l + f0 – f12f0 – f1 – f2 × h

⇒ 55 = 45 + 15 – x30 – x – 10 × 15

⇒ 55 – 45 = 15(15 – x)30 – x – 10

⇒ 10(30 – x – 10) = 225 – 15x

⇒ 300 – 10x – 100 = 225 – 15x

⇒ 5x = 25
⇒ x = 5


Q15: Heights of 50 students in class X of a school are recorded and the following data is obtained:     (2022)

Find the median height of the students. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: The cumulative frequency distribution table is as follows:


Now, we have N = 50

⇒ N2 = 502 = 25

Since, the cumulative frequency just greater than 25 is 27.

∴ The median class is 140 – 145

And also, l = 140, c.f. = 15, f = 12 and h = 5

∴ Median = l + N2 – c.f.f × h

= 140 + 25 – 1512 × 5

= 140 + 1012 × 5

= 140 + 4.16 = 144.16

∴ Median height of the students = 144.16 cm.


Q16: Health insurance is an agreement whereby the insurance company agrees to undertake a guarantee of compensation for medical expenses in case the insured faffs ill or meets with an accident that leads to the Hospitalisation of the insured. The government also promotes health insurance by providing a deduction from income tax.
An SB I health insurance agent found the following data for the distribution of ages of 100 policyholders.
The health insurance policies are given to persons aged 15 years and onwards briefest than 60 years.

(i) Find the modal age of the policy holders.
(ii) Find the median age of the policy holders.     (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) It is clear from the given data, maximum frequency is 33. which lies in 35 – 40
∴ Modal class is 35 – 40.

So, l = 35, f0 = 21, f1 = 33, f2 = 11, and h = 5

∴ Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

So, modal age of policy holders

= 35 + 33 – 212 × 33 – 21 – 11 × 5

= 35 + 1234 × 5

= 35 + 6034

= 35 + 1.76

= 36.76 (approx)

So, modal age of policy holders is 37 years approx.

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Previous Year Questions 2021

Q17: During the annual sports meet in a school, all the athletes were very enthusiastic. They all wanted to be the winner so that their house could stand first. The instructor noted down the time taken by a group of students to complete a certain race. The data recorded is given below:

Based on the above, answer the following questions:    (2021)

We need to make the following frequency table as follows:

(i) What is the class mark of the modal class?
(a) 60
(b) 70
(c) 80
(d) 140

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Here the greatest frequency is 7, which lies in the interval 60-80.
So, modal class is 60-80.
Class mark of modal class = upper limit + lower limit / 2
= 60 + 80 / 2 = 70
So, class mark of modal class is 70.

(ii) The mode of the given data is
(a) 70-33
(b) 71-33
(c) 72-33
(d) 73-33

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

h = 20, l = 60, f1 = 7, f0 = 3, f2 = 5

∴ Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

= 60 + 7 – 32 × 7 – 3 – 5 × 20

= 60 + 46 × 20

= 60 + 13.33

Mode = 73.33

(iii) The median class of the given data is
(a) 20-40
(b) 40-60
(c) 80-100  
(d) 60-80

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Here n = 20 ⇒ n /2 = 10
Cumulative frequency just greater than 10 is 15 and corresponding interval is 60-80.
So, median class is 60-80.

(iv) The sum of the lower limits of median class and modal class is 1
(a) 80
(b) 140
(c) 120 
(d) 100

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Median class = 60-80 .
∴ Lower limit of median = 60
Modal class – 60-80 = 120
∴ Lower limit of modal class = 60
So, the sum of lower limit of median and modal class = 60 + 60 = 120

(v) The median time (in seconds) of the given data is
(a) 65-7 
(b) 85-7 
(c) 45-7 
(d) 25-7

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
From the above  data, we have
l = 60, f = 7, c.f. = 8, h = 20

∴ Median = l + n2 – c.f.f × h

= 60 + 202 – 87 × 20

= 60 + 10 – 87 × 20

= 60 + 407

= 60 + 5.714

= 65.71 (approx)

So, median time (in sec) of the given data = 65.7 sec.

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q18: If the mean of the first n natural number, is 15, then find n.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, mean of first n natural numbers is 15.

⇒ 1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + nn = 15

⇒ 1 + 2 + 3 + ….. + n = 15n

⇒ n(n + 1)2 = 15n

⇒ n² + n = 30n

⇒ n² – 29n = 0

⇒ n(n – 29) = 0

⇒ n = 29 [n ≠ 0]


Q19: In the formula  , What is ui?   (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In the formula


where a is assumed mean and h = class size.


Q20: Find the mean of the following distribution:    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  The frequency distribution table from the given data can be drawn as :

∴ Mean = 326/40 = 8.15


Q21: Find the mode of the following distribution:     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: From the given data, we have maximum frequency 75. which lies in the interval 20-25.
Modal class is 20-25
So, l = 20, f0= 30, f1 = 75,  f2= 20, h = 5

∴ Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

= 20 + 75 – 302(75) – 30 – 20 × 5

= 20 + 45100 × 5
Mode = 20 + 2.25
= 22.25


Q22: Find the mode of the following distribution:     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: From the given data, we have maximum frequency 12.
which lies in the interval 30-40
Modal class is 30-40
So, l = 30, f0= 12, f1 = 7,  f2= 5, h = 10

Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

= 30 + 12 – 72 × 12 – 7 – 5 × 10

= 30 + 524 – 12 × 10

= 30 + 5012

= 30 + 4.17

= 34.17


Q23: Find the mode of the following distribution:     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: From the given data, we have maximum frequency 12.
which lies in the interval 60-80.
Modal class is 60-80
So, l = 60, f0= 12, f1 = 10,  f2= 6, h = 20

Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

= 60 + 12 – 102 × 12 – 10 – 6 × 20

= 60 + 224 – 16 × 20

= 60 + 28 × 20

= 60 + 5

= 65


Q24: The mean and median of distribution are 14 and 15 respectively. The value of mode is    (2020)
(a) 16
(b) 17
(c) 13
(d) 18 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
We know that Mode = 3 Median – 2 Mean
So, Mode = 3 x  15 – 2 x 14
= 45 – 28 = 17 


Q25: The distribution given below shows the number of wickets taken by bowlers in one-day cricket matches. Find the mean and the median of the number of wickets taken.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The frequency distribution table for the given data can be drawn as:

Mean = ∑ fi xi∑ fi = 564045 = 125.33

Here, N2 = 452 = 22.5

∴ Median class is 100-140.

Also, l = 100, c.f. = 12, f = 16, h = 40

So, Median = l + N2 – c.f.f × h

= 100 + 22.5 – 1216 × 40

= 100 + 10.516 × 40= 100 + 26.25
= 126.25

Hence, mean number of wickets is 125.33 and median number of wickets is 126.25.


Q26: Find the value of p, if the mean of the following distribution is 7.5. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Here, Σfi = 41 + p
and Σfixi = 303 + 9p

We know, Mean = ∑ fi xi∑ fi

But, Mean = 7.5 [Given]

∴ 7.5 = 303 + 9p41 + p

⇒ 303 + 9p = 307.5 + 7.5p

⇒ 1.5p = 4.5

⇒ p = 3

Hence, the value of p is 3.

Also read: Important Definitions & Formulas: Statistics

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q27: The arithmetic mean of the following frequency distribution is 53. Find the value of k.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The frequency distribution table from the given data is as follows:

Now, mean = ∑ fi xi∑ fi = 53 [Given]

∴ 3340 + 70k72 + k = 53

⇒ 3340 + 70k = 3816 + 53k

⇒ 70k – 53k = 3816 – 3340

⇒ 17k = 476

⇒ k = 28


Q28: Find the mean of the following frequency distribution:

Hide Answer  

Ans: he frequency distribution table from the given data is as follows:

∴ 
= 50


Q29: If the mean of the following frequency distribution is 62.8, then find the missing frequency x:     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here h = 20
Let us construct the following table far the given data.

We know that Mean = ∑ fi xi∑ fi

⇒ 62.8 = 2640 + 50×40 + x

⇒ 62.8(40 + x) = 2640 + 50x

⇒ 2512 + 62.8x = 2640 + 50x

⇒ 62.8x – 50x = 2640 – 2512

⇒ 12.8x = 128 ⇒ x = 12812.8


Q30: The weights of tea in 70 packets are given in the following table:     (2019)
Find the modal weight.

Hide Answer  

Ans: From the given data, we observe that, highest frequency is 20,
which lies in the class-interval 40-50.
∴ l = 40, f1 =  20, fo= 12, f2 = 11, h = 10

Mode = l + f1 – f02f1 – f0 – f2 × h

= 40 + 20 – 1240 – 12 – 11 × 10

= 40 + 8017

= 40 + 4.7 = 44.7


Q31: If the median of the following frequency distribution is 32.5, find the values of f1 and f2.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The frequency distribution table for the given data is as follows:

Here, N = 40 ⇒ 31 + f1 + f2 = 40
⇒ f1 + f= 9 …(i)
Given, median = 32.5, which lies in the class interval 30-40.
So, median class is 30-40.
I = 30, h = 10, f = 12, N = 40 and c.f. of preceding class = f1 + 14

Now, median = l + N2 – c.f.f × h

⇒ 32.5 = 30 + 20 – (f1 + 14)12 × 10

⇒ 2.5 = 6 – f112 × 10

⇒ 6 – f1 = 3 ⇒ f1 = 3

From (i), f2 = 9 – 3 = 6


Q32: Find the values of frequencies x and y in the following frequency distribution table, if N = 100 and median is 32.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The frequency distribution table for the given data is as follows:

Here. N = 100, median = 32, it lies in the Interval 30 – 40.

∴ Median = l + N2 – c.f.f × h

⇒ 32 = 30 + 50 – (35 + x)30 × 10

⇒ 32 – 30 = 15 – x3

⇒ 15 – x = 6

⇒ x = 9

Also, 75 + x + y = 100

⇒ 75 + 9 + y = 100

⇒ y = 100 – 84 = 16

12. Previous Year Questions: Surface Areas & Volumes

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: The radii ‘r’ of a sphere and that of the base of a cone are same. If their volumes are also same, then the height of the cone is:
(a) r
(b) 2r
(c) 3r
(d) 4r

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Given, radius of sphere= radius of cone= r 
Also, volume of sphere= volume of cone


Q2: If the volumes of two cubes are in the ratio 8 : 125, then the ratio of their surface areas is :
(a) 8 : 125
(b) 4 : 25
(c) 2 : 5
(d) 16 : 25

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let a be side of one cube and b be side of another cube. 
Given, ratio of their volumes= 8:125

Ratio of their surface are 


Q3: If the radii of the bases of a cylinder and a cone are in the ratio 3: 4 and their heights are in the ratio 2 : 3, find the ratio of their volumes.  (3 Marks)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let r and R be the radius of cone and cylinder respectively and h and H be the height of cone and cylinder respectively. 
The volume of cylinder (V1) = πR2H
Volume of cone (V2) = Given,

∴  Ratio of their volumes is given by V1/V2

∴ Ratio of their volumes= 9: 8


Q4: Assertion (A) : If we join two hemispheres of same radius along their bases, then we get a sphere. 
Reason (R) : Total surface area of a sphere of radius r is 3πr2.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Also, total surface area of a sphere of radius r is 4πr2
So, Assertion is true, but Reason is false. 

Q5: If a cone of greatest possible volume is hollowed out from a solid wooden cylinder, then the ratio of the volume of remaining wood to the volume of cone hollowed out is 
(a) 1: 1 
(b) 1: 3
(c) 2: 1 
 (d) 3: 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Let rand h be the radius and height of cylinder respectively. 

Volume of cone hollowed out = 1/3πr2h
Volume of remaining wood = Volume of cylinder – Volume of cone


Q6: A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone. The height of the cone is 2 cm and the diameter of the base is 4 cm. Determine the volume of the toy. Also, find the a surface area of the toy. (Take π = 3.14)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, diameter of conical part = Diameter of hemispherical part= 4 cm 
Radius of conical part (r) = radius of hemispherical part (r) = 4/2 = 2 cm.

∴ Volume of toy= Volume of hemisphere+ Volume of cone = 

∴ Surface area of toy= Curved surface area of cone+ Curved surface area of hemisphere


Q7: A vessel is in the form of an inverted cone. Its height is 8 cm and the radius of its top, which is open, is 5 cm. It is filled with water up to the brim. When lead shots, each of which is a sphere of radius 0.5 cm, are dropped into the vessel, one-fourth of the water flows out. Find the number of lead shots dropped in the vessel.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

As the water is filled up to the brim in the vessel

Volume of water in the vessel = Volume of the conical vessel

On dropping a certain number of lead shots (sphere) into the vessel one-fourth of the water flows out.

Volume of all lead shots dropped into the vessel = 1/4 × Volume of the water in the vessel

Hence,

Number of lead shots = 1/4 × volume of the water in the vessel ÷ volume of each lead shot

We will find the volume of the water in the vessel and lead shot by using formulae;

Volume of the sphere = 4/3 πr3

where r is the radius of the sphere

Volume of the cone = 1/3 πR2h

where R and h are the radius and height of the cone respectively

Height of the conical vessel, h = 8 cm

Radius of the conical vessel, R = 5 cm

Radius of the spherical lead shot, r = 0.5 cm

Number of lead shots = 1/4 × volume of the water in the vessel ÷ volume of each lead shot

= 1 /4 × (1/3) πR2h × 3/4 πr3

= πR2h/12 × 3/4πr3

= R2h / 16r3

= (5cm × 5 cm × 8 cm) / (16 × 0.5 cm × 0.5 cm × 0.5 cm)

= 100

Thus, the number of lead shots dropped in the vessel is 100.


Q8: From one face of a solid cube of side 14 cm, the largest possible cone is carved out. Find the volume and surface area of the remaining solid. (use π = 22/7, √5 = 2.2)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Height of largest cone= Side of cube 
H = 14 cm 
Diameter of largest cone= Side of cube 
∴ 2R = 14cm 
R=7cm 
∴ Volume of the largest cone = 1/3πR2H


Volume of remaining solid = (side)3 – Volume of cone 

Slant height of cone

L = 15.4 cm 
Surface area of remaining solid= 6(side)2 – πR2 + πRL 

Q9: (a) A toy is in the form of a cone surmounted on a hemisphere. The cone and hemisphere have the same radii. The height of the conical part of the toy is equal to the diameter of its base. If the radius of the conical part is 5 cm, find the volume of the toy.
OR
(b) A cubical block is surmounted by a hemisphere of radius 3·5 cm. What is the smallest possible length of the edge of the cube so that the hemisphere can totally lie on the cube ? Find the total surface area of the solid so formed.
(5 Marks) (CBSE 2025)

Hide Answer  

Ans:(a)


(b)

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q3: A solid iron pole consists of a solid cylinder of height 200 cm and base diameter 28 cm, which is surmounted by another cylinder of height 50 cm and radius 7 cm. Find the mass of the pole, given that 1 cm3 of iron has approximately 8 g mass.   

(4 & 5 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

Hide Answer  

Ans:
Here, the height of small cylinder (h1) = 50 cm
Radius of small cylinder r =  7 cm
Height of longer cylinder (h2) = 200 cm
Radius of longer cylinder (R) = 14 cm
Volume of figure = Volume of small cylinder + volume of big cylinder

= πr²h₁ + πr²h₂
= π[r²h₁ + R²h₂]

= 227 [7 × 7 × 50 + 14 × 14 × 200]

= 227 × 49 × 50 [1 + 4]

= 22 × 7 × 50 × 171

= 1,30,900 cm3
Mass = Volume × Density
= 10,47,200 g
≈ 1047.2 kg 


Q4: A medicine capsule is in the shape of a cylinder with two hemispheres stuck to each of its ends. The length of the entire capsule is 14 mm and the diameter of the capsule is 4 mm, find its surface area. Also, find its volume.        (4 & 5 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

Hide Answer  

Ans:
Here, two figures are combined, 2 hemisphere and cylinder.
Radius of cylinder = radius of hemisphere
= 4/2 = 2 mm
Height of cylinder (h) = 14 – (2 + 2)
= 14 – 4 = 10 mm.
Surface area of capsule = curved surface area of two hemispheres + curved surface area of cylinder

= 2 × 2 πr² + 2πrh
= 2πr [2r + h]
= 2 × 227 × 2[4 + 10]

= 887 × 14

= 176 mm²

Volume of capsule = volume of 2 hemispheres + volume of cylinder

= 43 πr³ + πr²h

∴ Volume of 2 hemispheres = volume of a sphere

= πr² 43 (r + h)

= 227 × 2 × 2 × 43 × 2 + 10

= 227 × 4 × 83 + 10

= 227 × 4 × 38

= 88 × 3821 = 334421

= 159.24 mm³

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q5: The curved surface area of a cone having a height of 24 cm and a radius 7 cm, is     (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 528 cm2 
(b) 1056 cm2
(c) 550 cm2
(d) 500 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
We have, the height of cone. h = 24 cm and radius, r = 7 cm.

We know that,

= √625

= 25
Now. curved surface area = πrl
= 22/7 x 7 x 25
= 550 cm2


Q6: The curved surface area of a cylinder of height 5 cm is 94.2 cm2. The radius of the cylinder is (Take π = 3.14) (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 2 cm
(b) 3 cm
(c) 2.9 cm
(d) 6 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh
⇒ 94.2 = 2 x 3 .14 x r x 5
⇒ r = 94.22×3.14×5
⇒ r = 3 cm


Q7: A wooden article was made by scooping out a hemisphere from each end of a solid cylinder, as shown in the figure. If the height of the cylinder is 10 cm and its base is of radius 3.5 cm. 

Find the total surface area of the article.      (4/5/6 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Radius of the cylinder (r) = 3.5 cm
Height of the cylinder (h) = 10 cm

Curved surface area = 2πrh

= ( 2 × 227 × 3510 × 10 ) cm2

= 220 cm2

Curved surface area of a hemisphere = 2πr2

∴ Curved surface area of both hemispheres
2 × 2πr2 = 4πr2 = ( 4 × 227 × 3510 × 3510 ) cm2

= 154 cm2

Total surface area of the Article

= (220 + 154) cm2

= 374 cm2


Q8: A room is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a hemispherical dome. The base radius of the hemisphere is one-half the height of the cylindrical part. Find the total height of the room if it contains ( 140821 ) m3 of air. (Take π = 227 ) (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, volume of the room = 140821 m3,

π = 227

Radius of the hemisphere = r,

Height of the cylindrical part = h = 2r.

Volume of the room = Volume of the cylinder + Volume of the hemisphere

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h = πr2(2r) = 2πr3

Volume of the hemisphere = 23 πr3

Total volume = 2πr3 + 23 πr3 = 83 πr3

Equating total volume to 140821:

83 πr3 = 140821

83 × 227 × r3 = 140821

176r3 = 1408

r3 = 1408176

r3 = 8

r = 2

Total height = h + r = 2r + r = 3r = 3 × 2 = 6 meters

Final Answer:

The total height of the room is 6 meters.


Q9: An empty cone is of radius 3 cm and height 12 cm. Ice cream is filled in it so that the lower part of the cone which is (1/6)th of the volume of the cone is unfilled but the hemisphere is formed on the top. Find the volume of the ice cream. Take (π = 3.14)     (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of cone, r = 3 cm 
Height of cone, h = 12 cm 
Let x be the volume of unfilled part of cone.

Now, volume of cone, =

13 πr2h = 13 × 3.14 × (3)2 × 12

Volume of filled part of cone = Volume of cone – Volume of unfilled part of cone

= 13 × 3.14 × (3)2 × 12 − 16 × 13 × 3.14 × (3)2 × 12

= 13 × 3.14 × (3)2 × 12 × (1 – 16)

= 56 × 3.14 × (3)2 × 12 = 94.2 cm3

Now, volume of ice-cream = volume of filled part of cone + volume of hemisphere

= 94.2 + 23 × 3.14 × (3)3

= 150.72 cm3

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q10: The radius of the base and the height of a solid right circular cylinder are in the ratio 2:3 and its volume is 1617 cm3. Find the total surface area of the cylinder. Take [π = 22/7] (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given ratio of radius and height of the right circular cylinder = 2:3
Let radius (r) of the base be 2x and height(h) be 3x.
Volume of cylinder, V = πr2h

1617 = 227 × (2)2 × 3 × 3

⇒ 1617 = 227 × 4x2 × 3 × 3

1617 × 7

22 × 4 × 3 = x3

x3 = 7 × 7 × 72 × 2 × 2 = 72 cm.

Radius r = 2x = 2 × 72 = 7 cm

and height h = 3x = 3 × 72 = 212 cm

Total surface area of cylinder = 2πr (h + r)

= 2 × 22 × 77 × 212 + 7)

= 44 × 352 cm2

= 770 cm2


Q11: Case Study : John planned a birthday party for his younger sister with his friends. They decided to make some birthday caps by themselves and to buy a cake from a bakery shop. For these two items they decided on the following dimensions:
Cap : Conical shape with base circumference 44 cm and height 24 cm.
Cake : Cylindrical shape with diameter 24 cm and height 14 cm.

Based on the above information answer the following questions.
(a) How many square cm paper would be used to make 4 such caps?
(b) The bakery shop sells cakes by weight (0.5 kg, 1 kg, 1.5 kg. etc..}. To have the required dimensions how much cake should they order if 650 cm3 equals 100 g of cake?    
   (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Paper required to make four caps is 2,200 sq.cm.
Weight of the cake for required dimensions is 1kg.
Step-by-step explanation:
(a) Given the base circumference of the cone, c = 44 cm
Height of a cone, h = 24 cm.
Base circumference of the cone, c = 2πr = 44 cm
Thus, the radius of the cone is

r = 442 × 227 = 7 cm

The curved surface area of the cone is given by

CSA = πr √ h2 + r2

Substituting the values of h and r,

CSA = 227 × 7 × √ (24)2 + 72

= 22 × √ 576 + 49 = 22 × √ 625

= 22 × 25 = 550 sq. cm
Thus, to make one cap, 550 sq.cm of paper is required.
Then to make four caps, the required paper is
550 x 4 = 2200 sq. cm
Therefore, 2,200 sq.cm of paper is required to make four caps.
(b) Given the diameter of cylindrical shape cake, d = 24 cm
Height of cylindrical shape cake, h = 14 cm.
Radius of the cylindrical shape cake,

r = d2 = 242 = 12 cm

Volume of the cylinder is given by V = πr2h

Substituting the values of h and r,

V = 227 × (12)2 × 14

V = 227 × 144 × 14

= 22 × 144 × 2 = 6,336 cm3

The required volume of the cylindrical shape cake is 6,336 cm3.

