01. Previous Year Questions: Chemical Reactions & Equations

Previous Year Questions 2025

Q1: Electrolysis of water is a decomposition reaction. The mass ratio (MH : MO) of hydrogen and oxygen gases liberated at the electrodes during electrolysis of water is: (1 Mark)
(a)
 8:1
(b) 2:1
(c) 1:2
(d) 1:8

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Ans: (d) 1:8

During the electrolysis of water, water decomposes to form hydrogen and oxygen gases:
Previous Year Questions 2025
The volume ratio of hydrogen to oxygen is 2 : 1, but since oxygen is eight times heavier than hydrogen, the mass ratio (Mₕ : Mₒ) is 1 : 8.


Q2: Consider the following reactions:  (1 Mark)
(i) Dilute hydrochloric acid reacts with sodium hydroxide
(ii) Magnesium oxide reacts with dilute hydrochloric acid
(iii) Carbon dioxide reacts with sodium hydroxide
It is found that in each case:
(a)
 Salt and water is formed
(b) Neutral salts are formed
(c) Hydrogen gas is formed
(d) Acidic salts are formed

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Ans: (a) Salt and water is formed

In all three reactions, an acid reacts with a base (or basic oxide) to produce salt and water, which is a neutralisation reaction — a type of double displacement reaction.


Q3: In which one of the following situations a chemical reaction does not occur?  (1 Mark)
(a)
 Milk is left open at room temperature during the summer
(b) Grapes get fermented
(c) An iron nail is left exposed to humid atmosphere
(d) Melting of glaciers

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Ans: (d) Melting of glaciers

Melting of glaciers is only a physical change — the state of water changes from solid (ice) to liquid, but no new substance is formed. Hence, no chemical reaction takes place.


Q4: The correct balanced chemical equation showing exothermic reaction in which natural gas burns in air is:  (1 Mark)
(a)
 CH₄ + O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
(b) CH₄ + 2O₂ → 2CO₂ + 2H₂O + Energy
(c) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
(d) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O + Energy

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Ans: (d) CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O + Energy

When natural gas (methane) burns in air, it combines with oxygen to form carbon dioxide and water, releasing heat energy. This makes it an exothermic reaction.


Q5: Consider the following chemical equation: (1 Mark)
pAl + qH₂O → rAl₂O₃ + sH₂
To balance this equation, the values of ‘p’, ‘q’, ‘r’, and ‘s’ are:

(a) 3, 2, 2, 1
(b) 2, 3, 3, 1
(c) 2, 3, 1, 3
(d) 3, 1, 2, 2

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Ans: (c) 2, 3, 1, 3

  • Write skeletal equation: Al + H₂O → Al₂O₃ + H₂
  • Balance Al → 2Al + H₂O → Al₂O₃ + H₂
  • Balance O → 3H₂O → Al₂O₃ + H₂
  • Balance H → 3H₂O → Al₂O₃ + 3H₂
    Final: 2Al + 3H₂O → Al₂O₃ + 3H₂


Q6: The main observations while burning magnesium ribbon in air are:  (1 Mark)
(i) Magnesium ribbon burns with a dazzling white flame
(ii) A white powder is formed
(iii) Magnesium ribbon vaporises
(iv) Aqueous solution of the white powder turns blue litmus red
(a) 
(i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

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Ans: (c) (i) and (ii)

When magnesium ribbon burns in air, it burns with a dazzling white flame and forms a white powder of magnesium oxide, showing that a chemical reaction has taken place.Previous Year Questions 2025


Q7: The values of a, b, c and d in the following balanced chemical equation are respectively:  (1 Mark)
aPb(NO₃)₂ → bPbO + cNO₂ + dO₂
are:

(a) 1, 1, 2, 1
(b) 1, 1, 1, 2
(c) 2, 2, 1, 4
(d) 2, 2, 4, 1

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Ans: (d) 2, 2, 4, 1

Balancing Steps (1 Mark):

  1. Write skeletal equation: Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂
  2. Balance Pb: 1 atom on each side → no change.
  3. Balance N: There are 2 nitrogen atoms in Pb(NO₃)₂, so write 2Pb(NO₃)₂ → 2PbO + 4NO₂ + O₂.
  4. Balance O: Left side has 12 oxygen atoms; right side has 4 (in PbO) + 8 (in NO₂) = 12 → balanced.

Final balanced equation:
Previous Year Questions 2025


Q8: Examples of thermal decomposition reactions are:   (1 Mark)
(i) 2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl₂
(ii) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
(iii) 2H₂O → 2H₂ + O₂
(iv) 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂
(a)
 (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iv)

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Ans: (d) (ii) and (iv)

Thermal decomposition reactions are those that require heat to break down a compound into simpler substances.

  • CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂ (by heating)
  • 2KClO₃ → 2KCl + 3O₂ (by heating)
    Both are thermal decomposition reactions.


Q9: Assertion (a): Decomposition reactions are generally endothermic reactions.  (1 Mark)
Reason (R): Decomposition of organic matter into compost is an exothermic process.
(a) 
Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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Ans: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

  • A: Decomposition reactions usually require energy (heat, light, or electricity), making them endothermic.
  • R: Composting involves microbial breakdown, releasing heat (exothermic).

Both are true, but R describes an exception (biological process), not a general explanation for A.


Q10: Assertion (a): Silver chloride turns grey in sunlight.  (1 Mark)
Reason (R): It decomposes into silver and chlorine in sunlight.
(a)
 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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Ans: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it decomposes into silver and chlorine gas, turning the substance grey due to the formation of silver metal.


Q11: Assertion (a): All exothermic reactions are accompanied with evolution of heat and light.  (1 Mark)
Reason (R): Combination reactions may or may not be exothermic.
(a)
 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false, but R is true

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Ans: (d) A is false, but R is true

All exothermic reactions release heat, but not necessarily light.
Also, combination reactions may or may not be exothermic — for example, formation of slaked lime is exothermic, but not all combination reactions release light.


Q12: A student performs the following experiment in his school laboratory. List two observations to justify that in this experiment a chemical change has taken place.  (2 Marks)

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Ans:

  • Bubbles of hydrogen gas are evolved when zinc granules react with dilute sulphuric acid.
  • The test tube becomes warm, showing that heat is produced — an exothermic chemical reaction has taken place.

Reaction:

Zn + H2SO → ZnSO+ H2


Q13: What happens when:  (2 Marks)
(a) Lead nitrate is thermally decomposed
(b) Natural gas burns in air
(Write balanced chemical equations)

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Ans: 

(a) When lead nitrate is heated, it decomposes to form lead oxidenitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.
Previous Year Questions 2025

Observation: Brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide are evolved.

(b) When natural gas (methane) burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide and water, releasing heat energy.
Previous Year Questions 2025

Observation: It is an exothermic reaction accompanied by the evolution of heat.


Q14: Translate and balance the following:  (2 Marks)
(a) Nitric acid reacts with calcium hydroxide to form calcium nitrate and water
(b) Sodium chloride reacts with silver nitrate to form silver chloride and sodium nitrate

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Ans: 

(a) Word equation:
Nitric acid + Calcium hydroxide → Calcium nitrate + Water

Balanced chemical equation:

2HNO+ Ca(OH)→ Ca(NO3)+ 2H2O

(b) Word equation:
Sodium chloride + Silver nitrate → Silver chloride + Sodium nitrate

Balanced chemical equation:

NaCl + AgNO→ AgCl + NaNO3


Q15: Balance the following chemical equations:  (2 Marks)
(a) 

(b) Previous Year Questions 2025

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Ans:

(a) Photosynthesis reaction:

  • Write formula: CO₂ + H₂O → C₆H₁₂O₆ + O₂.
  • Balance C: glucose has 6 C → put 6 CO₂.
  • Balance H: glucose has 12 H → put 6 H₂O.
  • Check O: LHS O = 6×2 (from CO₂) + 6×1 (from H₂O) = 12+6 = 18. RHS O = 6 (in C₆H₁₂O₆) + 2×(coefficient of O₂). To get 18 total, O₂ coefficient must be 6 (6 + 12 = 18).
  • Final balanced equation:
Previous Year Questions 2025

This is a balanced chemical equation representing the process of photosynthesis.

(b) Thermal decomposition of lead nitrate:

  • Write products: Pb(NO₃)₂ → PbO + NO₂ + O₂.
  • Start with 1 formula unit: Pb is balanced (1 Pb → 1 PbO). Nitrogen: 2 N on left → put 2 NO₂ on right.
  • Count O with these coefficients: LHS O = 6 (from Pb(NO₃)₂). RHS O = 1 (in PbO) + 2×2 (in 2 NO₂) = 1 + 4 = 5 → missing 1 O atom. That comes from ½ O₂.
  • To avoid fraction, multiply entire equation by 2.
  • Final balanced equation:
Previous Year Questions 2025

This is a balanced decomposition reaction with emission of brown fumes of NO₂.


Q16: What is observed when hydrated ferrous sulphate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube? Write the balanced chemical equation.  (2 Marks)

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Ans:

When hydrated ferrous sulphate crystals (FeSO4·7H2O) are heated, they lose water and the green crystals turn white. On further heating, a brown solid (ferric oxide) and gases (sulphur dioxide and sulphur trioxide) are produced with a characteristic odour of burning sulphur.Previous Year Questions 2025
Balanced chemical equation:
Previous Year Questions 2025


Q17: Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction between aqueous solutions of sodium sulphate and barium chloride. State two types of reactions in which it is classified.  (2 Marks)

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Ans: 
Equation:Previous Year Questions 2025

Types of reactions:

  1. Double displacement reaction – because there is an exchange of ions between reactants.
  2. Precipitation reaction – because an insoluble white precipitate of barium sulphate (BaSO₄) is formed.


Q18: A copper wire on burning gets coated with a black substance.  (2 Marks)
(a) Write the chemical equation for the reaction
(b) How can this chemical change be reversed?

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Ans: (a) Chemical equation:
Copper reacts with oxygen to form black copper(II) oxide.

(b) This change can be reversed by passing hydrogen gas over the heated black copper(II) oxide:

Previous Year Questions 2025The black coating turns brown again as copper metal is regenerated.


Q19: (a) (i) Define the term decomposition reaction. Write one chemical equation each for decomposition reaction where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light or electricity.
(ii) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is considered an exothermic reaction. Why ?
OR
(b) Why are decomposition reactions called the opposite of combination reactions ? Write one chemical equation each for these two types of reactions mentioning the name of the reactant(s) and the product(s) involved in the reactions.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

(i)  A decomposition reaction is a reaction in which a single compound breaks down into two or more simpler substances when energy is supplied in the form of heat, light, or electricity.

Examples:

  • By heat (thermal decomposition):Previous Year Questions 2025
  • By light (photodecomposition):Previous Year Questions 2025
  • By electricity (electrolytic decomposition):Previous Year Questions 2025

(ii) Decomposition of vegetable matter into compost is exothermic because it releases heat energy during the breakdown of organic matter.

OR

(b) Decomposition reactions are called the opposite of combination reactions because:

  • In a combination reactiontwo or more substances combine to form a single product.
  • In a decomposition reaction, a single substance breaks down into two or more products.

Examples:

  • Combination reaction:
    Previous Year Questions 2025(Hydrogen and oxygen combine to form water.)
  • Decomposition reaction:Previous Year Questions 2025(Lead nitrate decomposes to form lead oxide, nitrogen dioxide, and oxygen.)


Q20: How is a double displacement reaction different from a displacement reaction? Explain giving example in the form of balanced chemical equations.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 


Q21: What change is observed when copper powder is heated in a china dish? Name the phenomenon and write the balanced reaction. How is this different from the change observed when copper wares lose shine in moist air? Name the coating and its colour.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: When copper powder is heated in a china dish, its shiny brown surface turns black because copper reacts with oxygen to form black copper(II) oxide. This phenomenon is called oxidation.

Previous Year Questions 2025

When copper wares lose their shine in moist air, they get coated with a green layer of basic copper carbonate, formed due to the reaction of copper with carbon dioxide and moisture present in air.

Thus, heating causes oxidation forming black CuO, whereas exposure to moist air forms a green coating of basic copper carbonate on copper.


Q22: (a) Why do we balance a chemical equation? Name and state the law that suggests the balancing of a chemical equation? Balance the following chemical equation:  (3 Marks)
Zn + H₃PO₄ → Zn₃(PO₄)₂ + H₂
OR
(b) Define a precipitation reaction. Give its example and also express the reaction that occurs in the form of a balanced chemical equation.  (3 Marks)

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Ans: 

(a) A chemical equation is balanced to ensure that the number of atoms of each element is the same on both sides of the equation, satisfying the Law of Conservation of Mass.

Law of Conservation of Mass: Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction; the total mass of reactants equals the total mass of products.

Balancing the equation:
Unbalanced:
Zn + H3PO→ Zn3(PO4)+ H2

Balanced:
3Zn + 2H3PO4 → Zn3(PO4)2 + 3H2

OR

(b) precipitation reaction is a double displacement reaction in which an insoluble solid (precipitate) is formed when two aqueous solutions react.
Example:
When sodium sulphate reacts with barium chloride, a white precipitate of barium sulphate is formed.
Na2SO4(aq) + BaCl2(aq) → BaSO4(s) + 2NaCl(aq)
Here, BaSO4 is the precipitate formed.


Q23: Write balanced equations for the following:  (3 Marks)
(a) Steam passed over red-hot iron
(b) Natural gas burns in air
(c) Glucose reacts with oxygen in cells

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Ans:

(a) When steam is passed over red-hot ironferric oxide and hydrogen gas are formed:

Previous Year Questions 2025

(b) When natural gas (methane) burns in air, it forms carbon dioxide and water, releasing heat energy:

Previous Year Questions 2025

(c) When glucose reacts with oxygen in cells during respiration, it produces carbon dioxide, water, and energy:

Previous Year Questions 2025


Q24: Explain why respiration is considered as an exothermic reaction. Give the chemical equation for this reaction.  (3 Marks)

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Ans:

Respiration is considered an exothermic reaction because during this process, energy is released in the form of heat when glucose reacts with oxygen in the cells of our body. This released energy is used by living organisms to perform various life functions.

Chemical equation:

Thus, respiration is an exothermic process as it liberates heat energy during the breakdown of glucose.

Previous Year Questions 2024

Q1: Select from the following a decomposition reaction in which the source of energy for decomposition is light:    (2024)
(a) 2FeSO→ Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3
(b) 2H2O → 2H2 + O2
(c) 2AgBr → 2Ag + Br2
(d) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

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Ans: (c)
A decomposition reaction is when a compound breaks down into simpler substances. Option (c) 2AgBr → 2Ag + Bris the correct answer because it requires light energy to break down silver bromide (AgBr) into silver (Ag) and bromine (Br2). The other options do not use light for decomposition.


Q2: When 2 mL of sodium hydroxide solution is added to a few pieces of granulated zinc in a test tube and then warmed, the reaction that occurs can be written in the form of a balanced chemical equation as:    (2024)
(a) NaOH + Zn → NaZnO2 + H2O
(b) 2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2
(c) 2NaOH + Zn → NaZnO2 + H2
(d) 2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2O

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Ans: (b)
When sodium hydroxide (NaOH) reacts with zinc (Zn), it produces sodium zincate and hydrogen gas. The balanced equation 2NaOH + Zn → Na2ZnO2 + H2 shows that two molecules of sodium hydroxide react with one piece of zinc to form sodium zincate and hydrogen gas. This is the correct representation of the reaction, making option (b) the right answer.


Q3: Select from the following a process in which a combination reaction is involved:     (2024)

(a) Black and White photography
(b) Burning of coal
(c) Burning of methane
(d) Digestion of food

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Ans: (b)
Burning of coal involves the reaction of carbon (coal) with oxygen to form carbon dioxide: C (s) + O2(g) → CO2(g). This is a combination reaction as two substances (carbon and oxygen) combine to form a single product (carbon dioxide).