Given 650 cm3 equals 100 g of cake.

Then the required weight of the cake is

6336650 × 100 = 974.76 g

Given the bakery shop sells cakes by weight of 0.5 kg, 1 kg, 1.5 kg, etc.

Since, 974.76 g ≈ 1 kg, therefore, the cake of 1 kg should be ordered for required dimensions.


Q12: Three cubes of side 6 cm each, are joined as shown in given figure. Find the total surface area of the resulting cuboid.     (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: The dimension of the cuboids so formed are
length = 18 cm
breath = 6 cm and height = 6 cm.
Surface area of cuboids = 2 (l× b + b × h + l × h)
= 2 × (18 × 6 + 6 × 6+ 18 × 6)
= 504 cm2


Q13: Case Study : A ‘circus’ is a company of performers who put on shows of acrobats, downs etc to entertain people started around 250 years back, in open fields, now generally performed in tents. One such ‘Circus Tent is shown below.The tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top. If the height and diameter of cylindrical part are 9 m and 30 m respectively and height of conical part is 8 m with same diameter as that of the cylindrical part, then
find  
(i) the area of the canvas used in making the tent.
(ii) the cost of the canvas bought for the tent at the rate Rs. 200 per sq. m. if 30 sq. m canvas was wasted during stitching.    (CBSE Term-2 2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: According to given information, we have the following figure.

Clearly, the radius of conical part = radius of cylindrical part = 30/2 = 15 m = r  …(say)
Let h and H be the height of conical and cylindrical part respectively.
Then h = 8 m and H = 9 m

= 17 m

(i) The area of the canvas used in making the tent
= Curved surface area of cone + Curved surface area of cylinder
= πrl + 2πrH
= πr(l + 2H)

= 1650 m2
(ii) Area of canvas bought for the tent
= (1650 + 30) m2
= 1680 m2
Now, this cost of the canvas height for the tent
= ₹ (1680 × 200)
= ₹ 3,36,000

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q14: Water is being pumped out through a circular pipe whose internal diameter is 8 cm. If the rate of flow of water is 80 cm/s. then how many litres of water is being pumped out through this pipe in one hour?    (2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given diameter of circular pipe = 8 cm
So, radius of circular pipe = 4cm
Length of flow of water in one sec = 80 cm
length of flow of water in one hour =  80 x 60 x 60 cm=288000 cm=h
Volume of cylinderical pipe in one hour = πr2h

= 14482.28 litre [approx.]
14482.28 litres of water being pumped out through this pipe in 1 hr.

Also read: Unit Test: Surface Areas and Volumes

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q15: A solid spherical ball fits exactly inside the cubical box of side 2a. The volume of the ball is      (2020)
(a) 163 πr3
(b) 
16 πr3
(c) 
323 πr3
(d) 
43 πr3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Diameter of sphere = Distance between opposite faces of cube = 2a
Radius of sphere = a
So, volume of spherical ball = 43 πr3
= 43 πr3


Q16: The radius of a sphere (in cm) whose volume is 12 πcm3, is      (2020)
(a) 3
(b) 3√3
(c) 32/3
(d) 3
1/3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Let radius of the sphere be r.
According to the question,
⇒ 


Q17: Two cones have their heights in the ratio 1: 3 and radii in the ratio 3 : 1 . What is the ratio of their volumes?      (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let height of one cone be h and height of another cone be 3h. Radius, of one cone is 3r and radius of another cone is r.
∴ Ratio o f their volumes = 
= 3 : 1


Q18: How many cubes of side 2 cm can be made from a solid cube of side 10 cm?          (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let n be the number of solid cubes of  2cm made from a solid cube of side 10 cm.

∴ n x Volume of one small cube = Volume of big cube
⇒ n x (2)3 = (10)3
⇒ 8n = 1000
⇒ n = 1000/8
= 125
Thus, the number of solid cubes formed of side 2 cm each is 125.


Q19: A cone and a cylinder have the same radii but the height of the cone is 3 times that of the cylinder. Find the ratio of their volumes.          (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the radius and the height of the cylinder are r and h respectively.
So, radios of t he cone is r and height of the cone is 3h.
∴ Volume of the cylinder = πr2h
So Volume of cone = 
So, require ratio = 
= 1 : 1


Q20: A well of diameter 3 m is dug 14 m deep. The earth taken out of it has been spread evenly all around it in the shape of a circular ring of width 4 m to form a platform. Find the height of the platform. (Take π = 22/7)      (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given that, the depth of the well is 14 m and the diameter is 3 m.
The width of the circular ring of the embankment is 4 m.
A figure is drawn below to visualize the shapes.

From the above figure, we can observe that the shape of the well will be cylindrical, and earth evenly spread out to form an embankment around the well in a circular ring will be cylindrical in shape (Hollow cylinder) having outer and inner radius.

Volume of the earth taken out from well = Volume of the earth used to form the embankment

Hence, Volume of the cylindrical well = Volume of the hollow cylindrical embankment

Let us find the volume of the hollow cylindrical embankment by subtracting volume of inner cylinder from volume of the outer cylinder.

Volume of the cylinder = πr2h where r and h are the radius and height of the cylinder respectively.

Depth of the cylindrical well, = h₁ = 14 m

Radius of the cylindrical well, = r = 3/2 m = 1.5 m

Width of embankment = 4 m

Inner radius of the embankment, r = 3/2 m = 1.5 m

Outer radius of the embankment, R = Inner radius + Width

R = 1.5 m + 4 m

= 5.5 m

Let the height of embankment be h

Volume of the cylindrical well = Volume of the hollow cylindrical embankment

πr2h1 = πR2h – πr2h

πr2h1 = πh (R2 – r2)

r2h1 = h (R – r )(R + r)

h = [(r2h1)/(R – r)(R + r)]

h = [((1.5 m)2 × 14 m)/(5.5 m – 1.5 m)(5.5 m + 1.5 m)]

= (2.25 m2 × 14 m)/(4m × 7 m)

= 1.125 m

Therefore, the height of the embankment will be 1.125 m.


Q21: In Figure, a solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone. The height of the cone is 2 cm and the diameter of the base is 4 cm. Determine the volume of the toy. [Take π = 3.14]      (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given diameter of conical part = Diameter of hemispherical part = 4cm
∴ Radios of conical part (r) = Radius of hemispherical part (r) = 4/2 = 2 cm
Height of conical part (h) = 2 cm
∴ Volume of toy = Volume of hemisphere + volume of cone

= 3 .14 x 4(1.33 + 0.66)= 3.14 x 4 x 1.99 cm3
Volume of the toy = 24.99 cm3


Q22: A solid toy is in the form of a hemisphere surmounted by a right circular cone of same radius. The height of the cone is 10 cm and the radius of the base is 7 cm. Determine the volume of the toy. Also find the area of the coloured sheet required to cover the toy. (Use π = 22/7 and √149 = 12.2)       (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of the cone = Radius of the hemisphere = r = 7cm 
Height of the cone, h = 10 cm 
Now, volume of the toy = volume of hemisphere + volume of cone

23 πr3 + 13 πr2 h = πr23 (2r + h)

= 13 × 227 × 7 × 7 (2×7 + 10)

= 22 × 7 × 243

= 1232 cm3

Curved surface area of the toy = Curved surface area of cone + Curved surface area of hemisphere

= πrl + 2πr2

= πr √ h2 + r2 + 2πr2

= 227 × 7 × √ (10)2 + 72 + 2πr2

= 22 × √ 100 + 49 + 14

= 22 × √ 149 + 14

= 22(12.2 + 14)
= 22 x 26.2
= 576.4 cm3


Q23: From a solid right circular cylinder of height 14 cm and base radius 6 cm, a right circular cone of same height and same base radius is removed. Find the volume of the remaining solid. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of cylinder = Radius of cone = r = 6 cm. 
Height of cylinder = Height of cone = h = 14 cm
Volume of remaining solid = πr2h – 1/3πr2h
= 2/3πr2h
= 2/3 x 22/7 x 6 x 6 x 14
= 2 x 22 x 2 x 6 x 2
= 1056cm2
Hence, the volume of the remaining solid is 1056 cm2.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q24: A solid is in the form of a cylinder with hemispherical ends. The total height of the solid is 20 cm and the diameter of the cylinder is 7 cm. Find the total volume of the solid. (Use π = 22/7).       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of cylinderical part (r) = Radius of each spherical part(r) = 7/2 cm
Height of cylinderical part (h) = 20 – 7/2 – 7/2 = 13 cm

Now. Volume of the solid = Volume of cylinderical part + Volume of two hemispherical endsVolume of the solid = 

Volume of the solid = 680.17 cm3.


Q25: A juice seller was serving his customers using glasses as shown in the given figure. The inner diameter of the cylindrical glass was 5 cm but bottom of the glass had a hemispherical raised portion which reduced the capacity of the glass. lf the height of the glass was 10 cm, find the apparent and actual capacity of the glass {Use π = 3.14)      (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Base radius = 5/2 = 2.5 cm
Apparent capacity of glass = Volume of cylindrical portion
= πr2h
= 3.14 x (2.5)2 x 10
= 196.25 cm3
Actual capacity of the glass = Volume of cylinder – Volume of hemisphere

= 196.25 – 32.71
= 163.54 cm  

Q26: A bucket open at the top is in the form of a frustum of a cone with a capacity of 12308.8 cm3. The radii of the top and bottom of circular ends of the bucket are 20 cm and 12 cm respectively. Find the height of the bucket and also the area of the metal sheet used in making it. (Use π = 3.14)    [CBSE 2019 (30/1/2)]

Hide Answer  

Ans: r = 12 cm, R = 20 cm, V = 12308.8 cm

Volume of frustum = 13 πh (r2 + R2 + rR)

12308810 = 13 × 314100 × (144 + 400 + 240) × h

h = 123088 × 3 × 10314 × 784

h = 15 cm

l = √(h2 + r2) = √(225 + 64) = √289 = 17 cm
Area of metal sheet used = π(R + r)l + πr
= π(20 + 12) x 17 + π x 144

Hence, the height of the bucket is 15 cm and the area of the metal sheet used is 2160.32 cm2.

Q27:  An open metal bucket is in the shape of a frustum of a cone, mounted on a hollow cylindrical base made of the same metallic sheet (Fig). The diameters of the two circular ends of the bucket are 45 cm and 25 cm, the total vertical height of the bucket is 40 cm and that of the cylindrical base is 6 cm. Find the area of the metallic sheet used to make the bucket, where we do not take into account the handle of the bucket. Also, find the volume of water the bucket can hold.  [CBSE 2019(30/5/1)]

Hide Answer  

Ans: The total height of the bucket = 40 cm, which includes the height of the base. So, the height of the frustum of the cone = (40 – 6) cm = 34 cm.
Therefore, the slant height of the frustum,

l = √(R2 + (r1 – r2)2)

where, r1 = 452 cm = 22.5 cm

r2 = 252 cm = 12.5 cm and h = 34 cm

So, l = √(342 + (22.5 – 12.5)2) = √(342 + 102) = 35.44 cm

Area of the metallic sheet used

Curved surface area of frustum of cone + Area of circular base + Curved surface area of cylinder

= [π × 35.44 (22.5 + 12.5) + π × (12.5)2 + 2π × 12.5 × 6] cm2

= 227 × (1240.4 + 156.25 + 150) cm2

= 4860.9 cm2

Now, the volume of water that the bucket can hold (also, known as the capacity of the bucket)

Volume of frustum:

= 13 π × h (r12 + r22 + r1r2)

= 13 × 227 × 34 × (22.52 + 12.52 + 22.5 × 12.5) cm3

= 13 × 227 × 34 × 943.75 = 33615.48 cm3

= 33.62 litres (approx.)


Q28: A cylindrical bucket, 32 cm high and with a radius of base 18 cm, is filled with sand. This bucket is emptied on the ground and a conical heap of sand is formed. If the height of the conical heap is 24 cm, find the radius and slant height of the heap.
OR
A girl empties a cylindrical bucket, full of sand, of base radius 18 cm and height 32 cm, on the floor to form a conical heap of sand. If the height of this conical heap is 24 cm, then find its slant height correct up to one place of decimal.    
[CBSE (E) 2014, 2019 (30/5/1)] 

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have,
Radius of cylindrical bucket =18 cm
Height of cylindrical bucket = 32 cm
And the height of conical heap = 24 cm
Let the radius of the conical heap be r cm
Volume of the sand = volume of the cylindrical bucket
= πr2h = π x (18)2 x 32
Now, volume of conical heap 
Here, volume of the conical heap will be equal to the volume of sand
∴ 8πr2 = π x (18)2 x 32
⇒ r2 = 18 x 18 x 4 = (18)2 x (2)2
⇒ r2 = (36)2 or r = 36 cm

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Previous Year Questions 2018

Q29: The diameters of the lower and upper ends of a bucket in the form of a frustum of a cone are 10 cm and 30 cm respectively. If its height is 24 cm, find the area of the metal sheet used to make the bucket. [Use π = 3.14]     [CBSE 2018]

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

For bucket,

Upper diameter (D) = 30 cm

∴ Radius (R) = 302 = 15 cm

Lower diameter (d) = 10 cm

Radius (r) = 102 = 5 cm

Height of bucket (h) = 24 cm

The area of the metal sheet used = CSA of the frustum (bucket) + Area of bottom part (base)

= π(R + r)l + πr2

= π(R + r) × √(h2 + (R – r)2) + πr2

[∵ Slant height (l) = √(h2 + (R – r)2)]

= 3.14 × (15 + 5) × √(242 + (15 – 5)2) + 3.14 × (5)2

= 3.14 × 20 × √(576 + 100) + 3.14 × 25

= 62.8 × √676 + 78.5

= 62.8 × 26 + 78.5

= 1632.8 + 78.5 = 1711.3 cm2

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q30: A metallic right circular cone 20 cm high whose vertical angle is 60° which is cut into two parts at the middle of its height by a plane parallel to its base. If the frustum so obtained be drawn into a wire of diameter 1/16 cm, find the length of the wire.    [NCERT, CBSE (F) 2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let VAB be the metallic right circular cone of height 20 cm. Suppose this cone is cut by a plane parallel to its base at a point O’ such that VO’ = O’ O i.e., O’ is the midpoint of VO.
Let r1 and r2 be the radii of circular ends of the frustum ABB’ A’.
Now, in ΔVOA and VO’ A’, we have

⇒ tan 30° = OAVO and tan 30° = O’A’V’O’

⇒ 1√3 = r120 and 1√3 = r210

⇒ r1 = 20√3 and r2 = 10√3

∴ Volume of the frustum = 13 πh (r12 + r22 + r1r2)

= 13 × π × 10 × [ (20/√3)2 + (10/√3)2 + (20/√3 × 10/√3) ]

= 10π3 × [400/3 + 100/3 + 200/3]

= 10π3 × 7003 cm3

Let the length of wire of diameter 1/16 cm be l cm. Then,

Volume of metal used in wire

= π × (1/32)2× l = πl/1024 cm3

Since the frustum is recast into a wire of length l cm and diameter 1/16 cm,

∴ Volume of the metal used in wire = volume of the frustum

⇒ πl1024 = 7000π9

⇒ l = 7000 × 10249

= 796144.4 cm = 7964.444 m


Q31: A solid metallic cylinder of diameter 12 cm and height 15 cm is melted and recast into toys each in the shape of a cone of radius 3 cm and height 9 cm. Find the number of toys so formed.     [AI 2017 (C)]

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Diameter of metallic cylinder = 12 cm
∴ Radius of metallic cylinder (r) = 6 cm
Height (h) = 15 cm
Volume of cylinder = πr2h = π(6)2 x 15 cm3
Radius of cone = 3 cm
Height of cone = 9 cm
Volume of cone = 1/3 π(3)2 x 9 = 3 x 9π cm3
Number of toys so formed = 
If the question is “A tent is in the form of a cylinder surmounted by a cone. Find the capacity of the tent and the cost of canvas for making the tent at Rs 100 per sq.m.”, then the solution is given as “Tent is a combination of a cylinder and a cone. For capacity
∴ Volume (capacity) of the tent = Volume of the cylindrical part + Volume of the conical part
For the cost of the canvas, we find the total surface area.
Total surface area = Curved area of the cylindrical part + Curved surface area of the conical part
Now, proceed to find its cost.”
Note: Don’t solve as “Total surface area of canvas = Total surface area of cylinder + Total surface area of a cone and proceed further”
This is the wrong solution.


Q32: The 3/4th part of a conical vessel of internal radius 5 cm and height 24 cm is full of water. The water is emptied into a cylindrical vessel with an internal radius of 10 cm. Find the height of water in a cylindrical vessel.    [Delhi 2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of conical vessel (r) = 5 cm
Height of conical vessel (h) = 24 cm
Radius of cylindrical vessel (R) = 10 cm

Let H be the height of water in the cylindrical vessel.

Now, the total volume of the conical vessel

= 13 πr2h = 13 × 227 × (5)2 × 24 cm3

= 22 × 25 × 247 × 3 cm3

According to the question,

3/4 of the volume of water from the conical vessel is emptied into the cylindrical vessel.

⇒ 34 × Volume of conical vessel = Volume of water in the cylindrical vessel

⇒ 34 × 22 × 25 × 247 × 3 = πR2H

⇒ 3 × 22 × 25 × 244 × 7 × 3 = 227 × (10)2 × H

⇒ 25 × 6 = 10 × 10 × H

⇒ H1 = 25 × 610 × 10

⇒ H = 1.5 cm

∴ Height of water in the cylindrical vessel = 1.5 cm


Q33: In a rain-water harvesting system, the rainwater from a roof of 22 m x 20 m drains into a cylindrical tank having a diameter of base 2 m and height of 3.5 m. If the tank is full, find the rainfall in cm.    [AI 2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Length of roof (l) = 22 m
Breadth of roof (b) = 20 m
Let the height of water column collected on roof= hm
∴ Volume of standing water on rooftop = lbh
= (22 x 20 x h) m3 
This water is taken into a cylindrical tank of diameter of base 2 m and height 3.5 m.
Tank gets completely filled with this amount of water.
⇒ Volume of water from roof-top = Volume of cylinder
Diameter of tank = 2 m
∴ Radius of tank = 2/2 = 1 m

⇒ Volume of tank = πr2h

= 227 × (1)2 × 3.5 m3

A.T.Q.

(22 × 20 × h) m3 = 227 × 1 × 3.5 m3

⇒ h = 22 × 3.57 × 22 × 20

⇒ h = 777 × 22 × 30

= 0.025 m = 2.5 cm
Hence rainfall is 2.5 cm.


Q34: From a solid cylinder whose height is 2.4 cm and diameter 1.4 cm, a conical cavity of the same height and same diameter is hollowed out. Find the total surface area of the remaining solid to the nearest cm2.    [CBSE (AI) 2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have,
Radius of the cylinder = Height of the cylinder = 2.4 cm
Also, radius of the cone = 0.7 cm and height of the cone = 2.4 cm
Now, slant height of the cone =


∴ Total surface area of the remaining solid
= curved surface area of cylinder + curved surface area of the cone + area of upper circular base of the cylinder.


Q35: A circus tent is in the shape of a cylinder surmounted by a conical top of the same diameter. If their common diameter is 56 m, the height of the cylindrical part is 6 m and the total height of the tent above the ground is 27 m, find the area of canvas used in making the tent. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Total height of the tent above the ground = 27 m

Height of the cylindrical part,

h1 = 6 m

Height of the conical part,

h2 = 21 m

Diameter = 56 m

Radius = 28 m

Curved surface area of the cylinder, CSA1

= 2πrh = 2π × 28 × 6 = 336π

Curved surface area of the cone, CSA2

= πrl = π × 28 × √ h22 + r2

= π × 28 × √ 212 + 282

= 28π × √ 441 + 784

= 28π × 35

= 980π

Total curved surface area = CSA of cylinder + CSA of cone

= CSA1 + CSA2

= 336π + 980π

= 1316π

= 4136 m2

Also read: Unit Test: Surface Areas and Volumes

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q36: A sphere of diameter 12 cm, is dropped in a right circular cylindrical vessel, partly filled with water. If the sphere is completely submerged in water, the water level in the cylindrical vessel rises by  Find the diameter of the cylindrical vessel. [CBSE (AI) 2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Volume of sphere = 43 π(6)3 cm3

Volume of water rise in cylinder

= πr2 329 cm3

∴ πr2 329 = 43 π(6)3

⇒ r2 = 4 × 2 × 36 × 932 = 81

⇒ r = 9 cm

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q37: Two spheres of the same metal weigh 1 kg and 7 kg. The radius of the smaller sphere is 3 cm. The two spheres are melted to form a single big sphere. Find the diameter of the new sphere.    [CBSE (F) 2015]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Volume of the smaller sphere

= 43 πr3 = 43 π(3)3 = 43 π(27) = 36π

Volume of smaller sphere × density = mass

∴ 36π (density of metal) = 1

Density of metal = 136π

∴ Volume of bigger sphere × density = mass

= 43 π (R)3 × 136π = 7

R3 = 7 × 36 × 34 = 7 × 9 × 3

(i) Volume of new sphere = volume of smaller sphere + volume of bigger sphere

= 43 π(R’)3 = 43 πr3 + 43 πR3 (where R’ is the radius of the new sphere)

= 43 π(3)3 + 43 π(7 × 9 × 3) [using (i)]

= 43 π [33 + 7 × 9 × 3]


(R’)3 = [33 + 7 x 33]
(R’)3 = 33(l + 7)
(R’)3 = 33 x 8
(R’)3 =  33 x 23
R’ =3 x 2
R’ = 6 cm
∴ Diameter of new sphere =12 cm.