Q4: Consider the following cases:
(A) CaSO4 + AI →
(B) CuSO4  +  Ca →
(C) FeSO4 + Cu  →
(D) ZnSO4 + Mg → 
The cases in which new products will form are:    (2024)
(a)
 (A) and (B)    
(b) (B) and (C)
(c) (C)and(D)
(d) (B) and (D)

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Ans: (d)
New products will form when a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its compound. In (B) and (D), calcium and magnesium are more reactive than copper and zinc, so they will successfully displace them, resulting in new products.


Q5: Identify the correct statement about the following reaction:     (2024)
2H2S + SO2 → 2H2O + S
(a) H2S is oxidising agent and SO2 is reducing agent.
(b) H2S is reduced to sulphur.
(c) SO2 is oxidising agent and H2S is reducing agent.
(d) SO2 is oxidised to sulphur.

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Ans: (c)
In the reaction, hydrogen sulfide (H2S) loses hydrogen to form sulfur (H2S is oxidized to sulfur), which means it acts as a reducing agent, while sulfur dioxide (SO2) gains hydrogen to form 
H2O (SO2 is reduced to H2O), which means it acts as an oxidizing agent. Therefore, the correct statement is (c) because SO2 is the oxidizing agent and H2S is the reducing agent in this reaction.


Q6: Consider the following Chemical equation:     (2024)


In order to balance this chemical equation, the values of a, b, c and d must be
(A)
 1, 6, 2 and 3    
(B) 1, 6, 3 and 2
(C) 2, 6, 2 and 3    
(D) 2, 6, 3 and 2

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Ans: (a)
To balance the chemical equation Al2O3 + HCl → AlCl3 + H2O , we need to ensure that the number of each type of atom is the same on both sides. The correct coefficients are 1 for Al2O3, 6 for HCl, 2 for AlCl3, and 3 for H2O, giving option (A) as the right choice. The balanced equation is Previous Year Questions 2024


Q7: Which of the following reactions is different from the remaining three?     (2024)
(a)
 NaCl + AgNO3 → AgCl + NaNO3  
(b) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 
(c) KNO3 + H2SO4 → KHSO4 + HNO3 
(d) ZnCl2 + H2S →  ZnS + 2HCl 

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Ans: (b)
In the reactions listed, options (a), (c), and (d) involve double displacement or exchange of ions between reactants, where compounds are formed by swapping partners. However, option (b) is a combination reaction, where calcium oxide (CaO) reacts with water (H2O) to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2) without exchanging ions. This makes (b) different from the others.


Q8: Zn + 2CH3COOH → Zn(CH3COO)+ H2     (2024)
The above reaction is a:
(a) 
Decomposition reaction
(b) Displacement reaction
(c) Double displacement reaction
(d) Combination reaction

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Ans: (b)
In the given reaction, zinc (Zn) replaces hydrogen in acetic acid (CH3COOH) to form zinc acetate (Zn(CH3COO)2) and hydrogen gas (H2). This type of reaction, where one element displaces another from a compound, is called a displacement reaction. Therefore, option (b) is correct.


Q9: To balance the following chemical equation, the values of the coefficients x, y and z must be respectively :     (2024)


(a)
 4, 2, 2    
(b) 4, 4, 2
(c) 2, 2, 4    
(d) 2, 4, 2

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Ans: (c) x Zn(NO3)2 → y ZnO + z NO2 + O2

Step 1: Assume x = 2 (2 molecules of Zn(NO3)2).

Step 2:Distribute atoms:

  • Zn: 2 atoms → 2 ZnO (y = 2)
  • N: 4 atoms → 4 NO2 (z = 4)
  • O: 12 atoms → 2 in ZnO, 8 in NO2, remaining 2 form O2.

Step 3:Verify all elements are balanced:

  • Zn: 2 on both sides.
  • N: 4 on both sides.
  • O: 12 on both sides.

   2Zn(NO3)2 → 2ZnO + 4NO2 + O2


Q10: Which of the following is a redox reaction, but not a combination reaction?     (2024)
(a) 
C + O→ CO2
(b) 2 H2 + O2 → 2 H2O
(c) 2 Mg + O2 → 2 MgO
(d) Fe2O3 + 3 CO → 2 Fe + 3 CO2

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Ans: (d)
A redox reaction involves both oxidation and reduction, where electrons are transferred between substances. In option (d), iron(III) oxide (Fe2O3) is reduced to iron (Fe), while carbon monoxide (CO) is oxidized to carbon dioxide (CO2). Unlike the other options, which are combination reactions, this one shows the reduction and oxidation of different substances, making it a redox reaction but not a combination reaction.


Q11: Name the type of chemical reaction in which calcium oxide reacts with water. Justify your answer by giving a balanced chemical equation for the chemical reaction.    (2024)

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Ans: Combination reaction – Single product is formed (or any other)
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Q12: Write one chemical equation each for the chemical reaction in which the following have taken place:
(i) Change in colour
(ii) Change in temperature
(iii) Formation of precipitate
Mention colour change/temperature change (rise/fall)/compound precipitated along with the equation.    (2024)

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Ans: (i) Change in colour: The solution will become green in colour.
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(ii) Change in temperature: The temperature will increase.
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(iii) Formation of precipitate: Yellow precipitate of PbIis formed.
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Q13: When magnesium ribbon is burnt in the air, an ash of white colour is produced. Write the chemical equation for the reaction giving the chemical name of the ash produced. State the type of chemical reaction justifying your answer.     (2024)

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Ans: 2 Mg + O2 → 2MgO
Magnesium oxide
Type – Combination reaction
Reason: Two or more substances combine to form a single product.


Q14:Study the experimental set-up shown in the diagram and write a chemical equation for the chemical reaction involved. Name and define the type of reaction. List two other metals that can be used in place of iron to show the same type of reaction with copper sulphate solution.     (2024)
Previous Year Questions 2024

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Ans: Fe(s) + CuSO4 (aq) → FeSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Displacement reaction: A reaction in which a more reactive metal displaces a less reactive metal from its salt solution.
Other metals that can be used in place of iron to show the same type of reaction with copper sulphate solution: Zinc, Aluminium, Calcium, Magnesium


Q15: For Q. Nos., two statements are given – One labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below:    (2024)
Assertion (A): Hydrogen gas is not evolved when zinc reacts with nitric acid.
Reason (R): Nitric acid oxidises the hydrogen gas produced to water and itself gets reduced.
(a) 
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) 
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) 
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) 
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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Ans: (a)
In this scenario, both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true. When zinc reacts with nitric acid, hydrogen gas is not produced because the nitric acid oxidizes any hydrogen gas formed into water while itself getting reduced. Thus, the reason correctly explains why hydrogen gas is not evolved, making option (a) the right choice.


Q16: What is a chemical reaction? Describe one activity each to show that a chemical change has occurred in which (i) a change of colour, and (ii) a change in temperature has taken place.    (2024)

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Ans: A chemical reaction involves the breaking and making of bonds between atoms to produce new substances. when reactant changes to products.
(i) Add lead nitrate solution to potassium iodide solution taken in a test tube. The colour changes from colourless solution to yellow ppt.
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(ii) Calcium oxide reacts vigorously with water to produce slaked lime (calcium hydroxide) releasing a large amount of heat.
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Q17: (i) Define a decomposition reaction. How can we say that  (I) electrolysis of water, and (II) blackening of silver bromide when exposed to sunlight, are decomposition reactions? Mention the type of energy involved in each case.  
(ii) The type of reactions in which (I) calcium oxide is formed, and (II) calcium hydroxide is formed are opposite reactions to each other. Justify this statement with the help of chemical equations.
     (2024)

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Ans: (i) A reactant breaks down to give two or more products. A reaction which requires energy to split a compound or reactant in two or more simple substances.
(I) Water splits into hydrogen gas and oxygen gas.
Type of Energy: Electrical energy
(II) Silver bromide decomposes into silver and bromine
Type of Energy: Light energy
(ii) (I) Formation of calcium oxide:
Previous Year Questions 2024It is an endothermic reaction/decomposition reaction.
(II) Formation of calcium hydroxide:
Previous Year Questions 2024It is exothermic/combination reaction


Q18: (a) Copper powder is taken in a china dish and heated over a burner. Name the product formed and state its colour. Write the chemical equation for the reaction involved.     (2024)
OR
(b) Write a chemical equation for the chemical reaction that occurs when the aqueous solutions of barium chloride and sodium sulphate react together. Write the symbols of the ions present in the compound precipitated in the reaction.

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Ans: (a) Copper Oxide
It’s colour is Black.
Previous Year Questions 2024OR(b)Previous Year Questions 2024


Q19: (A) Write the essential conditions for the following reaction to take place and name its types: 
2AgCl → 2Ag + Cl2
(B) Complete the following chemical reaction in the form of a balanced equation: 
                  (CBSE 2024)

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Ans: (A) Previous Year Questions 2024

Sunlight is essential for the above reaction to take place.  This is a decomposition reaction. Such reactions require energy either in the form of heat, light or electricity for breaking down the reactants. Silver chloride turns grey after its decomposition into silver and chlorine by sunlight.  This reaction is used in black and white photography.

(B) Previous Year Questions 2024

Previous Year Questions 2023

Q1: When aqueous solutions of potassium iodide and lead nitrate are mixed, an insoluble substance separates out. The chemical equation for the reaction involved is      (2023)
(a) Kl + PbNO3 → Pbl + KNO3
(b) 2KI+ Pb(NO3)2 → Pbl2 + 2KNO
(c) KI + Pb(NO3)2 → Pbl +KNO3
(d) Kl + PbNO3 → Pbl2 + KNO3

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Ans: (b)
When potassium iodide (KI) and lead nitrate (Pb(NO3)2) are mixed, they react to form lead iodide (PbI2), which is an insoluble substance that precipitates out of the solution, and potassium nitrate (KNO3). The correct balanced equation for this reaction is 2KI+ Pb(NO3)2 → Pbl2 + 2KNO3. This shows that two potassium iodide molecules are needed to react with one lead nitrate molecule to produce one lead iodide and two potassium nitrate molecules, confirming option (b) as the correct answer.


Q2: The balanced chemical equation showing the reaction between quick lime and water is      (2023)
(a) 2CaO + H2O → 2CaOH + H2 + Heat
(b) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + H2 + Heat
(c) CaO  + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat
(d) 2CaO + 3H2O → 2Ca(OH)+ O2 + Heat

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Ans: (c)
The balanced chemical equation for the reaction between quick lime (calcium oxide, CaO) and water CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 + Heat. In this reaction, quick lime reacts with water to form calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2), which is also known as slaked lime, and releases heat. This makes option (c) the correct answer, as it accurately represents the products and the heat released during the reaction.


Q3: Assertion (A): In the following reaction ZnO + C → Zn + CO 
ZnO undergoes reduction.
Reason (R): Carbon is a reducing agent that reduces ZnO to Zn.      (2023)
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

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Ans: (a)
Sol: The reaction in which oxygen is added or hydrogen is removed or loss of electrons takes place is called an oxidation reaction. In the reaction,
(i) Carbon is getting oxidised to carbon monoxide.
(ii) Zinc oxide is getting reduced to zinc.
Carbon is a reducing agent that reduces ZnO to Zn.


Q4: Assertion (A): The reaction of quick lime with water is an exothermic reaction. 
Reason (R): Quicklime reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.      (2023)
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true

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Ans: (a)
Sol: Reaction of quick lime (CaO) with water is an exothermic reaction because CaO reacts vigorously with water releasing a large amount of heat.
CaO(s) + H2O(I) → Ca(OH)2(ag) + Heat


Q5: (i) While electrolyzing water before passing the current some drops of an acid are added why? Name the gases liberated at the cathode and anode. Write the relationship between the volume of gas collected at the anode and the volume of gas collected at the cathode.
(ii) What is observed when silver chloride is exposed to sunlight? Give the type of reaction involved.  
 (2023 C)

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Ans: 

(i) Acid is added to water before electrolysis to increase its conductivity. This allows the current to pass through the solution easily. Hydrogen gas is liberated at the cathode, while oxygen gas is liberated at the anode. The volume of gas collected at the anode is twice the volume of gas collected at the cathode. 2H2O(l) → 2H2(g) + O2(g)
(ii) When silver chloride is exposed to sunlight, it decomposes to form silver metal and chlorine gas. 2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g) This is a photochemical decomposition reaction.


Q6: (a) Define a double displacement reaction.
(b) Write the chemical equation of a double displacement reaction which is also a (i) Neutralisation reaction and (ii) Precipitation reaction. Give justification for your answer.   (2023)

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Ans: 

(a) The chemical reaction in which two reactants exchange ions to form two new compounds is called a double displacement reaction.
(b) (i) When an aqueous solution of an acid reacts with a base (alkali) by exchanging their ions/radicals to form salt and water as the only products, the reaction which takes place is called neutralisation reaction.
Previous Year Questions 2023
(ii) When the aqueous solutions of two ionic compounds react by exchanging their ions/radicals, to form two or more new compounds such that one of the products formed is an insoluble salt, and hence forms precipitate, the double displacement reaction is said to be precipitation reaction. When lead nitrate solution is mixed with potassium iodide solution, a yellow precipitate is formed. This reaction is a precipitation reaction and can be expressed as follows:
Previous Year Questions 2023


Q7: The emission of brown fumes in the given experimental set-up is due to:

Previous Year Questions 2023

(a) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide. 
(b) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of lead oxide. 
(c) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and nitrogen dioxide. 
(d) oxidation of lead nitrate forming lead oxide and oxygen. (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: (a)
When lead nitrate is heated, it undergoes thermal decomposition, resulting in the formation of lead oxide,PbO (a yellow solid), nitrogen dioxide NO2 (a brown gas), and oxygen, O2. The brown fumes observed in this setup are due to the release of nitrogen dioxide gas.
The reaction is as follows:Previous Year Questions 2023

Thus, the correct answer is (a) thermal decomposition of lead nitrate which produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide.


Q8: In the experimental setup given below, it is observed that on passing the gas produced in the reaction in the solution ‘X’ the solution ‘X’ first turns milky and then colourless.

Previous Year Questions 2023

The option that justifies the given observation is that ‘X’ is aqueous calcium hydroxide and: 
(a) it turns milky due to carbon dioxide gas liberated in the reaction and after some time it becomes colourless due to the formation of calcium carbonate. 
(b) it turns milky due to the formation of calcium carbonate and on passing excess of carbon dioxide it becomes colourless due to the formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate which is soluble in water. 
(c) it turns milky due to the passing of carbon dioxide through it. It turns colourless as on further passing carbon dioxide, sodium hydrogen carbonate is formed which is soluble in water. 
(d) the carbon dioxide liberated during the reaction turns lime water milky due to the formation of calcium hydrogen carbonate and after some time, it turns colourless due to the formation of calcium carbonate which is soluble in water.   (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: (b)
When carbon dioxide is passed through aqueous calcium hydroxide (lime water), it initially reacts to form calcium carbonate, which is insoluble in water and causes the solution to turn milky:Previous Year Questions 2023However, when excess carbon dioxide is passed through the solution, the calcium carbonate further reacts with the carbon dioxide and water to form calcium hydrogen carbonate, which is soluble in water, causing the solution to become clear again:

Previous Year Questions 2023Thus, the correct answer is (b).