Q38: A hemispherical bowl of internal diameter 36 cm contains liquid. This liquid is filled into 72 cylindrical bottles of diameter 6 cm. Find the height of each bottle, if 10% liquid is wasted in this transfer.   [CBSE (AI) 2015]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius of hemispherical bowl, R = 36/2 = 18 cm
Radius of cylindrical bottle, r = 6/2 = 3 cm
Let height of cylindrical bottle = h
Since 10% liquid is wasted, therefore only 90% liquid is filled into 72 cylindrical bottles.
∴ The volume of 72 cylindrical bottles = 90% of the volume in the bowl

⇒ 72 × πr2h = 90% of 23 πR3

72 × π × 3 × 3 × h = 90100 × 23 × π × 18 × 18 × 18

h = 90 × 2 × π × 18 × 18 × 18100 × 3 × π × 72 × 3 × 3

h = 275 = 5.4 cm

Q38: A cone with radius 10 cm is divided into two parts by drawing a plane through the mid-point of its axis, parallel to its base. Compare the volumes of the two parts.    [CBSE (AI) 2015]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let.BC = r cm, DE = 10 cm
Since B is the mid-point of AD and BC is parallel to DE, therefore C is the mid-point of AE.
∴ AC = CE
Also, ΔABC ~ ΔADE




∴ The required ratio = 1 : 7.

11. Previous Year Questions: Areas Related to Circles

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: The diameter of a wheel is 63 cm. The distance travelled by the wheel in 100 revolutions is: 

(a) 99 m
(b) 198 m
(c) 63 m
(d) 136 m

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Given, diameter of wheel = 63 cm
∴ Radius, r = 63/2 = 31.5 cm
Distance travelled by the wheel in one revolution 

∴ Distance travelled by the wheel in 100 revolutions

Q2: If the length of a chord of a circle is equal to its radius, then the angle subtended by chord at the centre is: 
(a) 60° 
(b) 30° 
(c) 120° 
(d) 90°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Let AB be the chord of a circle centre at O. 
Given AB = radius of circle 
∴ AB = OA = OB 
∴ AOB is an equilateral triangle. So, angle subtended by the chord at the centre of circle is 60°. 

Q3: If the area of a sector of circle of radius 36 cm is 54π cm2, then the length of the corresponding arc of the sector is: 
(a) 8π cm 
(b) 6π cm  
(c) 4π cm 
(d) 3π cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Given, radius of circle = 36 cm Area of sector of circle = 54π cm2  

Q4: A piece of wire 20 cm long is bent into the form of an arc of a circle of radius 60/π cm. The angle subtended by the arc at the centre of the circle is:
(a) 30° 
(b) 60° 
(c) 90° 
(d) 50°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Length of wire = Arc of circle 

Q5: An arc of a circle is of length 5π cm and the sector it bounds has an area of 20π cm². Its radius is: 
(a) 10 cm
(b) 1 cm
(c) 5 cm 
(d) 8 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
Let radius of the circle be rand angle subtended by an arc be θ. 

Q6: A chord of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends a right angle at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the corresponding minor segment. 
[Use π = 3.14]

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Radius of circle (r) = 10 cm Angle of sector (θ) = 90° 
Area of minor segment ACB  = Area of sector OACB – Area of ΔAOB 

Q7: Case Study: A brooch is a decorative piece often worn on clothing like jackets, blouses or dresses to add elegance. Made from precious metals and decorated with gemstones, brooches come in many shapes and designs.

One such brooch is made with silver wire in the form of a circle with diameter 35 mm. The wire is also used in making 5 diameters which divide the circle into 10 equal sectors as shown in the figure. 

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions: 
(i) Find the central angle of each sector. 
(ii) Find the length of the arc ACB. 
(iii) (a) Find the area of each sector of the brooch. 
OR
(iii) (b) Find the total length of the silver wire used.
 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) 
Since, the circle is divided into 10 equal sectors, then central angle of each sector 

(ii) 


(iii) 

OR
(iii) (b)
 Total length of wire used = 2πr + 5d 

Q8: Case Study: Anurag purchased a farmhouse which is in the form of a semicircle of diameter 70 m. He divides it into three parts by taking a point P on the semicircle in such a way that ∠PAB = 30° as shown in the following figure, where O is the centre of semicircle.

In part I, he planted saplings of Mango tree, in part II, he grew tomatoes and in part Ill, he grew oranges. Based on given information, answer the following questions. 
(i) What is the measure of ∠POA? 
(ii) Find the length of wire needed to fence entire piece of land. 
(iii) (a) Find the area of region in which saplings of Mango tree are planted. 
OR
(iii) (b) Find the length of wire needed to fence the region III.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) Join OP.
∴ In ΔAOP,
∠OAP = ∠OPA = 30°     [∵ OA = OP]
∴ ∠POA = 180° – 30° – 30° = 120°
(ii) Length of wire = Perimeter of the land 
= πR + 2R = R(π + 2)

(iii) (a) Area of part I = Area of sector POB – Area of Δ POB

(iii) (b) Length of wire needed to fence the region – III
= Length of arc AP+ AP     ……. (i) 

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: The Perimeter of a sector of a circle whose central angle is 90º and radius 7 cm is:     (CBSE 2024)
(a) 35 cm
(b) 11 cm
(c) 22 cm
(d) 25 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Correct answer: 25 cm

Q2: A stable owner has four horses. He usually ties these horses with 7 m long rope to pegs at each corner of a square-shaped grass field of 20 m length, to graze in his farm. But tying with rope sometimes results in injuries to his horses, so he decided to build a fence around the area so that each horse could graze.        (CBSE 2024)

Based on the above, answer the following questions:
(A) Find the area of the square-shaped grass field.
(B) Find the area of the total field in which these horses can graze.
OR
If the length of the rope of each horse is increased from 7 m to 10 m, find the area grazed by one horse.
(Use π = 3.14)
(C) What is the area of the field that is left ungrazed if the length of the rope of each horse is 7 m?

Hide Answer  

Ans:
(A) Area of square shaped field
= 20 × 20
= 400 sq. m.

(B) Area of 4 quadrants

= Area of a circle of radius 7m = πr2

=4 × 14 × 227 × 7 × 7

= 154 m2

OR

New radius = 10 m

So, area grazed by one horse

= 14 (Area of circle with radius 10 m)

= 14 × π × (10)2

= 3.14 × 10 × 104

= 78.5 m2

(C) Area of ungrazed portion

= Area of square field – Area of circle with radius 7 m

= 20 × 20 – 227 × 7 × 7

= 400 – 154

= 246 m2

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: What is the area of a semi-circle of diameter ‘d’ ?        (CBSE, 2023)
(a) 1/16πd2
(b) 1/4πd2′
(c) 1/8πd2
(d) 1/2πd2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Given diameter of semi circle = d


∴ Radius, r = d/2
Area of semi circle

Q2: Case Study:  The Governing council of a local public development authority of Dehradun decided to build an adventurous playground on the top of a bill, which will have adequate space for parking.

After the survey, it was decided to build a rectangular playground with a semi-circular area allotted for parking at one end of the playground. The length and breadth of the rectangular playground are 14 units and 7 units, respectively. There are two quadrants of radius 2 units on one side for special seats. Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

(i) What is the total perimeter of the parking area? 
(ii) What is the total area of parking and the two quadrants? (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) Length of play ground . AB = 14 units, Breadth of play ground. AD = 7 units
Radius of semi – circular part is 7/2 units
Total perimeter of parking area = πr + 2r

227 × 72 + 2 × 72

= 11 + 7 = 18 Units

(ii) Total area of parking and the two quadrants

= Area of semi-circular region + Area of 2 quadrants

= πR²2 + 2 × 14 × πr²

= π2 [ R² + r² ]

= 227 × 12 × (7/2)² + (2)²

= 117 × 49 + 44

= 117 × (49 + 16)4

= 117 × 654

= 71528

= 25.54 unit² (approx)

Q3: A chord of a circle of radius 14 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre. Find the area of the corresponding minor segment of the circle. Also, find the area of the major segment of the circle.         (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here, radius t(r) = 14 cm and  Sector angle (θ) = 60°
∴ Area of the sector

= 102.67 cm2

Since ∠O = 60° and OA = OB = 14 cm
∴ AOB is an equilateral triangle.
⇒ AS = 14 cm and ∠A = 60°
Draw OM ⊥ AB.
In ΔAMO

OMOA = sin60° = √32 ⇒ OM = OA × √32 = 14√32 cm = 7√3 cm

Now,

Area of △AOB = 12 × AB × OM

= 12 × 14 × 7√3 cm² = 49√3 cm²

= 49 × 1.732 cm² = 84.87 cm²

Now, area of the minor segment

= (Area of minor sector) – (Area of △AOB)

= 102.67 – 84.87 cm2

= 17.8 cm2

Area of the major segment

= Area of the circle – Area of the minor segment

= πr²1 – 17.8

= 227 × 14 × 14 – 17.8 cm2

= (616 – 17.8) cm2 = 598.2 cm2

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: The area swept by a 7 cm long minute band of a clock in 10 minutes is        (CBSE 2022)
(a) 77 cm2
(b) 

(c) 
(d) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Angle formed by minute hand of a clock in 60 minutes = 360°
∴ Angle formed by minute hand of a clock in 10 minutes = 10/60 x 360° = 60°
Length of minute hand of a dock = radius = 7 cm
∴ Required area

Q2: Given below is the picture of the Olympic rings made by taking five congruent circles of radius 1 cm each, intersecting in such a way that the chord formed by joining the point of intersection of two circles is also of length 1 cm. The total area of all the dotted regions assuming the thickness of the rings to be negligible is        (2022)
(a) 4 (π12) (√34) cm²
(b) (π6) – (√34) cm²
(c) 4 (π6) – (√34) cm²
(d) 8 (π6) – (√34) cm²

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)

Let O be the centre of the circle. So. OA = OB = AB = 1 cm
So ΔOAB is an equilateral triangle.
∴ ∠AOB = 60°

∴  Required area = 8 x area of one segment with r = 1 cm,θ = 60°

= 8 x  (area of sector – area of ΔAOB)
= 8 x ( θ360º x πr– √34a2)

Also read: NCERT Textbook: Areas Related to Circles

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: A piece of wire 22 cm long is bent into the form of an arc of a circle subtending an angle of 60° at its centre. Find the radius of the circle. [Use π = 22/7]        (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the wire of length 22 cm in the form of an art of a circle so blending an ∠AOB – 60° at centre O.

∵ Length of arc = 
⇒ 
= 21 cm
Hence, radius of the circle is 21cm.

Q2: A circular park is surrounded by a road 21 m wide. If the radius of the park is 105 m, find the area of the road. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Given: Width of road = 21 m 
Radius of park, r= 105 m  
⇒ Radius of the whole circular portion (park + road) 
r2 = 105 + 21 = 126 m 

So, Area of road = Area of park and road – Area of park

= πr22 – πr12

= π (r22 – r12)

= 227 × [(126)2 – (105)2

= 227 × (126 + 105) (126 – 105)   [∵ a2 – b2 = (a + b)(a – b)]

= 227 × 231 × 21 = 15246

Hence, the area of the road is 15246 m2

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: A car has two wipers which do not overlap. Each wiper has a blade of length 21 cm sweeping through an angle 120°. Find the total area cleaned at each sweep of the blades. (Take π = 22/7)       (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here radius (r) = 21 cm
5ector angle (θ) = 120°
∴ Area cleaned by each sweep of the blades
 [∵ there are 2 blades]

= 22 x 7 x 3 x 2 cm2
= 924 cm2

Q2: Find the area of the segment shown in the given figure, if the radius of the circle is 21 cm and ∠AOB = 120°. (Take π = 22/7)      (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Draw OM ⊥ AB.

Area of the minor segment AMBP = Area of sector OAPB – Area of △AOB

Now, area of sector OAPB

= 120°360° × πr2

= 120°360° × 227 × 21 × 21

= 462 cm2

Since, OM ⊥ AB.

∠AOM = ∠BOM = 120°/2 = 60°

[∵ Perpendicular from the centre to the chord bisects the angle subtended by the chord at the centre.]

In △AOM,

sin 60° = AMAO , cos 60° = OMOA

= √32 = AM/21, 12 = OM/21

⇒ AM = 21√32 cm, OM = 212 cm

∴ AB = 2AM = 2 × 21√32 = 21√3 cm

Area of △AOB

= 12 × AB × OM

= 12 × 21√3 × 212

= 441√34 cm2

Hence, required area

= 462 – 441√34

= 462 – 381.92 = 80.08 cm2

Q3: In the given figure, three sectors of a circle of radius 7 cm, making angles of 60°, 80° and 40° at the centre are shaded. Find the area of the shaded region.      (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Radius (r) of circle = 7 cm
Area of shaded region =

π(7)2 × 40°360° + π(7)2 × 60°360° + π(7)2 × 80°360°

[∴ Area of sector = θ360° πr2]

= π(7)2 × 19 + π(7)2 × 16 + π(7)2 × 29

= π(7)2 [1/9 + 1/6 + 2/9]

= 227 × 7 × 7 × 918

= 77 cm2

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q1: A chord PQ of a circle of radius 10 cm subtends an angle of 60° at the centre of the circle. Find the area of major and minor segments of the circle.    (Delhi 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Radius of the circle = 10 cm
Central angle subtended by chord AB = 60°
Area of minor sector OACB

Area of equilateral triangle OAB formed by radii and chord

= √34 a² = √34 × (10)² = 1.7324 × 100 = 43.3 cm2

Area of minor segment ACBD

= Area of sector OACB – Area of triangle OAB

= (52.38 – 43.30) cm2

= 9.08 cm2

Area of circle

∴ Area of circle = πr²

= 227 × (10)² = 22 × 1007

= 314.28 cm2

Area of major segment ADBE

= Area of circle – Area of minor segment

= (314.28 – 9.08) cm2

= 305.20 cm2

Q2: In the given figure, ΔABC is a right-angled triangle in which ∠A is 90°. Semi-circles are drawn on AB, AC and BC as diameters. Find the area of the shaded region.     (Al 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In right triangle ABC.
AB2 + AC2 = BC2
⇒ (3)2 + (4)2 = BC2 ⇒ 9 + 16 = BC2  ⇒ 25 = BC2
∴ BC = 5 cm
Now, 

Area of shaded region = { ar(ΔABC) + ar(semicircle on side AB) + ar(semicircle on side AC) } – ar(semicircle on side BC)

Area of shaded region = [(12 × 3 × 4) + (12 π × (32) 2) + (12 π × (2)2)] – (12 π × (52) 2 cm2)

= 6 + 12 π 94 + 4 – 254 cm2

= 6 cm2

Hence, area of shaded region is 6 cm2

Q3: In the following figure, O is the centre of the circle with AC = 24 cm, AB = 7 cm and ∠BOD = 90°. Find the area of the shaded region.   (CBSE (AI) 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In right angle triangle ABC

Diameter BC = √(242 + 72) = 25 cm

Area ΔCAB = 12 × base × height

= 12 × 24 × 7 = 84 cm2

Area of shaded region = area of semicircle – area of ΔCAB + area of quadrant BOD

= π2 × (252) 2 – 84 + π4 × (252) 2

= (625π8) + (625π16) – 84

= (1875π16) – 84 = (117.18π – 84) = 283.94 cm2

Q4: Two circles touch internally. The sum of their areas is 116π cm2 and the distance between their centres is 6 cm. Find the radii of the circles. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let ‘r’ and ‘R’ be the radii of the smaller and bigger circles, respectively. 
Then, OO’ = R – r = 6 cm [Given] …(i) 
Also, sum of their areas = 116π cm2
i.e., πR2 + πr2 = 116π

⇒ R2 + r2 = 116 …(ii)
We know, (R – r)2 = R2 + r2 – 2Rr 
⇒ (6)2 = 116 – 2Rr 
⇒ 2Rr = 116 – 36 = 80 
⇒ Rr = 40 …(iii) 
Also, (R + r)2 = R+ r2 + 2Rr = 116 + 2 × 40 [Using (ii) and (iii)] 
⇒ (R + r)2 = 196 
⇒ R + r = 14 …(iv) 
Now, adding equations (i) and (iv), we get 
2R = 20 
⇒ R = 10 cm 
Putting the value of R in equation (i), we get 
r = 4 cm 
Hence, the radii of the bigger and smaller circles are 10 cm and 4 cm, respectively.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q1: In Fig. 12.34, O is the centre of a circle such that diameter AB =13 cm and AC = 12 cm. BC is joined. Find the area of the shaded region. (Take k = 3.14)    (CBSE (AI) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  In ΔABC, ∠ACB = 90° (Angle in the semicircle)
∴ BC2 + AC2 = AB2
∴ BC2 = AB2 -AC2
= 169 – 144 = 25
∴ BC = 5 cm
Area of the shaded region = area of semicircle – area of right ΔABC

= 12 πr2 – 12 × BC × AC

= 12 × (3.14) (132) 2 – 12 × 5 × 12

= 66.33 – 30 = 36.33 cm2

Q2: In the given figure, are shown two arcs PAQ and PBQ. Arc PAQ is a part of the circle with centre 0 and radius OP while arc PBQ is a semi-circle drawn on PQ as diameter with centre M.
If OP = PQ = 10 cm show that the area of the shaded region is 25  (CBSE (Delhi) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Since OP = PQ = QO
⇒ APOQ is an equilateral triangle
∴ ∠POQ = 60°
Area of segment PAQM

= θ360° πr2 – √34 a2

= 60°360° π × 102 – √34 × 102

= 100π6 – 100√34 cm2

Area of Semicircle with M as Centre

= π2 (5)2 = 25π2 cm2

Area of Shaded Region

= 25π2 – (50π3) – 25√3

= 25π2  – 503 π + 25√3

= -25π6  + 25√3

= 25(√3 – π6 ) cm2

Q3: In the figure, the boundary of the shaded region consists of four semicircular arcs, two smallest being equal. If the diameter of the largest is 14 cm and that of the smallest is 3.5 cm, calculate the area of the shaded region. Use π = 22/7   (Foreign 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given AD = 14 cm, AB = CD = 3.5 cm
∴ BC = 7 cm

Substituting the Values 

Q4: Find the area of the shaded region in Fig. 12.23, where a circular arc of radius 6 cm has been drawn with vertex 0 of an equilateral triangle ΔOAB of side 12 cm as the centre.    (NCERT, CBSE (F) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

Area of Shaded region = Area of equilateral triangle ABO + Area of Major sector

Area of Equilateral Triangle ABO = √34 × a2 = √34 × 12 × 12 cm2

= 62.352 cm2

Area of major sector = θ360 × π × r2

= 300360 × π × 6 × 6 cm2

= 94.2 cm2

Area of Shaded region = 62.352 + 94.2 = 156.55 cm2

Q5: An elastic belt is placed around the rim of a pulley of radius 5 cm. (Fig. 12.46). From one point C on the belt, the elastic belt is pulled directly away from the centre O of the pulley until it is at P, 10 cm from the point O. Find the length of the belt that is still in contact with the pulley. Also, find the shaded area.  (Use π = 3.14 and √3 = 1.73)    (CBSE Delhi 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In △AOP, cos θ = 510

⇒ cos θ = 12 ⇒ θ = 60°

∴ Reflex ∠AOB = 240°

∴ Length of belt in contact with pulley = θ360° × 2πr

= 2 × 3.14 × 5 × 240360 = 20.93 cm

Now, APOA = tan 60°

PA = 5√3 cm = BP (Tangents from an external point are equal)

Area (△OAP + △OBP) = 2 × 12 × 5 × 5√3 = 25√3 = 43.25 cm2

Area of sector OACB = θ360° πr2 = 240360 × 3.14 × 25 = 26.17 cm2

Shaded area = 43.25 – 26.17 = 17.08 cm2

Q6: In the figure given, a sector OAP of a circle with centre O, containing angle θ. AB is perpendicular to the radius OA and meets OP produced at B. Prove that the perimeter of the shaded region is  (CBSE (AI) 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Perimeter of shaded region = AB + PB + arc length AP …(1)

Arc length AP = θ360 × 2πr = πθr180 …(2)

In right-angled △OAB,

tan θ = ABr ⇒ AB = r tan θ …(3)

sec θ = OBr ⇒ OB = r sec θ

OB = OP + PB

∴ r sec θ = r + PB

∴ PB = r sec θ – r …(4)

Substitute (2), (3), and (4) in (1), we get:

Perimeter of shaded region = AB + PB + arc length AP

= r tan θ + r sec θ – r + πθr180

= r [tan θ + sec θ + πθ180 – 1]

Q7: In the figure, AB is a chord of a circle with a centre O and a radius of 10 cm, that subtends a right angle at the centre of the circle. Find the area of the minor segment AQBP. Also, find the area of the major segment ALBQA. (Use π = 3.14) (CBSE 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, A circle of radius (r) = 10 cm in which ∠AOB = 90º. 
Area of the minor segment AQBP = Area of sector OAPB – Area of ΔAOB 
= θ / 360° × πr2 – 1 /2 × OA × OB 
= 90 / 360 °  × 3.14 × 10 × 10 – 1/ 2 × 10 × 10 
= 3.14 × 5 × 5 – 5 × 10 
= 78.5 – 50 
= 28.5 cm2 

So, Area of the minor segment AQBP = 28.5 cm2
Area of the major segment ALBQA = Area of circle – Area of minor segment AQBP 
= 3.14 × (10)2 – 28.5 
= 314 – 28.5 
= 285.5 cm2
Area of major segment ALBQA = 285.5 cm2. Hence, the area of the minor segment AQBP is 28.5 cm2 and the area of the major segment ALBQA is 285.5 cm2.

Also read: NCERT Textbook: Areas Related to Circles

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q1:  In the figure, ABCD is a trapezium with AB || DC, AB = 18 cm, DC = 32 cm and distance between AB and DC = 14 cm. If arcs of equal radii 7 cm with centres A, B, C and D have been drawn, then find the area of the shaded region.     (Foreign 2015)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Area of shaded region = area of trapezium – (area of 4 sectors)

Area of trapezium = 12 (sum of parallel sides) × distance between parallel sides

= 12 (18 + 32) × 14 = 12 × 50 × 14 = 350 cm2 …(i)

Area of sector on A = ∠A360° × π(7)2

Area of sector on B = ∠B360° × π(7)2

Area of sector on C = ∠C360° × π(7)2

Area of sector on D = ∠D360° × π(7)2

Total area of all sectors

= ∠A360° × π(7)2 + ∠B360° × π(7)2 + ∠C360° × π(7)2 + ∠D360° × π(7)2

= π360 (7)2(∠A + ∠B + ∠C + ∠D)

= 227 × 360 × 49 × 360° = 154 cm2 …(ii)   [Sum of angles of a quadrilateral is 360°]From (i) and (ii),
Area of shaded region = 350 – 154 = 196 cm2

10. Previous Year Questions: Circles

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: In the given figure, PA is a tangent from an external point P to a circle with centre O. If ∠POB = 115°, then ∠APO is equal to:
(a) 25° 
(b) 65°
(c) 90° 
(d) 35°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
∠POB + ∠POA = 180     (Linear Pair)
⇒ 115° + ∠POA = 180°            (∵ ∠POB = 115°)
⇒ ∠POA = 180° – 115° = 65°
Now, OA ⊥ PA (∵ Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact)
⇒ ∠PAO = 90°
In ΔPOA,
∠PAO + ∠AOP + ∠APO = 180°
⇒ 90° + 65° + ∠APO = 180°
⇒ ∠APO = 180° – 90° – 65° = 25°.