Q9: Assertion (A): The colour of aqueous solution of copper sulphate turns colourless when a piece of lead is added to it. 
Reason (R): Lead is more reactive than copper, and hence displaces copper from its salt solution.
(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of Assertion (A)
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of the Assertion (A)
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is False
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true (CBSE 2023)

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Ans: (a)
Assertion (A): The color of the aqueous solution of copper sulfate turns colourless when a piece of lead is added to it. This is true. Copper sulfate solution is blue due to the presence of copper ions. When lead is added, it reacts with copper sulfate, displacing copper and forming lead sulfate, which is colourless in solution.
Reason (R): Lead is more reactive than copper and displaces copper from its salt solution. This is also true. Lead, being more reactive, displaces copper ions from copper sulfate, resulting in the precipitation of copper and the formation of colourless lead sulfate in the solution.
Since the reason correctly explains the assertion, the correct answer is (a)


Q10: (A) Identify the reducing agent in the following reactions: 
(i) 4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2
(ii) H2O + F2 → HF + HOF 
(iii) Fe2O3 + 3CO → 2Fe + 3CO2
(iv) 2H2 + O2 → 2H2
(B) Define a redox reaction in terms of gain or loss of oxygen.

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Ans: (A) (i) NH3 is the reducing agent because it gets oxidised to NO by the removal of hydrogen and addition of oxygen. O2 has been reduced to H2O by the addition of hydrogen. 
(ii) H2O is the reducing agent. Here, F2 gets reduced to HF (addition of hydrogen) and H2O gets oxidised to HOF (removal of hydrogen).
(iii) CO is the reducing agent. Here, CO has been oxidised to CO2 by the addition of oxygen. Fe2O3 has been reduced to Fe by the removal of oxygen.
(iv) H2 is the reducing agent as it gets oxidised to H2O by the addition of oxygen. O2 has been reduced to H2O by the addition of hydrogen. 
(B) The reaction in which one element gets oxidised or addition of oxygen occurs and other element gets reduced or removal of oxygen occurs in other element is called redox reaction. 
Example:
Previous Year Questions 2023

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Previous Year Questions 2022

Q1: Sodium reacts with water to form sodium hydroxide and hydrogen gas. The balanced equation which represents the above reaction is   (2022)
(a) Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
(b) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) +H2(g)
(c) 2Na(s) + 2H2O(l) → NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)
(d) 2Na(s) + H2O(l) → 2NaOH(aq) + 2H2(g)

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Ans: (b)
In the reaction between sodium (Na) and water (H2O), two sodium atoms react with two water molecules to produce two sodium hydroxide (NaOH) molecules and one hydrogen gas (H2) molecule. The balanced equation shows that two sodium atoms are needed for every two water molecules, which is why option (b) is correct. It accurately represents the conservation of mass in the reaction.


Q2: It is important to balance the chemical equations to satisfy the law of conservation of mass. Which of the following statements of the law is incorrect?    (2022)
(a) The total mass of the elements present in the reactants is equal to the total mass of the elements present in the products. 
(b) The number of atoms of each element remains the same, before and after a chemical reaction. 
(c) The chemical composition of the reactants is the same before and after the reaction. 
(d) Mass can neither be created nor can it be destroyed in a chemical reaction.

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Ans: (c)
Sol: A balanced equation follows law of conservation of mass that means the total mass of reactants is equal to the total mass of products but the chemical composition of reactants does not remain same before and after the reaction.


Q3: C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(I)
The above reaction is a/an    (2022)
(a) Displacement reaction 
(b) Endothermic reaction 
(c) Exothermic reaction 
(d) Neutralisation reaction

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Ans: (c)
Sol: In the process of respiration, glucose combines with oxygen in cells of our body and provides energy. Thus, respiration is an exothermic process.
C6H12O6(aq) + 6O2(g) → 6CO2(g) + 6H2O(I) + Energy


Q4: Which of the following statements about the reaction given below are correct?
MnO2 + 4HCI → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl
(i) HCL is oxidized to Cl2.
(ii) MnO2 is reduced to MnCl2.
(iii) MnClacts as an oxidizing agent.
(iv) HCI acts as an oxidizing agent.   (2022)

(a) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii) only
(d) (iii) and (iv) only

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Ans: (c)
In the reaction, hydrochloric acid (HCl) loses electrons and is converted to chlorine gas (Cl2), so statement (i) is correct. Manganese dioxide (MnO2) gains electrons and is transformed into manganese chloride (MnCl2), making statement (ii) correct as well. However, MnCl2 does not act as an oxidizing agent; it is the reduced form of manganese. Therefore, the correct statements are (i) and (ii), which is why option (c) is the right choice.


Q5: Assertion (A): Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process. 
Reason (R): Methane gas combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water.   (2022)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (d)
In this case, the Assertion (A) is false because the burning of natural gas (which is primarily methane, CH₄) is actually an exothermic process, meaning it releases heat. The Reason (R) is true because methane does combine with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide (CO2) and water (H2O) during combustion. Thus, option (d) is the correct choice, stating that the Assertion is false while the Reason is true.


Q6: Consider the following processes
I. Dilution of sulphuric acid 
II. Sublimation of dry ice 
III. Condensation of water vapours 
IV. Dissolution of ammonium chloride in water 
The endothermic process(es) is/are    (2022)
(a) I and III 
(b) Il only 
(c) Ill only 
(d) Il and IV

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Ans: (d)
Sol: During sublimation of dry ice, heat is absorbed, so, it is an endothermic process. Dissolution of NH4CI in water is also an endothermic process.


Q7: When lead nitrate powder is heated in a boiling tube. we observe    (2022)
(a) Brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide
(b) Brown fumes of lead oxide 
(c) Yellow fumes of nitrogen dioxide
(d) Brown fumes of nitric oxide.

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Ans: (a)

When lead nitrate (Pb(NO3)2) is heated, it decomposes and produces brown fumes of nitrogen dioxide (NO2). This happens because the lead nitrate breaks down into lead oxide (PbO), nitrogen dioxide (NO2), and oxygen (O2). The brown color of the fumes is characteristic of nitrogen dioxide, making option (a) the correct answer.


Q8: Assertion (A): Silver salts are used in black-and-white photography.
Reason (R): Silver salts do not decompose in the presence of light.   (2022)

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (c)
Sol: Silver salt (AgCl) are used in black and white photography. Silver salt (AgCl) is photosensitive compound, it decomposes into elemental chlorine (Cl2) and Ag(metal).
AgBr is also used as black and white photography.
Previous Year Questions 2022


Q9: Mention with reason the colour changes observed when:   (2022)
(A) Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight
(B) Copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen
(C) A piece of zinc is dropped in copper sulphate solution.

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Ans: 

Previous Year Questions 2022

AgCI decomposes on absorbing light energy.

Previous Year Questions 2022

Previous Year Questions 2022
Copper metal undergoes oxidation. Zn displaces Cu from CuSOsolution. Colour changes from blue to colourless.


Q10: A shining metal ‘M’, on burning gives a dazzling white flame and changes to a white powder ‘N’.
(a) Identify ‘M’ and ‘N’.
(b) Represent the above reaction in the form of a balanced chemical equation.
(c) Does ‘M’ undergo oxidation or reduction in this reaction? Justify.     (2022)

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Ans: 

(a) ‘M’ is (Mg) Magnesium and ‘N’ is (MgO) Magnesium Oxide
Previous Year Questions 2022

(c) ‘M’ undergoes oxidation in this reaction because Mg gain oxygen to form MgO.

Previous Year Questions 2021

Q1: What is a balanced chemical equation?  (2021 C)

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Ans: The equation which contains an equal number of atoms of each element on both sides of the arrow is called a balanced chemical equation.


Q2: Name the type of chemical reaction that takes place when quicklime is added to water.      (2021 C)

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Ans: The reaction between CaO and H2O to form Ca(OH)2 is an exothermic and combination reaction.


Q3: Give the chemical name of the reactants as well as the products of the following chemical equation:   (2021 C)
HNO3 + Ca(OH)2 → Ca(NO3)2 + H2O

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Ans: Reactants: Nitric acid, calcium hydroxide (slaked lime)
Products: Calcium nitrate, water


Q4: Assertion (A): Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process. 
Reason (R): Methane gas combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false. 
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.  (CBSE Term-1 2021)

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Ans: (d)
Assertion (A): Burning of natural gas is an endothermic process. This is incorrect. Burning (or combustion) of natural gas, which mainly consists of methane, is an exothermic process, meaning it releases heat.
Reason (R): Methane gas combines with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water. This statement is correct. During combustion, methane reacts with oxygen to produce carbon dioxide and water as products.
Since the assertion is false, but the reason is true, the correct answer is (d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

Also read: Important Equations and Definitions: Chemical Reactions and Equations

Previous Year Questions 2020

Q1: In which of the following, the identity of the initial substance remains unchanged?  (2020)
(a) Curdling of milk 
(b) Formation of crystals by process of crystallisation 
(c) Fermentation of grapes
(d) Digestion of food

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Ans: (b)
Sol: Formation of crystals is a physical change while others are chemical change.


Q2: Assertion (A): The following is a balanced chemical equation for the action of steam on iron:
3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H(g)
Reason (R): The law of conservation of mass holds good for a chemical equation.  (2020)
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

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Ans: (a)
In this question, both the Assertion (A) and the Reason (R) are true. 
The balanced chemical equation 3Fe (s) + 4H2O (g) → Fe3O4 (s) + 4H(g) correctly represents the reaction of steam with iron, forming iron(II,III) oxide (Fe3O4) and hydrogen gas (H2). 
The Reason (R) states that the law of conservation of mass holds, meaning that mass is neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction, which is indeed reflected in the balanced equation. Therefore, option (a) is correct, as the Reason accurately explains the Assertion.


Q3: When hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a blue solution of copper sulphate, a black precipitate of copper sulphide is obtained and the sulphuric acid so formed remains in the solution. The reaction is an example of a   (2020)
(a) Combination reaction 
(b) Displacement reaction 
(c) Decomposition reaction 
(d) Double displacement reaction.

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Ans: (d)

When hydrogen sulfide (H2S) is passed through a blue solution of copper sulfate (CuSO4), it forms a black precipitate of copper sulfide (CuS) while sulfuric acid (H2SO4) remains in the solution. This process involves the exchange of ions between the reactants, characteristic of a double displacement reaction. In this type of reaction, the ions from both compounds swap partners, which makes option (d) the correct answer.


Q4: In a double displacement reaction such as the reaction between sodium sulphate solution and barium chloride solution: 
(A) Exchange of atoms takes place 
(B) Exchange of ions takes place 
(C) A precipitate is produced 
(D) An insoluble salt is produced 
The correct option is    (2020)
(a) (B) and (D) 
(b) (A) and (C)
(c) Only (B)
(d) (B), (C) and (D)

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Ans: (d)
In a double displacement reaction, like the one between sodium sulfate and barium chloride, the ions in the reactants swap places. This results in the formation of an insoluble salt (barium sulfate), which is a solid that separates out (precipitate) from the solution. So, options (B), (C), and (D) are all correct because they describe the ion exchange and the formation of a precipitate.


Q5: Mention with reason the colour changes observed when: 
(i) Silver chloride is exposed to sunlight.
(ii) copper powder is strongly heated in the presence of oxygen.    (2020)

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Ans: 

AgCl decomposes on absorbing light energy.
Previous Year Questions 2020
Copper metal undergoes oxidation.


Q6: If copper is kept open in the air, it slowly loses its shining brown surface and gains a green coating. It is due to the formation of    (2020)
(a) CuSO4
(b) CuCO3
(c) Cu(NO3)2
(d) CuO

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Ans: (b)
When copper is left exposed to air, it reacts with oxygen and carbon dioxide, leading to the formation of a green coating called copper carbonate (CuCO3). This green layer is a sign of corrosion and happens over time as the copper oxidizes, which is why option (b) is correct.


Q7: What happens when food materials containing fats and oils are left for a long time? List two observable changes and suggest three ways by which this phenomenon can be prevented.    (CBSE 2020)

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Ans: Food materials containing fats and oils change when left for a long time due to a process called rancidity. This occurs when air interacts with these substances, affecting their smell and taste. The observable changes include:

  • The food develops an unpleasant smell.
  • The taste of the food becomes off or stale.

To prevent rancidity, consider these methods:

  • Vacuum packing to limit air exposure.
  • Refrigeration to slow down oxidation.
  • Storing food away from direct sunlight to reduce heat exposure.


Q8: In the electrolysis of water
(a) Name the gases liberated at the anode and cathode.
(b) Why is it that the volume of gas collected on one electrode is two times that on the other electrode?
(c) What would happen if dil. H2SO4 is not added to water?    (2020)

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Ans: (a) At anode: Oxygen gas is liberated. At cathode: Hydrogen gas is liberated.

(b) In the test tube covering the cathode, the amount of gas collected is double than that of the gas collected in the test tube covering the anode due to stochiometry.

2H2O → 2H2 + O2

(c)Without adding dilute sulphuric acid, water would not conduct electricity effectively, which would hinder the electrolysis process. As addition of a few drops of sulphuric acid make water a good conductor of electricity. 


Q9: 1 g of copper powder was taken in a China dish and heated. What change takes place in healing? When hydrogen gas is passed over this heated substance, a visible change is seen in it. Give the chemical equations of reactions, the name and the colour of the products formed in each case.   (2020)

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Ans: When copper powder is heated in a China dish, the reddish brown surface of copper powder becomes coated with a black substance which is copper oxide.
 
When hydrogen gas is passed over CuO, the black coating on the surface turned reddish brown due to the formation of Cu.


Q10: A compound ‘A’ is used in the manufacture of cement. When dissolved in water, it evolves a large amount of heat and forms compound ‘B’. 
(i) Identify A and B. 
(ii) Write the chemical equation for the reaction of A with water.
(iii) List two types of reactions in which this reaction may be classified.   (2020)

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Ans: (i) Compound A is calcium oxide (CaO) and compound B is calcium hydroxide (Ca(OH)2).
(ii) The chemical equation for the reaction of A (calcium oxide) with water is:
CaO(s) + H2O(l) → Ca(OH)2(aq)
(iii) The reaction can be classified as a combination reaction and an exothermic reaction. It is a combination reaction because two substances combine to form a new compound, and it is exothermic because it evolves a large amount of heat.


Q11: Identify the type of each of the following reactions. Also, write a balanced chemical equation for each reaction. 
(i) A reaction in which the reaction mixture becomes warm. 
(ii) A reaction in which an insoluble substance is formed.   (2020)

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Ans: (i) The type of reaction in which the reaction mixture becomes warm is an exothermic reaction. An example of such a reaction is the combustion of methane (CH4):
CH4(g) + 2O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2H2O(g) + heat
(ii) The type of reaction in which an insoluble substance is formed is a precipitation reaction. An example of such a reaction is the reaction between silver nitrate (AgNO3) and sodium chloride (NaCl):
AgNO3(aq) + NaCl(aq) → AgCl(s) + NaNO3(aq)
In this reaction, silver chloride (AgCl) is formed as an insoluble substance, which precipitates out of the solution.


Q12: Lead nitrate solution is added to a test tube containing potassium iodide solution.
(a) Write the name and colour of the compound precipitated.
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for the reaction involved.
(c) Name the type of this reaction justifying your answer.    (2020)

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Ans: (a) The compound precipitated is lead iodide (PbI2), which is yellow in color.
(b) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is:
Pb(NO3)2(aq) + 2KI(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)
(c) The type of this reaction is a precipitation reaction. In this reaction, a solid (precipitate) is formed when two solutions are mixed together. In this case, lead iodide is formed as a yellow precipitate.


Q13: Study the figure given below and answer the following questions:

(A) Name the process depicted in the diagram. 
(B) Write the composition of gases collected at the anode and cathode. 
(C) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction taking place in this case. 
(D) The reaction does not take place if a few drops of dilute sulphuric acid are not added to water. Why?  (CBSE 202
0)

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Ans: (A) Electrolytic decomposition of water/ electrolysis of water. 
(B) The gas collected at cathode is hydrogen which is double the volume of oxygen collected at anode. 
(C) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is:Previous Year Questions 2020
(D) The reaction does not occur without dilute sulphuric acid because:

  • Water is a poor conductor of electricity.
  • Adding sulphuric acid improves conductivity, allowing the reaction to proceed.