Q2: In the adjoining figure, TS is a tangent to a circle with centre O. The value of 2x° is

(a) 22.5°
(b) 45° 
(c) 67.5° 
(d) 90°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Since, TS is a tangent of circle.
∴ OS ⊥ ST (∵ Tangent is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact)
∴ ∠OST = 90°
In ΔOST, ∠OST + ∠STO + ∠SOT = 180°
⇒ 3x° + x° + 90° = 180° ⇒ 4x° = 90° ⇒ 2x° = 45°

Q3: In the given figure, PB is a tangent to the circle with centre O at B. AB is a chord of the circle of length 24 cm and at a distance of 5 cm from the centre of the circle. If the length PB of the tangent is 20 cm, find the length of OP. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Given, length of chord AB= 24 cm, 
OM = 5 cm, length of tangent PB = 20 cm 

Construction: Join OB. 
To find: Length of OP. 
Since OM ⊥ AB, M is mid point of AB. 
MB = 1/2 AB = 24/2 = 12 cm 
In right triangle OMB, using Pythagoras theorem 
OB² = OM² + MB² 
⇒ OB² = 5² + (12)² = 169 
⇒ OB = 13 cm 
As, BP is a tangent to circle at B, OB ⊥ BP. So, in right triangle OBP, using Pythagoras theorem 
OP² = PB² + OB² 
⇒ OP² = (20)² + (13)² 
⇒ OP² = 400 + 169 = 569 
⇒ OP = √569 cm

Q4: In the given figure, PC is a tangent to the circle at C. AOB is the diameter which when extended meets the tangent at P. Find ∠CBA and ∠BCO, if ∠PCA = 110°. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Given, PC is a tangent to the circle at C. 
∴ OC ⊥ PC (·.· Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through point of contact.)
⇒ ∠OCP = 90°
Now, ∠PCA = ∠OCP + ∠ACO 
⇒ 110° = 90° + ∠ACO
[∵ ∠PCA = 110° (Given)]
⇒ ∠ACO = 110° – 90° = 20°
In ΔOAC, OA = OC (Radii of circle)
∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA = 20°
∴ ∠AOC = 180° – 20° – 20° = 140°
∠BOC + ∠AOC = 180° (Linear pair)
⇒ ∠BOC = 180° – 140° = 40°
In ΔBOC, 
∠BOC + ∠CBO + ∠BCO = 180°
⇒ 40° + ∠CBO + ∠BCO = 180° [∵ OB = OC (Radii of circle) ∴ ∠CBO = ∠BCO]
⇒ 2∠BCO = 140° ⇒ ∠BCO = 70°
∴ ∠CBA = 70°

Q5: In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle and BCD is tangent to it at C. Prove that ∠BAC + ∠ACD = 90°.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
As OC ⊥ BD 
[∵ tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to radius through point of contact] 
Also, OC = OA [Radii of circle] 
∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA [Angles opposite to equal sides are equal] 
Now, ∠OCO = 90° 
⇒ ∠OCA + ∠ACD = 90° 
⇒ ∠BAC + ∠ACD = 90°

Q6: If tangents PA and PB drawn from an external point P to the circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80° as shown in the given figure, then the measure of ∠POA is 
(a) 40° 
(b) 50°
(c) 60° 
(d) 80° 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 
Given, PA and PB are two tangents drawn from external point P. Also, given ∠APB = 80°. We know that tangents are perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact. 
∴ ∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90° 
Since, OP is angle bisector of ∠APB.

In ΔPAO, we have ∠APO + ∠OAP + ∠POA = 180°
⇒ 40° + 90° + ∠POA = 180°
⇒ 130° + ∠POA = 180°
⇒ ∠POA = 180° – 130° = 50°

Q7: Assertion (A): If two tangents are drawn to a circle from an external point, then they subtend equal angles at the centre of the circle. 
Reason (R): A parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus. 
(a)
 Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 

Q8: In the adjoining figure, PA and PB are tangents to a circle with centre O such that ∠P = 90°. If AB = 3√2 cm, then the diameter of the circle is 
(a) 3√2 cm
(b) 6√2 cm
(c) 3 cm 
(d) 6 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Given, ∠P = 90°, AB = 3√2 cm.
PA and PB are tangents.
So, ∠OBP = ∠OAP = 90° and ∠P = 90° ⇒ ∠O = 90°.
⇒ ∠APB is a square.
Since, AB = OA √2
⇒ 3√2 = OA √2 ⇒ OA = 3
⇒ Diameter = 2, OA = 2 × 3 = 6 cm

Q9: For a circle with centre O and radius 5 cm, which of the following statements is true? 
P: Distance between every pair of parallel tangents is 5 cm. 
Q: Distance between every pair of parallel tangents is 10 cm. 
R: Distance between every pair of parallel tangents must be between 5 cm and 10 cm. 
S: There does not exist a point outside the circle from where length of tangent is 5 cm.
(a) P 
(b) Q
(c) R 
(d) S

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Since, parallel tangents are drawn at the end points of the diameter of the circle. 
⇒ Distance between a pair of parallel tangents 
= diameter of circle = 2 x 5 = 10 cm 
Only, statement ‘Q’ is correct. 

Q10: A person is standing at P outside a circular ground at a distance of 26 m from the centre of the ground. He found that his distances from the points A and B on the ground are 10 m (PA and PB are tangents to the circle). Find the radius of the circular ground.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
QA ⊥AP 
[∵ Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to radius thought point of contact] 
∴ AOP is a right angle triangle 
Using Pythagoras theorem, 
OP2 = OA2 + AP2 ⇒ (26)2 = OA2 + (10)2
⇒ OA2 = 676 – 100 = 576 ⇒ OA = 24 m 
So, radius of circular ground is 24 m. 

Q11: Prove that the tangents drawn at the ends of a diameter of a circle are parallel.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
Given: A circle C(O, r) with diameter PQ. 
Let AB and CD are two tangents drawn to the circle at point P and Q. 
To prove: AB || CD 

Proof: Since, tangent at a point to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact. 
∴ PQ ⊥ AB and PQ ⊥ CD 
∠APO = ∠DQO = 90° 
⇒ ∠APQ = ∠DQP  (Alternate angles) 
∴ AB || CD.

Q12: Prove that opposite sides of a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle subtend supplementary angles at the centre of the circle. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 


Given: ABCD is a quadrilateral circumscribing a circle whose sides AB, BC, CD and DA touches the circle at P, Q, R and S respectively. 
To prove: ∠AOB + ∠COD = 180° and ∠BOC + ∠ADD= 180° 
Construction: Join OP, OQ, OR and OS. 
Proof: Since we know that tangents drawn from an external point to a circle subtend equal angles at the centre. 
∴ ∠1 = ∠2,
∠3 = ∠4,
∠5 = ∠6 and
∠7 = ∠8
Now, ∠1 + ∠2 + ∠3 + ∠4 + ∠5 + ∠6 + ∠7 + ∠8 = 360°
[Sum of all angles around a point is 360°]
⇒ 2(∠2 + ∠3 + ∠6 + ∠7) = 360° and
2(∠1 + ∠8 + ∠4 + ∠5) = 360°
⇒ (∠2 + ∠3) + (∠6 + ∠7) = 180°
⇒ (∠1 + ∠8) + (∠4 + ∠5) = 180°
⇒ ∠AOB + ∠COD = 180° and ∠AOD + ∠BOC = 180°

Q13: In the adjoining figure, TP and TQ are tangents drawn to a circle with centre O. If ∠OPQ = 15° and ∠PTQ = θ, then find the value of sin 2θ.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
We have, ∠OPT = 90°
[∵ OP is radius and PT is tangent]
⇒ 15° + ∠QPT = 90° ⇒ ∠QPT = 90° – 15°
⇒ ∠QPT = 75°
∴ ∠TQP = ∠QPT = 75° [∵ TP = TQ]
In ΔTPQ, 
∠PTQ = 180° – ∠TPQ – ∠TQP = 180° – 75° – 75° = 30°
⇒ θ = 30°
∴ sin 2θ = sin 60° = √3/2

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: The maximum number of common tangents that can be drawn to two circles intersecting at two distinct points is:     
(1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 4
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Here, circle with centre O and O’ are intersecting at two distinct points A and B. So, in this situation PQ, RS are the tangents which can be drawn.

Q2: In the given figure, O is the centre of the circle. MN is the chord and the tangent ML at point M makes an angle of 70° with MN. The measure of ∠MON is:     (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)

(a) 120º 
(b) 140º 
(c) 70º 
(d) 90º

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
OM ⊥ ML [as tangent from centre is ⊥ at point of contact]

∠OML = 90º (∵ The angle between a tangent and a radius at the point of contact is always 90º)
and ∠NML = 70º 
⇒ ∠OMN + ∠NML = 90º 
⇒ ∠OMN = 90º – 70º = 20º 
∵ OM = ON = Radii of same circle 
∴ ∠OMN = ∠ONM = 20º  (Angle opposite to equal sides are equal)
In ∆MON, 
∠OMN + ∠ONM + ∠MON = 180º 
⇒ 20º + 20º + ∠MON = 180º 
⇒ ∠MON = 140º

Q3: In the given figure, if PT is tangent to a circle with centre O and ∠TPO = 35º, then the measure of ∠x is       (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) 110º 
(b) 115º 
(c) 120º 
(d) 125º

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
∠OTP = 90º [Line from centre is ⊥ to tangent at point of contact] 
∠x = ∠TPO + ∠OTP [Exterior Angle Property] 
x = 35º + 90º = 125º

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: In the given figure, PT is a tangent at T to the circle with centre O. If ∠TPO = 25°, then x is equal to:

(a) 25° 
(b) 65° 
(c) 90°

(d)115°         (1 Mark) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d)
Since tangent is perpendicular to radius at the point of contact.
∴ ∠PTO = 90°
Hence, by the exterior angle formula, in ΔOTP, we get x = 90° + 25°
= 115°

Q2: In the given figure, PQ is tangent to the circle centred at O. If ∠AOB = 95o, then the measure of ∠ABQ will be (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 47.5°
(b) 42.5°
(c) 85°
(d) 95°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
We have ∠AOB = 95°
In ΔAOB, ∠OAB = ∠OBA (Angle opposite to equal sides are equal)
Now, ∠OAB + 95° + ∠OBA =180° (Angle sum property of a triangle)
= 2∠OAB = 85° 


∴ ∠OAB = ∠OBA = 42.5° [From (i)]
Now, OB is perpendicular to the tangent line PQ
∠OBQ = 90°
∠ABQ + ∠OBA = ∠OBQ = 90°
∠ABQ = 90° – 42.5°
= 47.5°

Q3: In the given figure. TA is tangent to the circle with centre O such that OT = 4 cm, ∠OTA= 30o, then the length of TA is   
(1 Mark)(2023)
(a) 2√3 cm

(b) 2cm
(c) 2√2 cm
(d) √3 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Draw OA ⊥ TA.

In ΔOTA,
∠OAT = 90° [∵ Tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius passing through the point of contact]
and ∠OTA = 30°


Q4: In the figure, from an external point P, two tangents PQ and PR are drawn to a circle of radius 4 cm with centre O. If  ∠QPR= 90°. then the length of PQ is    (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 3 cm
(b) 4 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 2√2 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

Draw a line segment joining the points R and O

Now OQ and OR are equal (Radii of a circle)
∠QPR = 90° (Given)

And ∠OQP = ∠ORP = 90° (Tangents make 90 degree angle with radius)

Now, in Quadrilateral PQOR
Sides OQ = OR (Radii)

and PR = PQ (Tangents from same point)

And ∠QPR = ∠PRO = ∠PQO = 90°

Therefore, Quadrilateral PQOR is a square.

Since, all sides of a square are equal,
⇒ OR = RP = PQ = OQ = 4 cm

Hence, length of PQ is 4 cm.

Q5: The length of tangent drawn to a circle of radius 9 cm from a point 41 cm from the centre is          (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 40 cm
(b) 9 cm
(c) 41 cm 
(d) 50 cm

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
OB ⊥ AB     [∵As tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of the contact]
In ΔOAB,

OA2 = OB2 + AB2 [By Pythagoras theorem]
⇒ (41)2 = 92 + AB2
⇒ AB2 = 412 – 92
= (41 – 9)(41 + 9)
= (32)(50)
= 1600
⇒ AB = 
= 40 cm

Q6: In the given figure. O is the centre of the circle and PQ is the chord. If the tangent PR at P makes an angle of 50° with PQ, then the measure of ∠POQ is           (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 50°

(b) 40°
(c) 100°
(d) 130°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
PR is tangent which touches circle at point P.
So, ∠OPR = 90°
∠OPQ = 90° – ∠RPQ = 90° –  50° =  40°
In, ΔPOQ,
OP = OQ (Radii of circle)
So, ∠OQP = ∠OPQ=40°
⇒ ∠POQ = 180° – 40° – 40° = 100°

Q7: Case Study: The discus throw is an event in which an athlete attempts to throw a discus. The athlete spins anti-clockwise around one and a half times through a circle, then releases the throw. When released, the discus travels along the tangent to the circular spin-orbit.

In the given figure, AB is one such tangent to a circle of radius 75cm. Point O is the centre of the circle and ∠ABO = 30°. PQ is parallel to OA.

Based on the above information
(a) Find the length of AB.
(b) Find the length of OB.
(c) Find the length of AP.

OR
Find the value of PQ.         (4 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

OR


Q8: Two tangents TP and TQ are drawn to a circle with centre O from an external point T. Prove that ∠PTQ = 2∠OPQ.     
(3 Marks)(2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

We know that the lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.

∴ TP = TQ … (1)

∴ ∠TQP = ∠TPQ (angles of equal sides are equal) … (2)

Now, PT is tangent, and OP is the radius.

∴ OP ⊥ TP (Tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact)

∴ ∠OPT = 90°

or, ∠OPQ + ∠TPQ = 90°

or, ∠TPQ = 90° – ∠OPQ … (3)

In ∆TPQ,

∠TPQ + ∠PQT + ∠QTP = 180° (Sum of angles of a triangle is 180°)

or, 90° – ∠OPQ + ∠TPQ + ∠QTP = 180°

or, 2(90° – ∠OPQ) + ∠TPQ = 180° [from (2) and (3)]

or, 180° – 2∠OPQ + ∠TPQ = 180°

or, 2∠OPQ = ∠TPQ 
Hence Proved

Q9: In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in a quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠B = 90°. If AD = 17 cm, AB = 20 cm and DS = 3 cm, then find the radius of the circle.      (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Given:

∠B = 90° , AD = 17 cm , AB = 20 cm, DS = 3 cm (where S is the point of tangency on side AD)

From the properties of tangents, we know:

  • Tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length.
  • DS = DR (tangents from point D are equal).
  • AR = AQ (tangents from point A are equal).

Since AD = 17 cm and DS = 3 cm, we calculate AR as:

  • AR = AD – DS = 17 cm – 3 cm = 14 cm
    Thus, AR = 14 cm.

From the property that AR = AQ, we get:

  • AQ = 14 cm.

Since AB = 20 cm and AQ = 14 cm, we calculate BQ as:

  • BQ = AB – AQ = 20 cm – 14 cm = 6 cm.

OQ ⊥ BQ and OP ⊥ BP because a tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.

Since both OQ = BQ and the angles between the tangents are 90°, quadrilateral BQOP must be a square.

Since BQ = OQ = r, the radius of the inscribed circle is:

r = 6 cm.

Q10: From an external point, two tangents are drawn to a circle. Prove that the line joining the external point to the centre of the circle bisects the angle between the two tangents.       (3 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let P lie an external point, O be the centre of the circle and PA and PB are two tangents to the circle as shown in  figure.

In ΔOAP and ΔOBP.
OA = OB [Radius of the circle]
OP = OP [common]
PA = PB [∵ Tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal]
So, ΔOAP ≅ ΔOPB
So, ∠APO = ∠BPO (By cpct)
 Hence. OP bisects ∠APB

Q11: Two concentric circles are of radii 5 cm and 3 cm. Find the length of the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle.       (3 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the centre of the two concentric circlet is O and AB be the chord of the larger circle which touches the smaller circle at point P as shown in figure.
∴ AB is a tangent to the smaller circle at point P
⇒ OP ⊥  AB
By Pythagoras theorem, in ΔOPA

OA2 = AP2 + OP2
⇒ 52 = AP2 +32
⇒ AP2 =52 – 32 = 25 – 9
⇒ AP2 = 16 ⇒ AP = 4cm
In ΔOPB Since, OP ⊥ AB
AP = PB [∵ Perpendicular drawn from the centre of the circle bisects the chord]
∴ AB = 2AP = 2 x 4 = 8 cm
∴ The length of the chord of the larger circle is 8 cm.

Q12: Prove that the angle between the two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle is supplementary to the angle subtended by the line segment joining the points of contact at the centre.      (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let PA and PB are two tangents on a circle from point P as shown in the figure.
Let is known that tangent to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
∠OAP =∠OBP = 90° ……..(i)
In quadrilateral AOBP,
∠OAP + ∠APB + ∠PBO + ∠BOA = 360°
90° + ∠APB + 90° + ∠BOA = 360°     [Using (i)]
∠APB + ∠BOA = 360° – 180°
∴ ∠APB + ∠BOA = 180°
Hence proved.

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: In Fig, AB is the diameter of a circle centred at O. BC is tangent to the circle at B. If OP bisects the chord AD and ∠AOP= 60°, then find m∠C.    (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Since, OP bisects the chord AD, therefore ∠OPA = 90° …. [∵ The line drawn through the centre of a circle to bisect a chord is perpendicular to the chord]
Now, In ΔAOP,
∠A = 180° – 60° – 90°
= 120° – 90°
= 30°
Also, we know that the tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact
∴ ∠ABC = 90°
Now, In ΔABC,
∠C = 180° – ∠A – ∠B
= 180° – 30° – 90°
= 150° – 90°
= 60°

Q2: In Fig. XAY is a tangent to the circle centred at 0. If ∠ABO = 40°. Then find ∠BAY and ∠AOB   (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Given, ∠ABO = 40°
∠XAO = 90°  …(Angle between radius and tangent)
OA = OB  …(Radii of same circle)
⇒ ∠OAB = ∠OBA
∴  ∠OAB = 40°
Now, applying the linear pair of angles property,
we get
∠BAY + ∠OAB + ∠XAO = 180°
⇒ ∠BAY + 40° + 90° = 180°
⇒ ∠BAY + 130° = 180°
⇒ ∠BAY = 180° – 130°
⇒ ∠BAY = 50°
Now, In ΔAOB,
∠AOB + ∠OAB + ∠OBA = 180°
or, ∠AOB + 40° + 40° = 180°
or, ∠AOB = 180° – 80° = 100°
Hence proved.

Q3: In Figure, two circles with centres at O and O’ of radii 2r and r, respectively, touch each other internally at A. A chord AB of the bigger circle meets the smaller circle at C. Show that C bisects AB.  (2022)

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Ans: 

Join OA, OC, and OB.

Clearly, ∠OCA is the angle in a semi-circle.∴ ∠OCA=90∘

In right triangles OCA and OCB, we have:OA=OB=r 
∠OCA=∠OCB=90∘ and OC=OC

So, by RHS-criterion of congruence, we get:△OCA≅△OCB 
∴AC = CB

Q4: In Figure, PQ and PR are tangents to the circle centred at O. If ∠OPR = 45°, then prove that ORPQ is a square.   (2022)

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Ans: It is given that ∠QPR = 90°
We know that the lengths of the tangents drawn from the outer point to the circle are equal.
PQ = PR … (1)
The radius is Perpendicular to the tangent line at the point of contact.
∴ ∠PQO = 90°
and
∠ORP = 90°
In quadrilateral OQPR:
∠QPR + ∠PQO + ∠QOR + ∠ORP = 360°
⇒ 90° + 90° + ∠QOR + 90° = 360°
⇒ ∠QOR = 360° – 270° = 90°
∴ QPR = ∠PQO = ∠QOR = ∠ORP = 90°
It can be concluded that PQOR is a square.

Q5: In Fig., there are two concentric circles with centre O. If ARC and AQB are tangents to the smaller circle from point A lying on the larger circle, find the length of AC if AQ = 5 cm.    (2022)

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Ans:  

Here, AC and AB are the tangents from external point A to the smaller circle.
∴ AC = AB

Now, AB is the chord of the bigger circle and OQ is the perpendicular bisector of chord AB.
∴ AQ = QB

or, AB = 2AQ

or, AB = 2(5) = 10 cm [Given AQ = 5 cm]

or, AC = 10 cm

Q6: In Figure, O is the centre of the circle. PQ and PR are tangent segments. Show that the quadrilateral PQOR is cyclic.   (2022)

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Ans: Given: PQ and PR are tangents from an external point P.
To prove: PQOR is a cyclic quadrilateral.
Proof :
OR and OQ are radius of circle centred at O, and PR and PQ are tangents.
∠ORP = 90° and ∠OQP = 90°
In quadrilateral PQOR, we have
∠OQP + ∠QOR + ∠ORP + ∠RPQ = 360°
90° + ∠QOR + 90° + ∠RPQ = 360°
180° + ∠QOR + ∠RPQ = 360°
∠QOR + ∠RPQ = 360° – 180°
So, ∠O + ∠P = 180°
∠P and ∠O are opposite angles of quadrilateraI which are supplementary.
∴ PQOR is a cyclic quadrilateral.