Previous Year Questions 2019

Q1: Translate the following statement into a balanced chemical equation : 
“Barium chloride reacts with aluminium sulphate to give aluminium chloride and barium sulphate.”   (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)→ 2AICI3 + 3BaSO4


Q2: What is observed after about 1 hour of adding the strips of copper and aluminium separately to the ferrous sulphate solution filled in two beakers? Name the reaction if any change in colour is noticed. Also, write a chemical equation for the reaction.    (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: 

Cu(s) + FeSO₄(aq) → No change will take place

Copper is less reactive than Fe, so Cu cannot displace iron from a ferrous sulphate solution. Hence, No reaction will take place.

2 Al(s) + 3 FeSO₄(aq) → Al₂(SO₄)₃ + 3 Fe(s) (Displacement reaction)

When Al is added to a FeSO₄(aq) solution, the green colour of FeSO₄(aq) disappears and the Fe is seen setting down as the reaction occurs. Al being higher in the reactivity series displaces the Fe in FeSO₄.


Q3: A student wants to study a decomposition reaction by taking ferrous sulphate crystals. Write two precautions he must observe while performing the experiment.    (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (i) Test tube should be dried properly.
(ii) Hold the test tube in a test tube holder.


Q4: 2 g of silver chloride is taken in a China dish, and the China dish is placed in sunlight for some time. What will be your observation in this case? Write the chemical reaction involved in the form of a balanced chemical equation. Identify the type of chemical reaction.    (Delhi 2019)

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Ans: When silver chloride (AgCl) is exposed to sunlight, it undergoes a decomposition reaction and gets converted into silver (Ag) and chlorine gas (Cl2). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:

2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

The observation in this case would be that the white silver chloride gradually turns grayish-white or silver-colored due to the formation of silver, and the chlorine gas may be seen as a pale yellowish-green gas. This is an example of a photodecomposition reaction, where light energy is used to break down the compound into its elements.


Q5: Identify the type of reactions taking place in each of the following cases and write the balanced chemical equation for the reactions.
(a) Zinc reacts with silver nitrate to produce zinc nitrate and silver.
(b) Potassium iodide reacts with lead nitrate to produce potassium nitrate and lead iodide.   (CBSE 2019)

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Ans: (a) The type of reaction taking place is a single displacement reaction. Zinc (Zn) displaces silver (Ag) from silver nitrate (AgNO3) to form zinc nitrate (Zn(NO3)2) and silver (Ag). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
Zn(s) + 2AgNO3(aq) → Zn(NO3)2(aq) + 2Ag(s)
(b) The type of reaction taking place is a double displacement reaction or a precipitation reaction. Potassium iodide (KI) reacts with lead nitrate (Pb(NO3)2) to produce potassium nitrate (KNO3) and lead iodide (PbI2). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → 2KNO3(aq) + PbI2(s)


Q6: When potassium iodide solution is added to a solution of lead (II) nitrate in a test tube, a precipitate is formed. 
(a) What is the colour of this precipitate? Name the compound precipitated. 
(b) Write the balanced chemical equation for this reaction. 
(c) List two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed.   (2019)

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Ans: (a) The color of the precipitate formed is yellow. The compound precipitated is lead iodide (PbI2)
(b) The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
2KI(aq) + Pb(NO3)2(aq) → PbI2(s) + 2KNO3(aq)
(c) The two types of reactions in which this reaction can be placed are a double displacement reaction and a precipitation reaction. In a double displacement reaction, the positive and negative ions of two compounds switch places to form new compounds. In a precipitation reaction, a solid precipitate is formed when two solutions are mixed together.


Q7: 2 g of ferrous sulfate crystals are heated in a dry boiling tube. (a) List any two observations. (b) Name the type of chemical reaction taking place. (c) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction and name the products formed.    (Al 2019, Board Term 1, 2017, 2016)

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Ans: (a) Two observations during the heating of ferrous sulfate crystals are:
1. The crystals lose water and become anhydrous.
2. The color of the crystals changes from green to a reddish-brown color.
(b) The type of chemical reaction taking place is a thermal decomposition reaction.
(c) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is:
FeSO4⋅7H2O(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + H2O(g)
The products formed are ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and water (H2O).


Q8: You might have noted that when copper powder is heated in a China dish, the reddish-brown surface of copper powder becomes coated with a black substance. 
(a) Why has this black substance formed? 
(b) What is the black substance? 
(c) Write the chemical equation of the reaction that takes place. 
(d) How can the black coating on the surface be turned reddish-brown?    (Al 2019)

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Ans: (a) The black substance is formed because copper reacts with oxygen in the air to form copper oxide.
(b) The black substance is copper oxide (CuO).
(c) The chemical equation for the reaction is:
2Cu(s) + O2(g) → 2CuO(s)
(d) The black coating on the surface can be turned reddish-brown by reducing it back to copper. This can be done by passing hydrogen gas over the hot copper oxide. The chemical equation for this reaction is:
CuO(s) + H2(g) → Cu(s) + H2O(g)
The reduction reaction converts the black copper oxide back to reddish-brown copper.


Q9: (A) Design an activity to demonstrate the decomposition reaction of lead nitrate. 
(B) Draw a labelled diagram of the experimental set-up. List two main observations. 
(C) Write a balanced chemical equation for the reaction stating the physical state of the reactant and the products. (CBSE 2019)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (A) Take a small amount of lead nitrate powder in a boiling tube. Hold the boiling tube with a pair of tongs and heat it over the flame first gently and then strongly. 
(B) Labelled diagram of the experimental setup:
Previous Year Questions 2019

Two main observations:

(i) We observe emission of brown fumes of a gas which is nitrogen dioxide.
(ii) The white colour of lead nitrate changes to yellow colour as lead oxide is formed.
(C) Balanced equation:
Previous Year Questions 2019

Previous Year Questions 2018

Q1: Decomposition reactions require energy either in the form of heat or light or electricity to break down the reactants. Write one equation each for decomposition reactions where energy is supplied in the form of heat, light, and electricity.    (2018)

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Ans: Decomposition reaction with heat energy supplied:

ZnCO3(s) → ZnO(s) + CO2(g)

Decomposition reaction with light energy supplied:

2H2O2(l) → 2H2O(l) + O2(g)

Decomposition reaction with electrical energy supplied:

2AgCl(s) → 2Ag(s) + Cl2(g)

Previous Year Questions 2017

Q1: Take 3 g of barium hydroxide in a test tube. Now add about 2 g of ammonium chloride and mix the contents with the help of a glass rod. Now touch the test tube from outside. 
(i) What do you feel about touching the test tube?
(ii) State the inference about the type of reaction that occurred. 
(iii) Write the balanced chemical equation of the reaction involved.    (Board Term 1, 2017)

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Ans: (i) On touching the test tube from outside, you will feel the test tube becoming cold.
(ii) The inference about the type of reaction that occurred is that it is an endothermic reaction. In endothermic reactions, heat is absorbed from the surroundings, resulting in a decrease in temperature
(iii) The balanced chemical equation for the reaction is:
Ba(OH)2(s) + 2NH4Cl(s) → BaCl2(aq) + 2NH3(g) + 2H2O(l)


Q2: (a) Can a displacement reaction be a redox reaction? Explain with the help of an example.
(b) Write the type of chemical reaction in the following:
(i) Reaction between an acid and a base
(ii) Rusting of iron.     (Board Term I, 2017)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) Consider the following displacement reaction:
Zn(s)+ CuSO4(aq) → ZnSO4(aq) + Cu(s)
Here, Zn has changed into ZnSO4 (i.e., Zn2+ ions) by loss of electrons. Hence, Zn has been oxidised. CuSO4 (i.e., Cu2+) has changed into Cu by gain of electrons. Hence, CuSO4 has been reduced. Thus, the above reaction is a displacement reaction as well as a redox reaction.
(b) (i) Neutralisation reaction
(ii) Oxidation reaction.