Q7: In Figure O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. PA and BC are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively. If OP = 13 cm. then find the length of tangents PA and BC.   (2022)

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Ans: 

We are given:

The radius of the circle, OA = 5 cm,
The distance from the external point P to the center O, OP = 13 cm.

Since PA is a tangent to the circle at point A, it is perpendicular to the radius OA. Thus, △OAP is a right triangle.

Using the Pythagorean theorem in △OAP:

OP² = OA² + PA²

Substitute the known values:

13² = 5² + PA²

Simplify:

169 = 25 + PA²

Solve for PA²:

PA² = 169 − 25 = 144
Take the square root:

PA = √144 = 12 cm
Thus, the length of PA is:

PA = 12 cm

In PBC, using Pythagoras theorem
PB=8 cm, BC=x, PC=(12-x), √PBC=90o
So, PB2+BC2=PC

82+x2=(12-x)2

x=10/3=3.33

BC=3.33

Q8: In fig. PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents at P and Q meet at a point T. Find the length of TP.   (2022)

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Ans:  In the given figure,
PQ = 8 cm and OP = 5 cm

Join OT.
Let it meet PQ at the point R.

Then ∆TPQ is isosceles and TO is the angle bisector of ∠PTO.
[∴ TP = TQ = Tangents from T upon the circle]

∴ OT ⊥ PQ

∴ OT bisects PQ.

PR = RQ = 4 cm

Now,
OR = √(OP² – PR²) = √(5² – 4²) = 3 cm

Now,
∠TPR + ∠RPO = 90° (∴ TPO = 90°)

= ∠TPR + ∠PTR (∴ TRP = 90°)

∴ ∠RPO = ∠PTR

Now, Right triangle TRP is similar to the right triangle PRO. [By A-A Rule of similar triangles]

[∵Tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal in length]

Q9: Prove that a parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.   (2022)

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Ans: Given : A parallelogram ABCD circumscribing a circle with centre O.
To prove : ABCD is a rhombus.
Proof: We know that the tangents drawn to a circle from an external Doint are eaual in length.

⇒ AP = AS  [Tangents drawn from A]    …(i)
⇒ BP = BQ    [Tangents drawn from B]    …(ii)
⇒ CR= CQ    [Tangents drawn from C]    …(iii)
⇒ DR = DS    [Tangents drawn from D]    …(iv)
Adding (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) we get
AP + BP +  CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
= (AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ)
⇒ AB + CD = AD + BC
⇒ 2AB = 2BC         [Opposite sides of the given parallelogram are equal ∴ AB = DC and AD = BC)
AB = BC = DC = AD
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus.

Q10: In Fig, if a circle touches the side QR of ΔPQR at S and extended sides PQ and PR at M and N, respectively, then 

Prove that     (2022)

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Ans: Given: A circle is touching a side QR of ΔPQR at point S.
PQ and PR are produced at M and N respectively.
To prove
Proof: PM = PN  …(i) (Tangents drawn from an external point P to a circle are equal)
QM = QS  …(ii) (Tangents drawn from an external point Q to a circle are equal)
RS = RN  …(iii) (Tangents drawn from an external point R to a circle are equal)
Now, 2PM = PM + PM
= PM + PN  …[From equation (i)]
= (PQ + QM) + (PR + RN)
= PQ + QS + PR + RS  …[From equations (i) and (ii)]
= PQ + (QS + SR) + PR
= PQ + QR + PR

Hence proved.

Q11: In the figure, a triangle ABC with ∠B = 90° is shown. Taking AB as diameter, a circle has been drawn intersecting AC at point P. Prove that the tangent drawn at point P bisects BC.          (2022)

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Ans: 

According to the question,
In a right angle ΔABC is which ∠B = 90°, a circle is drawn with AB as diameter intersecting the hypotenuse AC at P.
Also PQ is a tangent at P
To Prove: PQ bisects BC i.e. BQ = QC
Proof: ∠APB = 90°  …[Angle in a semicircle is a right-angle]
∠BPC = 90° …[Linear Pair]
∠3 + ∠4 = 90° …[1]
Now, ∠ABC = 90°
So in ΔABC
∠ABC + ∠BAC + ∠ACB = 180°
90° + ∠1 + ∠5 = 180°
∠1 + ∠5 = 90°  …[2]
Now, ∠1 = ∠3  …[Angle between tangent and the chord equals angle made by the chord in alternate segment]
Using this in [2] we have
∠3 + ∠5 = 90°  …[3]
From [1] and [3] we have
∠3 + ∠4 = ∠3 + ∠5
∠4 = ∠5
QC = PQ  …[Sides opposite to equal angles are equal]
But also, PQ = BQ  …[Tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal]
So, BQ = QC
i.e. PQ bisects BC.

Q12: In the figure, two circles touch externally at P. A common tangent touches them at A and B, and another common tangent is at P, which meets the common tangent AB at C. Prove that ∠APB = 90°.    (2022)

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Ans: Let common tangent at P meets the tangent AB at C. Since, tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are  equal


∴ AC = CP
and BC = CP
⇒ ∠CAP = ∠CPA = x (say) …(i)
and ∠CBP = ∠CPB = y (say) …(ii)
Now, ∠ACP+ ∠BCP = 180°  [Linear pair] …(*)
In ΔACP, ∠ACP + ∠CPA + ∠CAP = 180° …(iii)
and in ΔBCP, ∠BCP+ ∠CPB + ∠CBP = 180°…(iv)
Adding (iii) and (iv), we get
∠ACP + x + x + ∠BCP + y + y = 360°
∠ACP + ∠BCP + 2x + 2y = 360°   [Using (i) & (ii)]
= 2(x + y) = 360° – 180° = 180°[Using (‘))
⇒ x + y = 90°
i.e., ∠CPA + ∠CPB = 90° => ∠APB = 90°

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q1: In the given figure, PT and PS are tangents to a circle with centre O, from a point P such that PT = 4 cm and ∠TPS = 60°. Find the length of the chord TS.    (2021)

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Ans: 

Given: PT = 4 cm and ∠TPS = 60°.

To Find: Length of the chord TS and the radius of the circle.

Step 1: In triangle PTS given

PT = 4 cm and PS = 4 cm

Since, PT = PS = 4 cm

Let, ∠PST = ∠PTS = x and as we know ∠TPS = 60°

Now, in triangle PTS

∠PST + ∠PTS + ∠TPS = 180°

x + x + 60° = 180°

2x = 120°

x = 60°

So, ∠PST = ∠PTS = ∠TPS = 60°

Thus, PT = TS = PS = 4 cm
Step 2: An equilateral triangle has equal sides and angles of 60 degrees. Triangle PTS is equilateral, and chord TS = 4 cm.

Step 3: In triangle POS:

OS/PS = tan 30°
OS = P × tan 30°
OS = 4/√3 cm

Hence, the radius of the circle is 4/√3 and chord TS = 4 cm.

Also read: Circle Theorems -1

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: In the figure, PQ is tangent to the circle with the centre at O, at the point B. If ∠AOB = 100°, then ∠ABP is equal to   (2020)

(a) 50°
(b) 40°
(c) 60°
(d) 80°     

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Ans: (a)
Given that
∠ AOB = 100°
Since OA = OB [Radii]
So  ∠ OAB =  ∠ OBA = 40° [Angle opposite the similar sides are equal]
Since PQ is tangent on the circle. So OB is perpendicular to PQ.
So,
∠ OBP = 90° [angle between radii and tangent is 90°]
∠ OBA + ∠ ABP = 90°
∠ ABP  = 90 – ∠ OBA
∴ ∠ ABP  = 90° – 40°
∴ ∠ ABP  = 50°

Q2: In the given figure, PT is a tangent at T to the circle with centre O. If ∠TPO = 25°, then x is equal to   (2020)
(a) 25°
(b) 65°
(c) 90°
(d) 115°

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Ans: (d)
Since ∠TPO = 25° and ∠OTP  = 90°  [Angle between radii and tangent is 90°]
x = ∠OTP + ∠TPO
= 90° + 25° = 115°
[∵ Radius is perpendicular to the tangent T]

Q3: In the given figure, QR is a common tangent to the given circles, touching externally at point T. The tangent at T meets QR at P  If PT = 3.8 cm, then the length of QR(in cm] is   (2020)
(a) 3.8

(b) 7.6
(c) 5.7
(d) 1.9

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Ans: (b)
It is known that the length of the tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal.
∴ QP = PT= 3.8 cm and PR = PT = 3.8 cm
Now, QR = QP + PR = 3.8cm + 3.8cm = 7.6 cm

Q4: In Figure, if tangents PA and PB from an external point P to a circle with centre O are inclined to each other at an angle of 80° then ∠POA is equal to   (2020)
(a) 50°

(b) 60°
(c) 80°
(d) 100°

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Ans: (a)

Construction: Join OP
A tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius at the point of contact.

In ΔOAP and in ΔOBP:

  • OA = OB (radii of the circle are always equal)
  • AP = BP (length of the tangents)
  • OP = OP (common)

Therefore, by SSS congruency ΔOAP ≅ ΔOBP.

If two triangles are congruent, then their corresponding parts are equal.

Hence:

  • ∠POA = ∠POB
  • ∠OPA = ∠OPB

Therefore, OP is the angle bisector of ∠APB and ∠AOB.

Hence, ∠OPA = ∠OPB = 1/2 (∠APB)
= 1/2 × 80°
= 40°

By the angle sum property of a triangle, in ΔOAP:
∠A + ∠POA + ∠OPA = 180°

OA ⊥ AP (The tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.)

Therefore, ∠A = 90°

90° + ∠POA + 40° = 180°
130° + ∠POA = 180°
∠POA = 180° – 130°
∠POA = 50°

Thus, option (A) 50° is the correct answer.

Q5: In the figure, a quadrilateral ABCD is drawn to circumscribe a circle. Prove that AB + CD = BC + AD.       (2020)

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Ans: Let the circle touches the sides AB, BC, CD and DA of quadrilateral ABCD at P, Q, R and S respectively Since, lengths of tangents drawn from an external point to the circle are equal.

AP = AS    …(1)    (Tangents drawn from A)
BP = BQ    …(2)    (Tangents drawn from B)
CR = CQ    …(3)    (Tangents drawn from C)
DR = DS    …(4)    (Tangents drawn from D)
Adding (1), (2), (3) and (4), we get
AP + BP + CR + DR = AS + BQ + CQ + DS
⇒ (AP + PB) + (CR + RD) = (AS + SD) + (BQ + QC)
⇒ AB + CD = AD + BC

Q6: In figure, find the perimeter of ΔABC if AP =12 cm.      (2020)

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Ans: 

Step 1: Identify the Tangents
From the problem, we know that AP and AQ are tangents to the circle from point A, and BC is also a tangent. According to the properties of tangents from an external point, the lengths of the tangents drawn from the same external point to a circle are equal.

Step 2: Set Up the Equations
Since AP = 12 cm, we can conclude that:

  • AP = AQ = 12 cm (Equation 1)

Step 3: Identify Other Tangents
From point B, the tangents BD and BP are equal:

  • BD = BP (Equation 2)

From point C, the tangents CD and CQ are equal:

  • CD = CQ (Equation 3)

Step 4: Express Perimeter of Triangle ABC
The perimeter of triangle ABC can be expressed as:
Perimeter = AB + BC + AC

Step 5: Substitute for BC
Since BC is composed of the tangents from B and C:
BC = BD + CD

Thus, we can rewrite the perimeter as:
Perimeter = AB + (BD + CD) + AC

Step 6: Express AB and AC in Terms of Tangents
From the properties of tangents:

  • AP = AB + BP
  • AQ = AC + CQ

Substituting BP and CQ with BD and CD respectively, we have:

  • AP = AB + BD (Equation 4)
    AQ = AC + CD (Equation 5)

Step 7: Substitute Equations into PerimeterNow, substituting the expressions from Equations 4 and 5 into the perimeter equation:Perimeter = (AP – BD) + (BD + CD) + (AQ – CD)

Step 8: Simplify the Expression
Since AP = AQ and both are equal to 12 cm:
Perimeter = (12 – BD) + (BD + CD) + (12 – CD)

This simplifies to:
Perimeter = 12 + 12 = 24 cm

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: In the given figure, a circle is inscribed in a ΔABC having sides BC = 6 cm, AB = 10 cm and AC = 12 cm. Find the lengths BL, CM and AN.    (2019)

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Ans:  Let BL = x, BN = x

[∵ Tangents drawn from an external point to to the circle are equal in length]
CL = CM = 8 – x    [∵ BC = 8cm]
AN = AM = 10 – x    [∵ AB = 10cm]
But AC= 12cm[Given]
∴ AM + MC = 12
10 – x + 8 – x = 12
⇒ 18 – 2x = 12
⇒ 6 = 2x
⇒  x = 3
Length of BL = 3cm
Length of CM = 8 – 3 = 5 cm
Length of AN = 10 – 3 = 7 cm

Q2: Prove that tangents drawn at the ends of the diameter of a circle are parallel.   (2019)

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Ans: 

Given : A circle C(O, r)with diameter AB and let PQ and RS be the tangents drawn to the circle at point A and B.
To prove: PQ || RS
Proof: Since tangent at a point to a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
∴ AB ⊥ PQ and AB ⊥ R S
⇒ ∠PAB = 90° and ∠ABS = 90°
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠ABS
⇒ PQ || RS  [∵ ∠PAB and ∠ABS are alternate interior angles]

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Previous Year Questions 2017

Q1: The difference between the radii of the smaller circle and the larger circle is 7 cm and the difference between the areas of the two circles is 1078 sq. cm. Find the radius of the smaller circle.    [CBSE Delhi 2017 (C)]

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Ans: Given: r2 – r1 = 7 (r2 > r1) …(i)

 (From equation (i))
 ….. (ii)
Adding (i) and (ii), we get
2r2 = 56
⇒ r2 = 28 cm
Also, r1 = 21 cm (From equation (i))
∴ Radius of simaller circle = 21 cm.

Q2: Prove that the tangent drawn at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.    [AI (C) 2017]

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Referring to the figure:

OA = OC (Radii of circle)

Now OB = OC + BC

∴ OB > OC (OC being radius and B any point on tangent)

⇒ OA < OB

B is an arbitrary point on the tangent.

Thus, OA is shorter than any other line segment joining O to any point on the tangent.

Shortest distance of a point from a given line is the perpendicular distance from that line.

Hence, the tangent at any point of the circle is perpendicular to the radius.

Q3: In Fig., PQ is a chord of length 8 cm of a circle of radius 5 cm. The tangents drawn at P and Q intersect at T. Find the length of TP.    [AI (C) 2017, Foreign 2015]

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Ans: Given: PQ is a chord of length 8 cm
Radius OP = 5 cm. PT and QT are tangents to the circle.
To find: TP
OT is perpendicular bisector of PQ
∠ORP = 90°
(Line joining the centre of circle to the common point of two tangents drawn to circle is perpendicular bisector of line joining the point of contact of the tangents.


⇒ 

x2 = 9
⇒ x = 3


(OR + RT)2 = 25 + PT2
(3 + y)2 = 25 + PT2
9 + y2 + 6y = 25 + PT2 …….(i)
In ΔPRT, TP2 = PR2 + RT2
⇒ PT2 = (4)2 + (y)2 …….(ii)
Put value of PT2 in eq (i)
9 + y2 + 6y = 25 + 16 + y2
6y = 25 + 16 – 9
6y = 32
y = 32/6 = 16/3 cm
Putting y = 16/3 cm in eq (ii), we get

Q4: From an external point P, two tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle with centre O. Prove that OP is the perpendicular bisector of chord AB.  (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Join OA and OB.
In ΔOAP and ΔOBP.

OA = OB [Radii of same circle]
PA = PB [Tangents from external point]
OP = OP [Common]
So ΔOAP ≅ ΔOBP (By SSS rule)
∠1 = ∠2 [By C.P.C.T.]
Now, In ΔATP and ΔBTP.

 PA = PB [Tangents from external point]

 AT = BT [By C.P.C.T.] …(1)

 ∠ATP = ∠BTP [By CPCT] …(2)
Since, ATB is a straight line. 
∠ATP + ∠BTP = 180º 
⇒ ∠ATP + ∠ATP = 180º [From (2) ] 
⇒ 2∠ATP = 180º 
⇒ ∠ATP = 90º …(3) 
From (1) and (3) we can say that OP is ⊥ bisector of AB

Q5: In the given figure, PQ is a tangent from an external point P and QOR is a diameter. If ∠POR = 130º and S is a point on the circle, find ∠1 + ∠2. (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Given, PQ is a tangent to a circle, and QOR is a diameter of a circle. 
Also, ∠POR = 130º 
Now, ∠RST = 1/ 2 ∠POR
∠2 = 1/ 2 × 130º = 65º …(i) [∠TOR = ∠POR] 

[Since, angle subtended by the arc at centre is twice the angle subtended by it on any remaining part of the circle]
Since, ROQ is the diameter of the circle 
∴ ∠ROT + ∠QOT = 180º 
∠QOT = 180º – 130º = 50º …(ii) 
and ∠PQR = 90º …(iii) [tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact]
In ΔQOP 
∠QOP + ∠PQO + ∠OPQ = 180º 
⇒ 50º + 90º + ∠1 = 180º [from (ii) and (iii)] 
∠1 = 180º – 140º = 40º …(iv)
∴ ∠1 + ∠2 = 40º + 65º [From (i) and (iv)] 
= 105º 
Hence, the sum of ∠1 + ∠2 is 105º

Q6: In the figure, the radius of the circle of DABC of area 84 cm2 is 4 cm and the lengths of the segments AP and BP into which side AB is divided by the point of contact P are 6 cm and 8 cm. Find the lengths of the sides AC and BC.  (CBSE 2017)

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Ans: Given: area (∆ABC) = 84 cm2
Radius of circle, r = OP = OQ = OR = 4 cm AP = 6 cm and BP = 8 cm 
Now AP = AR = 6 cm [Q two tangents from an external point to a circle are equal] 
Similarly, BP = BQ = 8 cm 
and QC = RC = x (say) 
AC = 6 + x 
and BC = 8 + x 
Now, area (∆ABC) = area (∆AOB) + area (∆BOC) + area (∆AOC)


⇒ 84 = 28 + (16 + 2x) + (12 + 2x)
⇒ 84 = 56 + 4x 
⇒ 4x = 84 – 56 
⇒ 4x = 28 
⇒ x = 7 
Hence, AC = 6 + 7 = 13 cm 
and BC = 8 + 7 = 15 cm.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q1: If from an external point P of a circle with centre 0, two tangents PQ and PR are drawn such that QPR = 120°, prove that 2PQ = PO.      [CBSE Delhi (F) 2016]

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Ans: Given, ∠QPR = 120°
Radius is perpendicular to the tangent at the point of contact.
∠OQP = 90° ⇒ ∠QPO = 60°

(Tangents drawn to a circle from an external point are equally inclined to the segment, joining the centre to that point.)

Q2: In Fig. 8.42, AP and BP are tangents to a circle with centre O, such that AP = 5 cm and ∠APS = 60°. Find the length of chord AB.     [CBSE Delhi 2016]

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Ans: PA = PB (Tangents from an external point are equal)
and ∠APB = 60°
⇒ ∠PAB = ∠PBA = 60° (Angle opposite to similar sides are equal)
∴ ΔPAB is an equilateral triangle.
Hence AB = PA = 5 cm.

Q3: In Fig. 8.43 from an external point P, two tangents PT and PS are drawn to a circle with centre O and radius r. If OP = 2r, show that ∠OTS = ∠OST = 30°.      [CBSE (AI) 2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let ∠TOP = θ
∴ 
Hence, ∠TOS = 120°
In ∠OTS, OT = OS    (Radii of circle)
⇒ 

Q4: In Fig. 8.44, are two concentric circles of radii 6 cm and 4 cm with centre O. If AP is a tangent to the larger circle and BP to the smaller circle and the length of AP is 8 cm, find the length of BP.     [CBSE (F) 2016]

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Ans: OA = 6 cm, OB = 4 cm, AP = 8 cm
OP2 = OA2 + AP2 = 36 + 64 = 100 [Pythagoras Theorem]
⇒ OP = 10 cm
Similarly BP2 = OP2 – OB2 = 100 – 16 = 84 [Pythagoras Theorem]
⇒ 

Q5: From an external point P, tangents PA and PR are drawn to a circle with centre O. If ∠PAB = 50°, then find ∠AOB.      [CBSE Delhi 2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: ∵ PA = PB ⇒ ∠BAP = ∠ABP = 50°
∴  ∠APB = 180° – 50° – 50° = 80°
and ∠AOB = 180° – 80° = 100° [Sum of opposite side of a quadrilateral is 180°]

Q6: In Fig. 8.29, PQ is a tangent at point C to a circle with centre O. If AB is a diameter and ∠CAB = 30°, find ∠PCA.      [CBSE (AI) 2016]

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Ans: ∠ACB = 90° (Angle in the semicircle)
∠CAB = 30° (given)
In ΔABC,
90° + 30° + ∠ABC = 180°   [Angle sum property]
⇒ ΔABC = 60°
Now, ∠PCA = ∠ABC (Angles in the alternate segment)
∴  ∠PCA = 60°

OR
Construction: Join O to C.
∠PCO = 90° (∵ Line joining centre to point of contact is perpendicular to PQ)
In ΔAOC, OA = OC (Radii of circle)
∴ ∠OAC = ∠OCA = 30° (Equal sides have equal opp. angles)
Now, ∠PCA = ∠PCO – ∠ACO
= 90° – 30° = 60°

Q7: Two tangents PA and PB are drawn to the circle with centre O, such that ∠APB = 120°. Prove that OP = 2AP.       (Foreign 2016)

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Ans:  Given. A circle C(0, r). PA and PB are tangents to the circle from point P, outside the circle such that ∠APB = 120°. OP is joined.

To Prove. OP = 2AP.
Construction. Join OA and OB.
Proof. Consider Δs PAO and PBO
PA = PB [Tangents to a circle, from a point outside it, are equal.]
OP = OP [Common]
∠OAP = ∠OBP = 90°

Q8: In Fig. 8.62, two equal circles, with centres O and O’, touch each other at X.OO’ produced meets the circle with centre O’ at A. AC is tangent to the circle with centre O, at point C. O’D is perpendicular to AC. Find the value of      [CBSE (AI) 2016]

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Ans: AC is tangent to circle with centre O.
Thus ∠ACO = 90°
In ΔAO’D and ΔAOC
∠ADO’ = ∠ACO = 90º
∠A = ∠A  (Common)

Q9: In Fig. 8.63, O is the centre of a circle of radius 5 cm. T is a point such that OT = 13 cm and OT intersects the circle at E. If AB is a tangent to the circle at E, find the length of AB, where TP and TQ are two tangents to the circle.     [CBSE Delhi 2016]

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

(Tangents from an external point to a circle are equal)
In right ΔAET.
TA2 = TE2 + EA2
⇒ (12 – x)2 = 64 + x2    ⇒    144 + x2 – 24x = 64 + x2
⇒  x = 80/24    ⇒ x = 3.3 cm
Thus, AB = 6.6 cm

Practice Test: Circles

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q1: In the figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is a tangent. If ∠QPT = 60°, find ∠PRQ.  (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: Given, ∠QPT = 60°
So, OP is the radius of the circle. 
Now, ∠OPT = 90° 
∠OPQ = ∠OPT – ∠QPT = 90° – 60° = 30° 
In ΔOPQ, OP = OQ [radii of circle] 
∠OQP = ∠OPQ = 30° [Q Angles opposite to equal sides are equal] 
∠POQ = 180° – (30° + 30°) = 120° 
Reflex ∠POQ = 360° – 120° = 240° 
We know that, angle subtended by an arc at the centres double the angle subtended by it on the remaining part of the circle. 
so, ∠PRQ = 1/ 2 Reflex ∠POQ
Therefore, 240 / 2 ° = 120°

Previous Year Questions 2014

Q1: Prove that the parallelogram circumscribing a circle is a rhombus.      [CBSE Delhi 2014; CBSE 2019 (30/5/1)]

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Ans: Let ABCD be a parallelogram such that its sides touch a circle with centre O.
We know that the tangents to a circle from an exterior point are equal in length.
Therefore, we have
AP = AS             (Tangents from A)      … (i)
BP = BQ             (Tangents from B)     … (ii)
CR = CQ              (Tangents from C)     … (iii)
And DR = DS      (Tangents from D) … (iv)

Adding (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv), we have
(AP + BP) + (CR + DR) = (AS + DS) + (BQ + CQ)
AB + CD = AD + BC
AB + AB = BC + BC      (∵ ABCD is a parallelogram ∴ AB = CD, BC = DA)
2AB = 2BC ⇒ AB = BC
Thus, AB = BC = CD = AD
Hence, ABCD is a rhombus.

Q2: Prove that the lengths of two tangents drawn from an external point to a circle are equal. [CBSE, Delhi 2014, (F) 2014, Delhi 2016, (AI) 2016, (F) 2016, CBSE Delhi 2017, (AI) 2017, (F) 2017, Delhi 2017 (C)]

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Ans: Given: AP and AQ are two tangents from a pointed to a circle C (O, r).
To Prove: AP = AQ
Construction: Join OP, OQ and OA.
Proof: In order to prove that AP = AQ, we shall first prove that ΔOPA ≅ ΔOQA.
Since a tangent at any point of a circle is perpendicular to the radius through the point of contact.
∴ OP ⊥ AP and OQ ⊥ AQ
⇒ ∠OPA = ∠OQA = 90°    ……..(i)

Now, in right triangles OPA and OQA, we have
OP = OQ    (Radii of a circle)
∠OPA = ∠OQA    (Each 90°)
and OA = OA    (Common)
So, by RHS-criterion of congruence, we get

Hence, lengths of two tangents from an external point are equal.

09. Previous Year Questions: Some Applications Of Trigonometry

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Assertion (A): A ladder leaning against a wall, stands at a horizontal distance of 6 m from the wall. If the height of the wall up to which the ladder reaches is 8 m, then the length of the ladder is 10 m. 
Reason (R): The ladder makes an angle of 60° with the ground. 
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A). 
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false. 
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

 Let AB be the wall and AC be the ladder 
∴ Reason is false. 
In ΔABC, we have 
(AC)2 = (AB)2 + (BC)2  
= (8)2 + (6)2 = 64 + 36 = 100 
⇒ AC = 10 m 

Hence, length of the ladder is 10 m. 
So, assertion is true. 
Now, if ladder makes angle 60° with ground, then 

∴ Reason is false. 
Hence, assertion (A) is true and reason(R) is false.

Q2: A ladder 14 m long leans against a wall. If the foot of the ladder is 7 m from the wall, then the angle of elevation of the top of the wall is: 
(a) 15° 
(b) 30° 
(c) 45° 
(d) 60° 

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Ans: (d) 

Let AC be the ladder making angle of elevation of the top of the wall be θ.
ln ΔABC,

Q3: A peacock sitting on the top of a tree of height 10 m observes a snake moving on the ground. If the snake is 10√3 m away from the base of the tree, then angle of depression of the snake from the eye of the peacock is 
(a) 30° 
(b) 45°
(c) 60° 
(d) 90°

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Ans: (a)

Let PQ = 10 m be a tree, S be a snake at a distance of 10√3 m from the base of tree and θ be the angle of depression from point P.
∴ ∠PSQ = θ
In ΔPSQ,
tan θ = PQ/SQ

⇒ 0 = 30°

Q4: Case Study: A lighthouse stands tall on a cliff by the sea, watching over ships that pass by. One day a ship is seen approaching the shore and from the top of the lighthouse, the angles of depression of the ship are observed to be 30° and 45° as it moves from point P to point Q. The height of the lighthouse is 50 meters. 

Based on the information given above, answer the following questions : 
(i) Find the distance of the ship from the base of the lighthouse when it is at point Q, where the angle of depression is 45°. 
(ii) Find the measures of LPBA and LQBA. 
(iii) (a) Find the distance travelled by the ship between points P and Q. 
OR 
(iii) (b) If the ship continues moving towards the shore and takes 10 minutes to travel from Q to A, calculate the speed of the ship in km/h, from Q to A.

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Ans: 

(i) Let AB be the light house. 
∴ AB = 50m 
ln ΔABQ,

Hence, distance of ship from base of light house when it is at Q is 50 m. 

(ii) In ∆ABQ, 
∠ABQ + ∠BQ + ∠QAB = 180° 
⇒ ∠ABQ + 45° + 90° = 180° 
⇒ ∠ABQ = 180° – 135° = 45° or ∠QBA = 45° 
⇒ ∠PBQ = 45° – 30° = 15° 
∴ ∠PBA = ∠PBQ + ∠ABQ = 15° + 45° = 60°
(iii) (a) In ∆ABP, 
tan 30° = AB/AP

Now, PQ = AP – AQ = 50√3, – 50 [From part (i), AQ = 50 m] 
⇒ PQ = 50(√3 – 1) m 
OR

(iii) (b) Time taken by ship from Q to A 
= 10 minutes = 1/6 hour
Distance travelled, QA = 50 m = 1/20 km
∴ Speed of ship = Distance/Time 

Q5: Case Study: Amrita stood near the base of a lighthouse, gazing up at its towering height. She measured the angle of elevation to the top and found it to be 60°. Then, she climbed a nearby observation deck, 40 metres higher than her original position and noticed the angle of elevation to the top of lighthouse to be 45°. 

Based on the above given information, answer the following questions: 
(i) If CD is h metres, find the distance BO in terms of ‘h’. 
(ii) Find distance BC in terms of ‘h’. 
(iii) (a) Find the height CE of the lighthouse.
[Use √3 = 1.73] 
OR
(iii) (b) Find distance AE, if AC = 100 m.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
(i) In ΔBDC, 

(ii) In ΔBDC,

(iii) (a) We have, DE = AB = 40 m 

OR
(iii) (b)
 In ΔAEC, we have AC = 100 m, then 

Q6: Case Study: The Statue of Unity situated in Gujarat is the world’s largest Statue which stands over a 58 m high base. As part of the project, a student constructed an inclinometer and wishes to find the height of Statue of Unity using it. He noted following observation from two places: 
Situation I: The angle of elevation of the top of Statue from Place A which is 80√3° m away from the base of the Statue is found to be 60°.
Situation II: The angle of elevation of the top of Statue from a Place B which is 40 m above the ground is found to be 30° and entire height of the Statue including the base is found to be 240 m.

Based on given information, answer the following questions: 
(i) Represent the Situation – I with the help of a diagram. 
(ii) Represent the Situation – II with the help of a diagram. 
(iii) (a) Calculate the height of Statue excluding the base and also find the height including the base with the help of Situation – I. 
OR 
(iii) (b) Find the horizontal distance of point B (Situation – II) from the Statue and the value of tan α, where α is the angle of elevation of top of base of the Statue from point 8.

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Ans: (i) Situation – I can be represented as: 

Here, CD is the statue of height h meters and DE is the base over which the statue stands of height 58 meters. 
(ii) Situation – II can be represented as: 

(iii) (a) In situation – I, we have, in ΔAEC, 

∴ Height of statue excluding the base = 182 m and including the base = 240 m 
OR
(iii) (b)
 In situation – II, in ΔBDC, CD = 240 – 40 = 200 m 

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: From a point on the ground, which is 30 m away from the foot of a vertical tower, the angle of elevation of the top of the tower is found to be 60º. The height (in metres) of the tower is:    (CBSE 2024)
(a) 10√3
(b) 30√3
(c) 60
(d) 30

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Let BC be the tower and A be the observation point.

AB = 30 m 
∠CAB = 60º 
Let, BC = h m 
In ΔCBA,
tan 60º = BC/AB
⇒ √3 = h/30
⇒ h = 30√3 m

Q2: A man on a cliff observes a boat at an angle of depression of 30º which is approaching the shore to the point immediately beneath the observer with a uniform speed. Six minutes later, the angle of depression of the boat is found to be 60º. Find the time taken by the boat form here to reach the shore.    (CBSE 2024)

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Ans:
Let AB be the cliff and observer is at point A. Initially the boat is at P after 6 min. it reaches to Q.
∠XAP = ∠APB = 30º
∠XAQ = ∠AQB = 60º
Let the speed of boat be x m/min.
So, distance, PQ = speed × time
= x × 6
= 6x meter
Let it takes t min  to reach from Q to B. So distance
BQ = x × t
= tx meter.
In ΔAB P,

⇒ 
⇒ 
⇒  …(i)
In ΔABQ.

⇒  ….(ii)
From (i) and (ii)

⇒ x(6 + t) = 3xt
⇒ x(6 + t) = 3xt
⇒ t + 6 = 3t
⇒ 2t = 6
⇒ t = 3 min.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: If a pole 6 m high casts a shadow 2√3 m long on the ground, then sun’s elevation is         (CBSE 2023)
(a) 60º
(b) 45º
(c) 30º
(d) 90º

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)


Let θ be the sun’s elevation.
Then tanθ = BC/AB

Q2: A straight highway leads to the foot of a tower. A man standing on the top of the 75 m high observes two cars at angles of depression of 30° and 60° which are approaching the foot of the tower. If one car is exactly behind the other on the same side of the tower, find the distance between the two cars. (Use √3 = 1.73)         (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let the tower be CD and points A and B be the positions of two cars on the highway.
Height of the tower CD = 75 m.
In ΔDCB,


Now, In ΔACD,

Q3: From the top of a 7 in high building the angle of elevation of the top of a cable tower is 60° and the angle of depression of its foot is 30º. Determine the height of the tower.          (2023)

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Ans: Let AE be the building with height 7 m and BD be the tower with height h m.
In ΔABC,

  —(i)

From (i) and (ii). we get
BC = 7√3 x √3 = 21m
∴ Height of the tower = 8C + CD
= 21 m + 7 m
= 28 m

Q4: A Ladder set against a wall at an angle 45º to the ground. If the foot of the ladder is pulled away from the wall through a distance of 4 m, its top slides a distance of 3 m down the wall making an angle 30° with the ground. Find the final height of the top of tire ladder from the ground and length of the ladder.      (2023)

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Ans: Let AE = CD = y be the length of the ladder and h be the final height of the top of the ladder from the ground.
In ΔABE, tan 45o = AB/BE

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: Two boats are sailing in the sea 80 m apart from each other towards a cliff AB. The angles of depression of the boats from the top of the cliff are 30º and 45° respectively, as shown in the figure. Find the height of the cliff.      (2022)

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Ans: Let assume that AB be the cliff of height h m and Let the boats are at C and D.
Now, it is given that the angle of depression from B to C and D are 30° and 45° respectively.
It is also given that CD = 80 m
Let assume that BD = x m
Now, In right-angle triangle ABD

Now, In right-angle triangle ABC


h = 40(√3 + 1)
h = 40(1.732 + 1)
h = 40 x 2.732
⇒ h = 109.28 m

Q2: The angle of elevation of the top of a building from the foot of the tower is 30° and the angle of elevation of the top of the tower from the foot of the building is 60°. If the tower is 50 m high, then find the height of the building.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the tower of height 50m  and CD be the building of height h m.
Now, in ΔABD,



Now, in ΔBDC,

Thus the height of the building in 16.67m

Q3: In figure, AB is tower of height 50 m. A man standing on its top, observes two cars on the opposite sides of the tower with angles of depression 30° and 45° respectively. Find the distance between the two cars.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  C and D be the position of two cars.

In ΔABD, we have

In ΔABC, we have

⇒ BC = AB√3 = 50√3 m  …(ii)
From equations (i) and (ii), we get
CD = BC + BD
= ( 50√3 + 50 ) m
= 50 (√3 + 1 ) m
= 50(1.732 + 1)
= 50 × 2.732
= 136.6 m
Thus, the distance between two cars is 136.6 m.

Q4: An aeroplane when flying at a height of 3125 in from the ground passes vertically below another plane at an instant when the angles of elevation of the two planes from the same point on the ground are 30° and 60° respectively. Find the distance between the two planes at that  instant.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Let A and C be the position of two aeroplanes. Let distance between the two aeroplanes be x m.
In ΔCBD, we have


In ΔABD, we have


⇒ x + 3125 = 9375
⇒ x = 6250
∴ The distance between to planes  at that instant in 6250m

Q5: The shadow of a tower standing on a level ground is found to be 40 m longer when the Sun’s altitude is 30° than when it is 60°. Find the height of the tower.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the tower of height b m and let shadow of tower when sun’s altitude is 60° is x i.e. BC = x In ΔABC. we have

In ΔABD. we have

Q6: The tops of two poles of heights 20 m and 28 m are connected with a wire. The wire is Inclined to the horizontal at an angle of 30°. Find the length of the wire and the distance between the two poles       (2022)

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Ans: Let length of the wire be BD and the distance between the two poles be BE Le.. AC = x m
Here, height of the larger pole. CD = 28 m
Height of smaller pole, AB = 20 m
DE = CD – CE
⇒DE = 28 – 20
= 8 m 

In ΔBDE, we have 

= 8 x 1.73
= 13.84
∴ The distance between two planes , BE is 13.84 m.

Q7: Two men on either side of a cliff 75 m high observe the angles of elevation of the top of the cliff to be 30° and 60°. Find the distance between the two men.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, AB = 75 m be the cliff and C, D be the positions of two men.
Now, in ΔABD,

Q8: From a point on a bridge across a river, the angles of depression of the banks on opposite sides of the river are 30° and 45°. If the bridge is at a height of 8 m from the banks, then find the width of the river.        (2022)

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Ans: We have, B and D represents points on the bank on opposite sides of the river. Therefore, BD is the width of the river.
Let A be a point on the bridge at a height of 8 m.

In ΔABC, 

In ΔACD, 

Q9: The angle of elevation of the top Q of a vertical tower PQ from a point X on the ground is 60°. From a point Y, 40 m vertically above X, the angle of elevation of the top Q of tower is 45°. Find the height of the tower PQ and the distance PX. (Use √3 = 1.73)       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

We have
XY = 40m,∠PXQ = 60° and ∠MYQ = 45°
Let PQ = h
Also, MP = XY = 40m, MQ =  PQ  – MP = h – 40
In ΔMYQ,

⇒ MY = H – 40
⇒ PX = MY = h – 40    …………….(1)
Now , in ΔMXQ,


⇒ h = 20√3 (√3 + 1 )
⇒ h = 60 + 20√3
⇒ h = 60 + 20 × 1.73
⇒ h = 60 + 34.6
∴ h = 94.6m
So, the height of the tower PQ is 94. 6 m.

Q10: The straight highway leads to the foot of a tower. A man standing at the top of the tower observes a car at an angle of depression of 30°. which is approaching the foot of the tower with a uniform speed. Ten seconds later the angle of depression of the car is found to be 60°. Find the time taken by the car to reach the foot of the tower from this point.       (2022)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let h be the height of the tower and D be the initial position of car and let DB = a, AB = b


Now, in ΔCAD,

Eliminating h, from (i) and (ii). we have

As the car covers distance a i.e.. 2b in 10 seconds.
So. it will take 5 seconds to reach the foot of the tower as covering b distance.

Q11: Case Study: Kite Festival (2022)
Kite festival is celebrated in many countries at different times of the year. In India, every year 14th January is celebrated as International Kite Day. On this day many people visit India and participate in the festival by flying various kinds of kites.
The picture given below shows three kites flying together

In Fig. the angles of elevation of two kites (Points A and B) from the hands of a man (Point C) are found to be 30° and 60° respectively. Taking AD = 50 m and BE = 60 m, find
(i) the lengths of strings used (take them straight) for kites A and B as shown in figure.
(ii) the distance ‘d’ between these two kites

Hide Answer  

Ans: (i) : Given , AD = 50 m. BE = 60 m
Let the lengths of strings used for kite A be AC and for kite B be BC
Now , in ΔADC , 

In ΔBEC, 


Hence, AC = 100 m and BC = 40√3 m

(ii) Since, the distance between these two kites is d.
ΔABC is a right angle triangle (∵∠ACB = 90°)

Now, in ΔABC, by using Pythagoras theorem, we have
BA2 = BC2 + AC2

Hence, the distance between these two kites is 121.65 m.

Also read: Unit Test: Some Applications of Trigonometry

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q1: A man on the top of a vertical tower observes a car moving at a uniform speed coming directly towards it. If it takes 18 minutes for the angle of depression to change from 30o to 60o. How soon after this will the car reach the tower?     (2021)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the tower of height h m and D be the initiaI position of the car and C be the position of car after 18 minutes.

Let CD = x and BC = y
In ΔABD, we have

In ΔABC, we have

On comparing (i) and (ii), we have

Distance x is covered by car in 18 minutes. Distance 2y is covered by car in 18 minutes.
Hence, Distance y is covered by car in 9 minutes.

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Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: In figure, the angle of elevation of the top of a tower from a point C on the ground, which is 30m away from the foot of the tower, is 30o Find the height of the tower.      (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Here, AB is the tower.

Q2: The ratio of the length of a vertical rod and the length of its shadow is 1: √3. Find the angle of elevation of the Sun at that moment.      (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AC be the length of vertical rod, AB be the length of its shadow and 0 be the angle of elevation of the sun.


In ΔABC, 

Q3: The rod AC of a TV disc antenna is fixed at right angles to the wall AB and a rod CD is supporting the disc as shown in the figure. If AC = 1.5 m long and CD = 3 m, then find
(i) tanθ
(ii) secθ + cosecθ     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

In ΔACD, ∠CAD = 90°AD2 = CD– AC2    [By Pythagoras theorem]
= (3)2 – (1.5)2= 9 – 2.25 = 6.75 m2

Q4: From a point on the ground, the angles of elevation of the bottom and the top of a transmission tower fixed at the top of a 20 m high building are 45° and 60° respectively. Find the height of the tower
(Use √3 = 1.73)     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let P be the point of observation. AB is the building of height 20 m and AC is the transmission tower.


⇒ 20+AC = 20√3
⇒ AC = 20√3 – 20 = 20(√3  -1)
⇒ AC=20(1.73 – 1)= 20 x 0.73
⇒AC= 14.6 m
Thus, the height of the tower is 14.6 m.

Q5: A statue 1.6 m tall, stands on the top of a pedestal. From a point on the ground the angle of elevation of the top of the statue is 60° and from the same point the angle of elevation of the top of the pedestal is 45°. Find the height of the pedestal. 
(Use √3 = 1.73)     (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In the figure, A represents the point of observation, DC represents the statue and BC represents the pedestal.
Now, in right ΔABC, we have

Thus , the height of the pedestal is 2.19 m.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: The angles of depression of the top and bottom of a 8 m tall building from the top of a tower are 30° and 45° respectively. Find the height of the tower and the distance between the tower and the building.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the tower at height h m and CD he the building of height 6m and let x m be the distance between the lower and building.

In ΔABD, we have

In ΔAEC, we have

Put x = √3 in (i), we get

From (ii), we have


Now, The height or the Tower AB


and distance between tower and building = x = 4(3 + √3) m

Q2: As observed from the top of a lighthouse, 75 m high from the sea level, the angles of depression of two ships are 30° and 45°. If one ship is exactly behind the other on the same side of the lighthouse, find the distance between the two ships.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB be the lighthouse and C and D be the position of two ships.

Now, In ΔABC

Now in ΔABD, we have

Hence, distance between two ships is 75(√3 – 1)

Q3: A man in a boat rowing away from a light house 100 in high takes 2 minutes to change the angle of elevation of the top of the fight house from 60° to 30°. Find the speed of the boat in metres per minute. [Use √3 = 1.732)     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB = 100 m be the height of the light house.
Let the initial distance be x m and angle is 60°.


In ΔABC,

Now. after two minutes, new distance be y m and angle is 30°.
In ΔABD,


Speed of boat = Distance / Time
= 115.47 / 2
= 57.74 metres/minute

Q4: Amit, standing on a horizontal plane, finds a bird flying at a distance of 200 m from him at an elevation of 30°. Deepak standing on the roof of a 50 m high building. finds the angle of elevation of the same bird to be 45°. Amit and Deepak are on opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance of the bird from Deepak.     (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Here, A be the position of Amit, B be the position of bird and D be the position of Deepak standing on roof of the building CD of height 50 m.
In ΔAMB, we have


Hence, distance of bird from Deepak is 50√2 m.

Q5: Two poles of equal heights are standing opposite each other on either side of the road, which is 80 m wide. From a point between them on the road, the angles of elevation of the top of the poles are 60° and 30° respectively. Find the height of the poles and the distances of the point from the poles.      (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AB and CD be two poles of height hm.
Let P be a point on road such that BP = x so that
PD= BD – BP = (80 – x)m


In ΔABP, h / x = tan60°

In ΔCDP,


Distance of point P from AB = 20 m Distance of point P from
CD = 80- 20 = 60 m
Height of each pole, h =  20 x 1.732 = 34.64 m

Q6:  A boy standing on a horizontal plane finds a bird flying at a distance of 100 m from him at an elevation of 30°. A girl standing on the roof of a 20 m high building, finds the elevation of the same bird to be 45°. The boy and the girl are on the opposite sides of the bird. Find the distance of the bird from the girl. (Given √2= 1.414)      (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: Let P be the position of Bird B and G he the position of the boy and the girl respectively.
GN be the building at which the girl is standing.

In ΔPMB,

Now. PL = PM – LM = 50 – 20 = 30mIn ΔPLG,

⇒ PG = 30√2 = 30 x 1.414 = 42.42 m
Hence , the bird is flying at a distance of 42 .42 m from the girl.

Q7: The angle of elevation of an aeroplane from point A on the ground is 60°. After a flight of 30 seconds, the angle of elevation changes to 30°. If the plane is flying at a constant height of 3600√3 metres, find the speed of the aeroplane.      (2019)

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Ans: Let P and Q be the two positions of the aeroplane.
Given, angle of elevation of the aeroplane in two positions P and Q from A is 60° and 30° respectively.

In ΔABP, we have

⇒ AC = 3600 x 3 = 10800 m
∴ Distance covered by aeroplane.
= PQ = BC = AC – AB = 10800 – 3600 = 7200 m
Thus, aeroplane travels 7200m in 30seconds.
Hence, speed of aeroplane = 7200/30
= 240m/ sec.

Q8: A moving boat is observed from the top of a 150 m high cliff, moving away from the cliff. The angle of depression of the boat changes from 60º to 45º in 2 minutes. Find the speed of the boat in m/hr. (CBSE 2019, 17)

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Ans: Here, AB is the cliff of height 150 m, C and D are the two positions of a boat. 
AB = 150 m, ∠ACB = 60° and ∠ADB = 45° 
Let, the distance BC be ‘x’ m and CD be ‘y’ m.
Now, in ∆ABC,

Using (i), we get

But, the time taken to cover distance ‘y’ or CD is 2 minutes i.e. 2 / 60 hr or, 1 / 30 hr
Then Speed = Distance / Time

Hence, the speed of the boat is 1500 √3  (√3 −1) m/hr

Also read: Unit Test: Some Applications of Trigonometry

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q1: Raju, a painter, has to use a ladder to paint the high walls and ceilings of homes. When Raghu was observing Raju paint his house, he told his friend that he could calculate the height of the wall up to the point where the ladder reached by using his knowledge of trigonometry. 

Raju used a ladder 15 m long that makes an angle of 60° with the wall. Find the height of the point where the ladder touches the wall. (CBSE 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Let AC be the ladder of length 15 m, which is at the height AB i.e., ‘h’ m from the ground. 
The ladder makes an angle of 60° with the wall. 
∴ ∠CAB = 60°
Now, in ∆ABC,

cos 60° = AB / AC
⇒ 1 / 2 = h / 15
⇒ h = 7.5 m
Hence, the height of the point where the ladder touches the wall is 7.5 m.

08.Previous Year Questions: Introduction to Trigonometry

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: If tan A+ cot A= 6, then find the value of tan2A + cot2 A – 4. 

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Ans: We have, tanA + cotA = 6 
On squaring both sides, we get (tanA + cotA)2 = 36 
⇒ tan2A + cot2A + 2 tanA cotA = 36 
Since tan A cot A = 1
⇒ tan2A + cot2A + 2 = 36
⇒ tan 2A + cot 2A = 36 – 2 = 34 
∴ tan2A + cot2A – 4 = 34 – 4 = 30

Q2:  If tan 3θ = √3, then θ/2 equals 
(a) 60° 
(b) 30° 
(c) 20° 
(d) 10°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
We have, tan3θ = √3 
⇒ tan3θ = tan 60° 

Q3: If sin 4θ = √3/2, then θ/3 equals:
(a) 60° 
(b) 20° 
(c) 15° 
(d) 5° 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
Given, sin 4θ = √3/2 = sin 60°.
⇒ 4θ = 60°
⇒ θ = 15°.

Q4: If α + β = 90° and α = 2β, then cos2α + sin2β is equal to: 
(a) 0 
(b) 1/2
(c) 1 
(d) 2 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 
α + β = 90° and α = 2β     …(i) 
∴ 2β + β = 90° ⇒ 3β = 90° ⇒ β = 30° 
∴ α = 2 × 30° = 60° [From (i)] 
∴ cos²α + sin²β = cos²60° + sin²30°

Q5:  then x : y =
(a) 1 : 1 
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 
(d) 4: 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) 

Q6: If 4k = tan260° – 2cosec2 30° – 2tan2 30°, then find the value of k. 

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Ans: Given, 4k = tan260° – 2 cosec230° – 2 tan230° 

Q7: If x cos60° + ycos0° + sin30° – cot45° = 5, then find the value of x + 2y. 

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Ans: We have, x cos60° + y cos0° + sin30° – cot45° = 5 

Q8: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q9: 
(a) cot θ
(b) 
(c) 
(d) tan θ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) 
We have, 
 [∵ 1 – cos2θ = sin2θ]

Q10:  The value of (tan A cosec A)2 – (sin A sec A)2 is: 
(a) 0 
(b) 1 
(c) -1 
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 
We have, 
(tan A · cosec A)2 – (sin A . sec A)2  
Using identities:
tan A = sin A / cos A,
cosec A = 1 / sin A,
sec A = 1 / cos A.
sec² A – tan² A = 1

Q11: (cotθ + tanθ) equals: 
(a) cosecθ secθ 
(b) sinθ secθ
(c) cosθ tanθ 
(d) sinθ cosθ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
We have, cotθ + tanθ 
cot θ = cos θ / sin θ,
tan θ = sin θ / cos θ.

Q12:  The value of 
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Q13: In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at A, if sin B = 1/4 then the value of sec B is 
(a) 4
(b) √15/4
(c) √15
(d) 4/√15

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Ans: (d) 
Given, sin B = 1/4

Q14: If a secθ + b tan θ = m and b sec θ + a tan θ = n, prove that a2 + n2 = b2 + m2   

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Ans: 
We have, a sec θ + b tan θ = m
and b sec θ + a tan θ = n
Taking, m² – n²
= (a sec θ + b tan θ)² – (b sec θ + a tan θ)²
= a²sec²θ + b²tan²θ + 2ab tan θ sec θ – b²sec²θ – a²tan²θ – 2ab tan θ sec θ
= a²(sec²θ – tan²θ) + b²(tan²θ – sec²θ)
= a² × 1 + b² × (-1)
= a² – b²
∴ m² – n² = a² – b²
⇒  a² + n² = b² + m²
Hence, proved.

Q15: Use the identity: sin2A + cos2A = 1 to prove that tan2A + 1 = sec2A. Hence, find the value of tan A, where sec A = 5/3, where A is an acute angle.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
To prove: tan2A + 1 = sec2
Taking L.H.S., tan2 A+ 1 

∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

Q16: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q17: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 


Q18: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q19: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q20: Given that sinθ + cosθ = x, prove that 

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Ans: sin θ + cos θ = x …(i) 
Squaring both sides in equation (i), 
sin² θ + cos² θ + 2sin θ cos θ = x² 
2sin θ cos θ = x² – 1 …(ii) 
[∵ sin² θ + cos² θ = 1] 
Also, sin² θ + cos² θ = (sin θ + cos θ)² – 2sin θ cos θ

Q21: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: If sin α = √3/2, cos β = √3/2 then tan α. tan β is:    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) √3
(b) 1/√3
(c) 1
(d) 0

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
sin α = √3/2, ⇒ sin α  = sin 60º
⇒ α = 60º
∵ cos β = √3/2, 
⇒ cos β = cos 30º 
⇒ β = 30º 
tan α. tan β = tan 60º. tan 30º
= √3 x 1√3

= 1

Q2: Evaluate: 5 tan 60°(sin² 60° + cos² 60°) tan 30°        (3 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

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Ans:

5 tan 60°(sin² 60° + cos² 60°) tan 30° = 5 × √31 × 1√3

= 5 × √3 × √3

= 5 × 3

= 15

Q3: Prove that: (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) = 1     (3 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

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Ans:
L.H.S. = (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
= (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
Since, cosec θ = 1/sin θ, sec θ =  1/cos θ, tan θ = sin θ/cos θ, cot θ = cos θ/sin θ
= (1/sin θ – sin θ) (1/cos θ – cos θ) (sin θ/cos θ + cos θ/sin θ)

= 1 – sin2θsin θ × 1 – cos2θcos θ × sin2θ + cos2θsin θ . cos θ

= cos2θ × sin2θsin θ × cos θ × 1sin θ . cos θ

= sin θ . cos θ1 × 1sin θ . cos θ    [ : sin2θ + cos2θ = 1 ]

= 1 = R.H.S.
Hence, proved.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: If 2 tan A = 3, then find the value of 4 sin A + 5 cos A6 sin A + 2 cos A  is   (3 Marks)(2023)

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Ans:

Given:

2 tan A = 3 ⇒ tan A = 3/2

Using sin2 A + cos2 A = 1, let:

sin A = 3/√13, cos A = 2/√13

Substituting in the given expression:

4 sin A + 5 cos A6 sin A + 2 cos A

= 4 × 3/√13 + 5 × 2/√136 × 3/√13 + 2 × 2/√13

= 12/√13 + 10/√1318/√13 + 4/√13

= 22/√1322/√13

= 1

Q2: 5/8 sec260° – tan260° + cos245° is equal to    (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 5/3
(b) -1/2
(c) 0
(d) -1/4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol:
58 × (2)2 – (√3)2 + (1√2)2 = 5/8 × 4 – 3 + 12 = 0
 

Q3: Evaluate 2 sec2θ + 3 cosec2θ – 2 sin θ cos θ if θ = 45°      (2 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: Since θ = 45°, sec 45° = √2, cosec 45° = √2, sin 45° = 1/√2 cos 45° = 1/√2
2sec2 θ + 3 cosec2 θ – 2 sin θ cos θ
= 2 (√2)2 + 3 (√2)2 – 2 (1√2) × (1√2)

= 2 × 2 + 3 × 2 – 2 × 12

= 4 + 6 – 1

= 9

Q4: Which of the following is true for all values of θ(0o ≤ θ ≤ 90o)? (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 
cos2θ – sin2θ – 1
(b) 
cosec2θ – sec2θ- 1
(c) 
sec2θ – tan2θ – 1
(d) 
cot2θ- tan2θ = 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Option (a): cos²θ – sin²θ – 1
Using the identity: cos²θ – sin²θ = cos 2θ, we get cos²θ – sin²θ – 1 = cos 2θ – 1, which is not always true. So, this option is incorrect.

Option (b): cosec²θ – sec²θ – 1
Using the identities cosec²θ = 1 + cot²θ and sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, 
we get cosec²θ – sec²θ – 1 = (1 + cot²θ) – (1 + tan²θ) – 1 = cot²θ – tan²θ – 1, which is not always zero. So, this option is incorrect.

Option (c): sec²θ – tan²θ – 1
Using the identity sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, 
we get sec²θ – tan²θ – 1 = (1 + tan²θ) – tan²θ – 1 = 0, which is always true. 
So, this option is correct.

Option (d): cot²θ – tan²θ = 1
Using the identity cot²θ = 1/tan²θ, we get cot²θ – tan²θ = (1/tan²θ) – tan²θ, which is not always equal to 1. So, this option is incorrect.

Q5: If sinθ +cosθ = √3. then find the value of sinθ. cosθ.   (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, sinθ +cosθ = √3
Squaring both sides, we get (sinθ + cosθ)2 = (√3)2
⇒ sin2θ + cos2θ + 2sinθ cosθ = 3 ( ∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1)
⇒ 1 + 2sinθ cosθ = 3 
⇒ 2sinθ cosθ = 3 – 1  
⇒ 2sinθ cosθ = 2
⇒  sinθ cosθ = 1

Q6: If sin α = 1/√2 and cot β = √3, then find the value of cosec α + cosec β.   (3 Marks) (2023)

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Ans: Given, sin α = 1/√2 and cot β = √3
We know that, cosec α = 1/sinα = √2
Also, 1 + cot2β = cosec2β
⇒ cosec2β = 4
⇒ cosec β = √4 = 2 
Now, cosec α + cosec β = √2 + 2

Q7: Prove that the Following Identities: Sec A (1 + Sin A) ( Sec A – tan A) = 1   (3 Marks) (2023)

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Ans: LHS = sec A(1 + sin A )( sec A – tan A)

= 1cos A (1 + sin A) 1cos A – sin Acos A

= 1cos A (1 + sin A) (1 – sin Acos A)

= 1 – sin² Acos² A = cos² Acos² A

= 1

= RHS

Hence proved..

Q8: (secθ – 1) (cosec2 θ – 1) is equal to: (1 Mark) (CBSE 2023)
(a) –1 
(b) 1 
(c) 0 
(d) 2 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

(sec²θ – 1) (cosec²θ – 1) = tan²θ . cot²θ

tan²θtan²θ       [ ∵ sec²θ – 1 = tan²θ & cosec²θ – 1 = cot²θ ]

= 1

Q9: If sin θ – cos θ =  0,  then find the value of sin4 θ + cos4 θ.     (2 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, 
sin θ – cos θ = 0 
sin θ = cos θ 
tan θ = 1 
tan θ = tan 45° 
⇒ θ = 45° 
Now, sin4 θ + cos4 θ = sin45° + cos45°

= (1√2)4 + (1√2)4

= 14 + 14 = 12

Q10: Prove that sin A – 2 sin3 A2 cos3 A – cos A = tan A  (4 & 5 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

LHS = sin A – 2 sin3 A2 cos3 A – cos A

= sin A (1 – 2 sin² A)cos A (2 cos² A – 1)

= sin A (1 – 2 (1 – cos² A)cos A (2 cos² A – 1)

= tan A 1 – 2 + 2 cos² A2 cos² A – 1

= tan A 2 cos² A – 12 cos² A – 1

= tan A

= RHS

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: Given that cos θ = √3/2, then the value of  cosec2θ – sec2θcosec2θ + sec2θ3 is  (2022) 
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) -1/2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol:
Given, cosθ = √3/2  = B/H

Let B = √3k and H = 2k

∴ P = √((2k)2 – (√3k)2) [By Pythagoras Theorem]

⇒ k2 = k

∴ cosec θ = H / p = 2k / k = 2

sec θ = H / B = 2k / √3k = 2 / √3

cosec2θ – sec2θ = (2)2 – (2 / √3)24 – 4/3

= 4 – 43 = 83

cosec2θ + sec2θ = (2)2 + (2 / √3)24 + 4/3

= 4 + 43 = 163

Q2: 1cosec θ (1 – cot θ) + 1sec θ (1 – tan θ) is equal to   (2022)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) sinθ + cosθ
(d) sinθ – cosθ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: We have,

1cosec θ (1 – cot θ) + 1sec θ (1 – tan θ)

= sin θcos θ / 1 – cos θsin θ + 1 – sin θ1 – cos θ

= 1cosec θ = sin θcos θ, 1sec θ

= sin2 θcos2 θ = sin2 θ – cos2 θsin θ – cos θ

= sin θ + cos θ

Q3: The value of θ for which 2 sin2θ = 1, is   (2022)
(a) 15° 
(b) 30°
(c) 45° 
(d) 60°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Sol: Given, 2 sin2θ = 1 ⇒ sin2θ = 1/2
⇒ 2θ = 30°
⇒ θ = 15°

Q4: If sin2θ + sinθ = 1, then find the value of cos2θ + cos4θ is   (2022)
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Sol: Given, sin2θ + sinθ = 1 —(i)
sinθ = 1 – sin2θ
⇒ sinθ = cos2θ —(ii)
∴ cos2θ + cos4θ
= sinθ + sin2θ [From (ii)]
= 1        [From (i)]

Also read: Introduction: Trigonometric Ratios

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q1: If 3 sin A = 1. then find the value of sec A.    (2021 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, 3 sin A = 1
∴ sin A = 1/3
Now by using cosA = 1 – sin2 A, we get

cos2 A = 1 – 19 = 89
⇒ cos A = 2√23

∴ sec A = 1cos A = 12√2 / 3 = 3√24

Q2: Show that: 1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cot2θ    (2021 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, L.H.S.
1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cosec2θsec2θ
[By using 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ and 1 + cot2 θ = cosec2θ ]
⇒ 1sin2θ = cos2θsin2θ = cot2θ
Hence,
1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cot2θ 

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Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: If sin θ = cos θ, then the value of tan2 θ + cot2 θ is (2020)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 10/3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Sol: We have, sin θ = cos θ
or sin θ / cos θ = 1
⇒ tan θ = 1 and cot θ = 1     [∵ cot θ = 1/tanθ]
∴ tanθ + cotθ = 1 + 1 = 2
Hence, A option is correct.

Q2: Given 15 cot A = 8, then find the values of sin A and sec A.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In right angle ΔABC we have
15 cot A = 8
⇒ cot A = 8/15

Since, cot A = AB/BC
∴ AB/BC = 8/15
Let AB = 8k and BC = 15k
By using Pythagoras theorem, we get
AC= AB2 + BC2
⇒ (8k)2 + (15)2 = 64k2 + 225k2 = 289k2 = (17k)

⇒ AC = √((17k)2) = 17k

∴ sin A = BCAC = 15k17k = 1517

and cos A = ABAC = 8k17k = 817

So, sec A = 1cos A = 178

Q3: Write the value of sin2 30° + cos2 60°.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  We have, sin2 30° + cos2 60°

Q4: The distance between the points (a cos θ + b sin θ, 0) and (0, a sin θ − b cos θ) is      (2020)
(a) a+ b2
(b) a + b
(c) 
(d) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: Given the point A (cos θ + b sin θ , 0), (0 , a sin θ − b cos θ)
By distance formula,

The distance of

AB = √(x2 – x1)² + (y2 – y1

So,

AB = √(a cos θ + b sin θ – 0)² + (0 – a sin θ + b cos θ)²

= √ a²(sin²θ + cos²θ) + b²(sin²θ + cos²θ)

But according to the trigonometric identity,

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

Therefore,

AB = √ a² + b²

Q5: 5 tan2θ – 5 sec2θ = ____________.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have 5(tan2θ – sec2θ)
= 5(-1) = – 5 [By using 1 + tan2θ = sec2 θ ⇒ tan2θ – sec2θ = – 1]

Q6: If sinθ + cosθ = √3. then prove that tan θ + cot θ = 1    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: sin θ + cos θ =√3
= (sinθ + cosθ)= (√3)2
= sin2 θ + cos2 θ + 2sin θ cos θ = 3        (Since,sin2θ + cos2θ = 1)
= 1 + 2sin θ cos θ = 3  
⇒ 2sin θ cos θ = 2
⇒ sin θ cos θ = 1
⇒ sin θ cos θ = sin2θ + cos2θ
⇒ 1 = sin2θ + cos2θsin θ cos θ
⇒ tan θ + cot θ = 1

Q7: If x = a sinθ and y = b cosθ, write the value of (b2x2 + a2y2). (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, x = a sin θ and y = b cos θ 
Putting the values of x and y in  (b2x2 + a2y2)
We get, 
= b2(a sin θ)+ a2(b cos θ)2
= a2b2 [sin2 θ + cos2 θ]   [Also, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1]
= a2b2 [1]  
= a2b2

Q8: Prove that: 2 (sin6 θ + cos6 θ) – 3 (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) + 1 = 0. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We know that, 
sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 
So, (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) 2 = 1
⇒ sin4 θ + cosθ + 2sin2 θ cos2 θ = 1 
i.e., sin4 θ + cos4 θ = 1 – 2 sin2 θ cos2 θ …(i) 
Also, (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) 3 = 13
⇒ sin6 θ + cos6 θ + 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) = 1 
⇒ sin6 θ+ cos6 θ+ 3sin2 θ cos2 θ (1) = 1 
i.e., sin6 θ + cos6 θ = 1 – 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ …(ii) 
Now, 
LHS = 2(sin6 θ + cos6 θ) – 3(sin4 θ + cos4 θ) + 1 
= 2(1 – 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ) – 3(1 – 2 sin2 θ cos2 θ) + 1 
= 2 – 3 + 1 
= 0 
Hence, proved.

Q9: Prove that: (sin4 θ – cos4 θ + 1) cosec2 θ = 2.  [CBSE 2020].

Hide Answer  

Ans: L.H.S. = (sin4 θ – cos4 θ + 1) cosec2 θ 
= [(sin2 θ + cos2 θ) (sin2 θ – cos2 θ) + 1] cosec2 θ
[(1) (sin2 θ – cos2 θ) + 1] cosecθ         as [ sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1] 
= [sin2 θ + (1 – cos2 θ)] cosec2 θ 
= (sinθ + sin2 θ) cosec2θ
= (2 sin2 θ) cosec2 θ

= 2 × 1
= 2 = R.H.S.
Hence, proved.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: If sin x + cos y = 1, x = 30° and y is an acute angle, find the value of y.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given,
⇒ sin x + cos y = 1
⇒ sin 30° + cos y = 1
⇒ 1/2 + cos y = 1
⇒ cos y = 1 – 1/2
⇒ cos y = 1/2
⇒ cos y = cos 60°.
Hence, y = 60°.

Q2: If cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k, then what is the value of k?   (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Given:
cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k
Concept used:
Cosec α = 1/Sin α
Sin2 α + Cos2 α = 1
(a + b)(a – b) = a2 – b2
Calculation:
cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k
⇒ cosec2 θ (1 – cos θ)(1 + cos θ) = – k
⇒ cosec2 θ (1 – cos2 θ) = -k      [Also, sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1]
⇒ cosec2 θ × sin2 θ = -k
⇒ 1 = -k
⇒ k = -1
∴ The value of k is (-1).

Q3: The value of ( 1 + cot A − cosec A ) ( 1 + tan A + sec A ) is

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

(1 + cos Asin A – 1sin A ) (1 + sin Acos A + 1cos A )

= sin A + cos A – 1sin A × cos A + sin A + 1cos A

= (sin A + cos A)2 – 1sin A . cos A

= sin2A + cos2A + 2 sin A . cos A – 1sin A . cos A

= sin2A + cos2A – 1 + 2 sin A . cos Asin A . cos A

= 2

Also read: Introduction: Trigonometric Ratios

Previous Year Questions 2013

Q1: If sec θ + tan θ + 1 = 0, then sec θ – tan θ is: 
(a) –1 
(b) 1 
(c) 0 
(d) 2  (CBSE 2013)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)

sec θ + tan θ + 1 = 0

⇒ sec θ + tan θ = -1

Multiplying and dividing LHS by sec θ – tan θ, we get

⇒ (sec θ + tan θ) × sec θ – tan θsec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ sec² θ – tan² θsec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ 1 + tan² θ – tan² θsec θ – tan θ = -1 (∵ sec² θ = 1 + tan² θ)

⇒ 1sec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ sec θ – tan θ = -1

Hence, the correct option is (a).

Previous Year Questions: Introduction to Trigonometry

Table of contents
Previous Year Questions 2025
Previous Year Questions 2024
Previous Year Questions 2023
Previous Year Questions 2022
Previous Year Questions 2021
Previous Year Questions 2020

View More

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: If tan A+ cot A= 6, then find the value of tan2A + cot2 A – 4. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, tanA + cotA = 6 
On squaring both sides, we get (tanA + cotA)2 = 36 
⇒ tan2A + cot2A + 2 tanA cotA = 36 
Since tan A cot A = 1
⇒ tan2A + cot2A + 2 = 36
⇒ tan 2A + cot 2A = 36 – 2 = 34 
∴ tan2A + cot2A – 4 = 34 – 4 = 30

Q2:  If tan 3θ = √3, then θ/2 equals 
(a) 60° 
(b) 30° 
(c) 20° 
(d) 10°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
We have, tan3θ = √3 
⇒ tan3θ = tan 60° 

Q3: If sin 4θ = √3/2, then θ/3 equals:
(a) 60° 
(b) 20° 
(c) 15° 
(d) 5° 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
Given, sin 4θ = √3/2 = sin 60°.
⇒ 4θ = 60°
⇒ θ = 15°.

Q4: If α + β = 90° and α = 2β, then cos2α + sin2β is equal to: 
(a) 0 
(b) 1/2
(c) 1 
(d) 2 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 
α + β = 90° and α = 2β     …(i) 
∴ 2β + β = 90° ⇒ 3β = 90° ⇒ β = 30° 
∴ α = 2 × 30° = 60° [From (i)] 
∴ cos²α + sin²β = cos²60° + sin²30°

Q5:  then x : y =
(a) 1 : 1 
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1 
(d) 4: 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c) 

Q6: If 4k = tan260° – 2cosec2 30° – 2tan2 30°, then find the value of k. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, 4k = tan260° – 2 cosec230° – 2 tan230° 

Q7: If x cos60° + ycos0° + sin30° – cot45° = 5, then find the value of x + 2y. 

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, x cos60° + y cos0° + sin30° – cot45° = 5 

Q8: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q9: 
(a) cot θ
(b) 
(c) 
(d) tan θ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) 
We have, 
 [∵ 1 – cos2θ = sin2θ]

Q10:  The value of (tan A cosec A)2 – (sin A sec A)2 is: 
(a) 0 
(b) 1 
(c) -1 
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b) 
We have, 
(tan A · cosec A)2 – (sin A . sec A)2  
Using identities:
tan A = sin A / cos A,
cosec A = 1 / sin A,
sec A = 1 / cos A.
sec² A – tan² A = 1

Q11: (cotθ + tanθ) equals: 
(a) cosecθ secθ 
(b) sinθ secθ
(c) cosθ tanθ 
(d) sinθ cosθ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
We have, cotθ + tanθ 
cot θ = cos θ / sin θ,
tan θ = sin θ / cos θ.

Q12:  The value of 
(a) 1
(b) 0
(c) -1
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Q13: In a right triangle ABC, right-angled at A, if sin B = 1/4 then the value of sec B is 
(a) 4
(b) √15/4
(c) √15
(d) 4/√15

Hide Answer  

Ans: (d) 
Given, sin B = 1/4

Q14: If a secθ + b tan θ = m and b sec θ + a tan θ = n, prove that a2 + n2 = b2 + m2   

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
We have, a sec θ + b tan θ = m
and b sec θ + a tan θ = n
Taking, m² – n²
= (a sec θ + b tan θ)² – (b sec θ + a tan θ)²
= a²sec²θ + b²tan²θ + 2ab tan θ sec θ – b²sec²θ – a²tan²θ – 2ab tan θ sec θ
= a²(sec²θ – tan²θ) + b²(tan²θ – sec²θ)
= a² × 1 + b² × (-1)
= a² – b²
∴ m² – n² = a² – b²
⇒  a² + n² = b² + m²
Hence, proved.

Q15: Use the identity: sin2A + cos2A = 1 to prove that tan2A + 1 = sec2A. Hence, find the value of tan A, where sec A = 5/3, where A is an acute angle.

Hide Answer  

Ans: 
To prove: tan2A + 1 = sec2
Taking L.H.S., tan2 A+ 1 

∴ L.H.S = R.H.S

Q16: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q17: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 


Q18: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q19: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Q20: Given that sinθ + cosθ = x, prove that 

Hide Answer  

Ans: sin θ + cos θ = x …(i) 
Squaring both sides in equation (i), 
sin² θ + cos² θ + 2sin θ cos θ = x² 
2sin θ cos θ = x² – 1 …(ii) 
[∵ sin² θ + cos² θ = 1] 
Also, sin² θ + cos² θ = (sin θ + cos θ)² – 2sin θ cos θ

Q21: Prove that: 

Hide Answer  

Ans: 

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: If sin α = √3/2, cos β = √3/2 then tan α. tan β is:    (1 Mark) (CBSE 2024)
(a) √3
(b) 1/√3
(c) 1
(d) 0

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
sin α = √3/2, ⇒ sin α  = sin 60º
⇒ α = 60º
∵ cos β = √3/2, 
⇒ cos β = cos 30º 
⇒ β = 30º 
tan α. tan β = tan 60º. tan 30º
= √3 x 1√3

= 1

Q2: Evaluate: 5 tan 60°(sin² 60° + cos² 60°) tan 30°        (3 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

5 tan 60°(sin² 60° + cos² 60°) tan 30° = 5 × √31 × 1√3

= 5 × √3 × √3

= 5 × 3

= 15

Q3: Prove that: (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) = 1     (3 Marks) (CBSE 2024)

Hide Answer  

Ans:
L.H.S. = (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
= (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
Since, cosec θ = 1/sin θ, sec θ =  1/cos θ, tan θ = sin θ/cos θ, cot θ = cos θ/sin θ
= (1/sin θ – sin θ) (1/cos θ – cos θ) (sin θ/cos θ + cos θ/sin θ)

= 1 – sin2θsin θ × 1 – cos2θcos θ × sin2θ + cos2θsin θ . cos θ

= cos2θ × sin2θsin θ × cos θ × 1sin θ . cos θ

= sin θ . cos θ1 × 1sin θ . cos θ    [ : sin2θ + cos2θ = 1 ]

= 1 = R.H.S.
Hence, proved.

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Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: If 2 tan A = 3, then find the value of 4 sin A + 5 cos A6 sin A + 2 cos A  is   (3 Marks)(2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

Given:

2 tan A = 3 ⇒ tan A = 3/2

Using sin2 A + cos2 A = 1, let:

sin A = 3/√13, cos A = 2/√13

Substituting in the given expression:

4 sin A + 5 cos A6 sin A + 2 cos A

= 4 × 3/√13 + 5 × 2/√136 × 3/√13 + 2 × 2/√13

= 12/√13 + 10/√1318/√13 + 4/√13

= 22/√1322/√13

= 1

Q2: 5/8 sec260° – tan260° + cos245° is equal to    (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 5/3
(b) -1/2
(c) 0
(d) -1/4

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol:
58 × (2)2 – (√3)2 + (1√2)2 = 5/8 × 4 – 3 + 12 = 0
 

Q3: Evaluate 2 sec2θ + 3 cosec2θ – 2 sin θ cos θ if θ = 45°      (2 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Since θ = 45°, sec 45° = √2, cosec 45° = √2, sin 45° = 1/√2 cos 45° = 1/√2
2sec2 θ + 3 cosec2 θ – 2 sin θ cos θ
= 2 (√2)2 + 3 (√2)2 – 2 (1√2) × (1√2)

= 2 × 2 + 3 × 2 – 2 × 12

= 4 + 6 – 1

= 9

Q4: Which of the following is true for all values of θ(0o ≤ θ ≤ 90o)? (1 Mark) (2023)
(a) 
cos2θ – sin2θ – 1
(b) 
cosec2θ – sec2θ- 1
(c) 
sec2θ – tan2θ – 1
(d) 
cot2θ- tan2θ = 1

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)

Option (a): cos²θ – sin²θ – 1
Using the identity: cos²θ – sin²θ = cos 2θ, we get cos²θ – sin²θ – 1 = cos 2θ – 1, which is not always true. So, this option is incorrect.

Option (b): cosec²θ – sec²θ – 1
Using the identities cosec²θ = 1 + cot²θ and sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, 
we get cosec²θ – sec²θ – 1 = (1 + cot²θ) – (1 + tan²θ) – 1 = cot²θ – tan²θ – 1, which is not always zero. So, this option is incorrect.

Option (c): sec²θ – tan²θ – 1
Using the identity sec²θ = 1 + tan²θ, 
we get sec²θ – tan²θ – 1 = (1 + tan²θ) – tan²θ – 1 = 0, which is always true. 
So, this option is correct.

Option (d): cot²θ – tan²θ = 1
Using the identity cot²θ = 1/tan²θ, we get cot²θ – tan²θ = (1/tan²θ) – tan²θ, which is not always equal to 1. So, this option is incorrect.

Q5: If sinθ +cosθ = √3. then find the value of sinθ. cosθ.   (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, sinθ +cosθ = √3
Squaring both sides, we get (sinθ + cosθ)2 = (√3)2
⇒ sin2θ + cos2θ + 2sinθ cosθ = 3 ( ∵ sin2θ + cos2θ = 1)
⇒ 1 + 2sinθ cosθ = 3 
⇒ 2sinθ cosθ = 3 – 1  
⇒ 2sinθ cosθ = 2
⇒  sinθ cosθ = 1

Q6: If sin α = 1/√2 and cot β = √3, then find the value of cosec α + cosec β.   (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, sin α = 1/√2 and cot β = √3
We know that, cosec α = 1/sinα = √2
Also, 1 + cot2β = cosec2β
⇒ cosec2β = 4
⇒ cosec β = √4 = 2 
Now, cosec α + cosec β = √2 + 2

Q7: Prove that the Following Identities: Sec A (1 + Sin A) ( Sec A – tan A) = 1   (3 Marks) (2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: LHS = sec A(1 + sin A )( sec A – tan A)

= 1cos A (1 + sin A) 1cos A – sin Acos A

= 1cos A (1 + sin A) (1 – sin Acos A)

= 1 – sin² Acos² A = cos² Acos² A

= 1

= RHS

Hence proved..

Q8: (secθ – 1) (cosec2 θ – 1) is equal to: (1 Mark) (CBSE 2023)
(a) –1 
(b) 1 
(c) 0 
(d) 2 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)

(sec²θ – 1) (cosec²θ – 1) = tan²θ . cot²θ

tan²θtan²θ       [ ∵ sec²θ – 1 = tan²θ & cosec²θ – 1 = cot²θ ]

= 1

Q9: If sin θ – cos θ =  0,  then find the value of sin4 θ + cos4 θ.     (2 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, 
sin θ – cos θ = 0 
sin θ = cos θ 
tan θ = 1 
tan θ = tan 45° 
⇒ θ = 45° 
Now, sin4 θ + cos4 θ = sin45° + cos45°

= (1√2)4 + (1√2)4

= 14 + 14 = 12

Q10: Prove that sin A – 2 sin3 A2 cos3 A – cos A = tan A  (4 & 5 Marks) (CBSE 2023)

Hide Answer  

Ans:

LHS = sin A – 2 sin3 A2 cos3 A – cos A

= sin A (1 – 2 sin² A)cos A (2 cos² A – 1)

= sin A (1 – 2 (1 – cos² A)cos A (2 cos² A – 1)

= tan A 1 – 2 + 2 cos² A2 cos² A – 1

= tan A 2 cos² A – 12 cos² A – 1

= tan A

= RHS

Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: Given that cos θ = √3/2, then the value of  cosec2θ – sec2θcosec2θ + sec2θ3 is  (2022) 
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 1/2
(d) -1/2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol:
Given, cosθ = √3/2  = B/H

Let B = √3k and H = 2k

∴ P = √((2k)2 – (√3k)2) [By Pythagoras Theorem]

⇒ k2 = k

∴ cosec θ = H / p = 2k / k = 2

sec θ = H / B = 2k / √3k = 2 / √3

cosec2θ – sec2θ = (2)2 – (2 / √3)24 – 4/3

= 4 – 43 = 83

cosec2θ + sec2θ = (2)2 + (2 / √3)24 + 4/3

= 4 + 43 = 163

Q2: 1cosec θ (1 – cot θ) + 1sec θ (1 – tan θ) is equal to   (2022)
(a) 0
(b) 1
(c) sinθ + cosθ
(d) sinθ – cosθ

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: We have,

1cosec θ (1 – cot θ) + 1sec θ (1 – tan θ)

= sin θcos θ / 1 – cos θsin θ + 1 – sin θ1 – cos θ

= 1cosec θ = sin θcos θ, 1sec θ

= sin2 θcos2 θ = sin2 θ – cos2 θsin θ – cos θ

= sin θ + cos θ

Q3: The value of θ for which 2 sin2θ = 1, is   (2022)
(a) 15° 
(b) 30°
(c) 45° 
(d) 60°

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Sol: Given, 2 sin2θ = 1 ⇒ sin2θ = 1/2
⇒ 2θ = 30°
⇒ θ = 15°

Q4: If sin2θ + sinθ = 1, then find the value of cos2θ + cos4θ is   (2022)
(a) -1
(b) 1
(c) 0
(d) 2

Hide Answer  

Ans: (b)
Sol: Given, sin2θ + sinθ = 1 —(i)
sinθ = 1 – sin2θ
⇒ sinθ = cos2θ —(ii)
∴ cos2θ + cos4θ
= sinθ + sin2θ [From (ii)]
= 1        [From (i)]

Also read: Introduction: Trigonometric Ratios

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q1: If 3 sin A = 1. then find the value of sec A.    (2021 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, 3 sin A = 1
∴ sin A = 1/3
Now by using cosA = 1 – sin2 A, we get

cos2 A = 1 – 19 = 89
⇒ cos A = 2√23

∴ sec A = 1cos A = 12√2 / 3 = 3√24

Q2: Show that: 1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cot2θ    (2021 C)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have, L.H.S.
1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cosec2θsec2θ
[By using 1 + tan2θ = sec2θ and 1 + cot2 θ = cosec2θ ]
⇒ 1sin2θ = cos2θsin2θ = cot2θ
Hence,
1 + cot2θ1 + tan2θ = cot2θ 

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Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: If sin θ = cos θ, then the value of tan2 θ + cot2 θ is (2020)
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 10/3

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a)
Sol: We have, sin θ = cos θ
or sin θ / cos θ = 1
⇒ tan θ = 1 and cot θ = 1     [∵ cot θ = 1/tanθ]
∴ tanθ + cotθ = 1 + 1 = 2
Hence, A option is correct.

Q2: Given 15 cot A = 8, then find the values of sin A and sec A.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: In right angle ΔABC we have
15 cot A = 8
⇒ cot A = 8/15

Since, cot A = AB/BC
∴ AB/BC = 8/15
Let AB = 8k and BC = 15k
By using Pythagoras theorem, we get
AC= AB2 + BC2
⇒ (8k)2 + (15)2 = 64k2 + 225k2 = 289k2 = (17k)

⇒ AC = √((17k)2) = 17k

∴ sin A = BCAC = 15k17k = 1517

and cos A = ABAC = 8k17k = 817

So, sec A = 1cos A = 178

Q3: Write the value of sin2 30° + cos2 60°.     (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  We have, sin2 30° + cos2 60°

Q4: The distance between the points (a cos θ + b sin θ, 0) and (0, a sin θ − b cos θ) is      (2020)
(a) a+ b2
(b) a + b
(c) 
(d) 

Hide Answer  

Ans: (c)
Sol: Given the point A (cos θ + b sin θ , 0), (0 , a sin θ − b cos θ)
By distance formula,

The distance of

AB = √(x2 – x1)² + (y2 – y1

So,

AB = √(a cos θ + b sin θ – 0)² + (0 – a sin θ + b cos θ)²

= √ a²(sin²θ + cos²θ) + b²(sin²θ + cos²θ)

But according to the trigonometric identity,

sin²θ + cos²θ = 1

Therefore,

AB = √ a² + b²

Q5: 5 tan2θ – 5 sec2θ = ____________.    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We have 5(tan2θ – sec2θ)
= 5(-1) = – 5 [By using 1 + tan2θ = sec2 θ ⇒ tan2θ – sec2θ = – 1]

Q6: If sinθ + cosθ = √3. then prove that tan θ + cot θ = 1    (2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: sin θ + cos θ =√3
= (sinθ + cosθ)= (√3)2
= sin2 θ + cos2 θ + 2sin θ cos θ = 3        (Since,sin2θ + cos2θ = 1)
= 1 + 2sin θ cos θ = 3  
⇒ 2sin θ cos θ = 2
⇒ sin θ cos θ = 1
⇒ sin θ cos θ = sin2θ + cos2θ
⇒ 1 = sin2θ + cos2θsin θ cos θ
⇒ tan θ + cot θ = 1

Q7: If x = a sinθ and y = b cosθ, write the value of (b2x2 + a2y2). (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given, x = a sin θ and y = b cos θ 
Putting the values of x and y in  (b2x2 + a2y2)
We get, 
= b2(a sin θ)+ a2(b cos θ)2
= a2b2 [sin2 θ + cos2 θ]   [Also, sin2θ + cos2θ = 1]
= a2b2 [1]  
= a2b2

Q8: Prove that: 2 (sin6 θ + cos6 θ) – 3 (sin4 θ + cos4 θ) + 1 = 0. (CBSE 2020)

Hide Answer  

Ans: We know that, 
sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1 
So, (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) 2 = 1
⇒ sin4 θ + cosθ + 2sin2 θ cos2 θ = 1 
i.e., sin4 θ + cos4 θ = 1 – 2 sin2 θ cos2 θ …(i) 
Also, (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) 3 = 13
⇒ sin6 θ + cos6 θ + 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ (sin2 θ + cos2 θ) = 1 
⇒ sin6 θ+ cos6 θ+ 3sin2 θ cos2 θ (1) = 1 
i.e., sin6 θ + cos6 θ = 1 – 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ …(ii) 
Now, 
LHS = 2(sin6 θ + cos6 θ) – 3(sin4 θ + cos4 θ) + 1 
= 2(1 – 3 sin2 θ cos2 θ) – 3(1 – 2 sin2 θ cos2 θ) + 1 
= 2 – 3 + 1 
= 0 
Hence, proved.

Q9: Prove that: (sin4 θ – cos4 θ + 1) cosec2 θ = 2.  [CBSE 2020].

Hide Answer  

Ans: L.H.S. = (sin4 θ – cos4 θ + 1) cosec2 θ 
= [(sin2 θ + cos2 θ) (sin2 θ – cos2 θ) + 1] cosec2 θ
[(1) (sin2 θ – cos2 θ) + 1] cosecθ         as [ sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1] 
= [sin2 θ + (1 – cos2 θ)] cosec2 θ 
= (sinθ + sin2 θ) cosec2θ
= (2 sin2 θ) cosec2 θ

= 2 × 1
= 2 = R.H.S.
Hence, proved.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: If sin x + cos y = 1, x = 30° and y is an acute angle, find the value of y.    (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: Given,
⇒ sin x + cos y = 1
⇒ sin 30° + cos y = 1
⇒ 1/2 + cos y = 1
⇒ cos y = 1 – 1/2
⇒ cos y = 1/2
⇒ cos y = cos 60°.
Hence, y = 60°.

Q2: If cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k, then what is the value of k?   (2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans:  Given:
cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k
Concept used:
Cosec α = 1/Sin α
Sin2 α + Cos2 α = 1
(a + b)(a – b) = a2 – b2
Calculation:
cosec2 θ (cos θ – 1)(1 + cos θ) = k
⇒ cosec2 θ (1 – cos θ)(1 + cos θ) = – k
⇒ cosec2 θ (1 – cos2 θ) = -k      [Also, sin2 θ + cos2 θ = 1]
⇒ cosec2 θ × sin2 θ = -k
⇒ 1 = -k
⇒ k = -1
∴ The value of k is (-1).

Q3: The value of ( 1 + cot A − cosec A ) ( 1 + tan A + sec A ) is

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Ans: 

(1 + cos Asin A – 1sin A ) (1 + sin Acos A + 1cos A )

= sin A + cos A – 1sin A × cos A + sin A + 1cos A

= (sin A + cos A)2 – 1sin A . cos A

= sin2A + cos2A + 2 sin A . cos A – 1sin A . cos A

= sin2A + cos2A – 1 + 2 sin A . cos Asin A . cos A

= 2

Also read: Introduction: Trigonometric Ratios

Previous Year Questions 2013

Q1: If sec θ + tan θ + 1 = 0, then sec θ – tan θ is: 
(a) –1 
(b) 1 
(c) 0 
(d) 2  (CBSE 2013)

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Ans: (a)

sec θ + tan θ + 1 = 0

⇒ sec θ + tan θ = -1

Multiplying and dividing LHS by sec θ – tan θ, we get

⇒ (sec θ + tan θ) × sec θ – tan θsec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ sec² θ – tan² θsec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ 1 + tan² θ – tan² θsec θ – tan θ = -1 (∵ sec² θ = 1 + tan² θ)

⇒ 1sec θ – tan θ = -1

⇒ sec θ – tan θ = -1

Hence, the correct option is (a).