Previous Year Questions 2016

Q1: Name the type of chemical reaction represented by the following equation: 
(i) CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 
(ii) 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4 
(iii) 2FeSO4 + Heat → Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3     (Board Term 1, 2016)

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Ans: (i) The type of chemical reaction represented by the equation CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2 is a combination or synthesis reaction.
(ii) The type of chemical reaction represented by the equation 3BaCl2 + Al2(SO4)3 → 2AlCl3 + 3BaSO4 is a double displacement or precipitation reaction.
(iii) The type of chemical reaction represented by the equation 2FeSO4 + Heat → Fe2O3 + SO2 + SO3 is a thermal decomposition reaction. 


Q2: (a) A solution of potassium chloride when mixed with silver nitrate solution, an insoluble white substance is formed. Write the chemical reaction involved and also mention the type of the chemical reaction. (NCERT Exemplar)
(b) Ferrous sulfate, when heated, decomposes with the evolution of a gas having a characteristic odor of burning sulfur. Write the chemical reaction involved and identify the type of reaction.   (Board Term 1, 2016)

Hide Answer  

Ans: (a) The chemical reaction involved is a double displacement reaction or a precipitation reaction. The reaction between potassium chloride (KCl) and silver nitrate (AgNO3) produces silver chloride (AgCl), which is an insoluble white substance. The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
KCl(aq) + AgNO3(aq) → AgCl(s) + KNO3(aq)
(b) The chemical reaction involved is a thermal decomposition reaction. Ferrous sulfate (FeSO4) when heated decomposes to form ferric oxide (Fe2O3), sulfur dioxide (SO2), and water (H2O). The balanced chemical equation for this reaction is:
FeSO4(s) → Fe2O3(s) + SO2(g) + H2O(g)

Also read: Important Equations and Definitions: Chemical Reactions and Equations

Previous Year Questions 2015

Q1: What can be seen when a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate? (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: When a strip of copper metal is placed in a solution of silver nitrate, copper displaces silver from silver nitrate solution as copper is a more reactive metal than silver. Copper nitrate is formed with a shiny greyish white deposit of silver on the copper strip.
Previous Year Questions 2015


Q2: What is a reduction reaction? Identify the substances that are oxidised and the substances that are reduced in the following reactions. (A) Fe2O+ 2Al → Al2O3 + 2Fe 
(B) 2PbO + C → 2Pb + CO2  (CBSE 2015)

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Ans: A reduction reaction is a reaction in which hydrogen is added to a substance or oxygen is removed from a substance. 
(A) In this reaction, Fe2O3 is losing oxygen and forming Fe, whereas Al is gaining oxygen and forming Al2O3. Therefore, Fe2O3 is getting reduced and Al is getting oxidised. 
(B) In this reaction, PbO is losing oxygen and forming Pb whereas C is gaining oxygen and forming CO. Therefore, PbO is getting reduced and C is getting oxidised.

Previous Year Questions 2012

Q1: Name and state the law that is kept in mind when we balance chemical equations. (CBSE 2012)

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Ans: The law which should be kept in mind when we balance chemical equations is the law of conservation of mass which states that “Matter can neither be created nor be destroyed”. It means that the total mass of atoms of reactants is equal to total mass of atoms of products, as atoms can neither be created nor be destroyed.

Chapter 2. रेखाएँ और कोण Question Answer

रेखाएँ और कोण

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 15,16,17)

Q.1. (a)रिहान ने एक कागज पर एक बिंदु अंकित किया। वह उस बिंदु से जाने वाली कितनी रेखाएँ बना सकता है?
(b)शीतल ने एक कागज पर दो बिंदु अंकित किए। वह उन दोनों बिंदुओं से गुजरती हुई कितनी भिन्न रेखाएँ बना सकती है?
क्या आप रिहान और शीतल को उनके उत्तर ज्ञात करने में मदद कर सकते हैं?

उत्तर: (a) अनगिनत रेखाएँ खींची जा सकती हैं।

(b) केवल एक रेखा।

2. आकृति 2.4 में दिए गए रेखाखंडों के नाम लिखिए। पाँच अंकित बिंदुओं में से कौन-से केवल एक रेखाखंड पर स्थित हैं? कौन-से बिंदु किन्हीं दो रेखाखंडों पर स्थित हैं?

उत्तर: रेखाखंडों के नाम:

LM, MP, PQ, QR, RP

केवल एक रेखाखंड पर स्थित बिंदु:

LM, QR

दो रेखाखंडों पर स्थित बिंदु:

  • M (LM और MP पर)
  • P (MP और PQ तथा PR पर)
  • R (QR और RP पर)

3. आकृति 2.5 में दी गई किरणों के नाम लिखिए। क्या T प्रत्येक किरण का प्रारंभिक बिंदु है?

उत्तर:

किरण TA, किरण TN, किरण TB

(प्रत्येक किरण में पहला अक्षर प्रारंभिक बिंदु होता है और दूसरा अक्षर उस दिशा में कोई बिंदु जो किरण पर स्थित होता है।)

हाँ, T प्रत्येक किरण का प्रारंभिक बिंदु है।

इसलिए, T सभी किरणों का प्रारंभिक बिंदु है।

4. एक कच्ची (rough) आकृति बनाइए और नीचे दिए गए प्रत्येक बिंदु का उपयुक्त नामांकन कीजिए-
a. OP और OQ बिंदु O पर मिलते हैं।
b. XY और PQ बिंदु M पर प्रतिच्छेद करते हैं।
c. रेखा 1 पर बिंदु E और F स्थित हैं पर बिंदु D स्थित नहीं है।
d. बिंदु P, AB पर स्थित है।

उत्तर: a.

b.

c.

d.

5. आकृति 2.6 में निम्नलिखित के नाम बताइए-
a. पाँच बिंदु
b. एक रेखा
c. चार किरणें
d. पाँच रेखाखंड

उत्तर: a. पाँच बिंदु: – D, E, O, C, B

b. एक रेखा:
रेखा DE या DOB या DB (क्योंकि यह रेखा दोनों दिशाओं में अनंत तक जाती है और D, E, O, B उस पर स्थित हैं)

c. चार किरणें:

  • OB (O से शुरू होकर B की दिशा में बढ़ती हुई किरण)
  • OC (O से C की दिशा में)
  • OD (O से D की ओर)
  • OE (O से E की ओर — यह भी किरण मानी जा सकती है)

d. पाँच रेखाखंड: DE, EO, OC, CB, OB

6. आकृति 2.7 में OA एक किरण है। यह O से शुरू होती है और बिंदु A से गुजरती है। यह बिंदु B से भी गुजरती है।
a. क्या हम इसे OB भी नाम दे सकते हैं? क्यों?
b. क्या हम OA को AO लिख सकते हैं? क्यों अथवा क्यों नहीं?

उत्तर: a. हाँ, हम इसे OB नाम दे सकते हैं,
क्योंकि किरण O से शुरू होती है और B बिंदु उस पर स्थित है।
→ किरण की दिशा वही रहेगी (O से आगे की ओर),
→ और चूँकि किरण OB भी उसी दिशा में जा रही है जिसमें OA है,
इसलिए OB भी एक मान्य नाम है।

b. नहीं, हम OA को AO नहीं लिख सकते,
क्योंकि किरण का नाम हमेशा प्रारंभिक बिंदु से शुरू होता है।
→ यहाँ किरण O से शुरू होती है, इसलिए पहले O आना चाहिए।
→ AO लिखने से यह अर्थ निकलता है कि किरण A से शुरू होकर O की ओर जा रही है, जो गलत है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 19,20)

1. क्या आप दी गई आकृतियों में कोण ढूँढ़ सकते हैं? किसी भी एक कोण की भुजाएँ बनाइए और शीर्ष का नाम दीजिए।

उत्तर:

कोण ∠BDC का शीर्ष (vertex) D है।

कोण ∠PQR का शीर्ष (vertex) Q है।

कोण ∠LMN का शीर्ष (vertex) M है।

कोण ∠XYZ का शीर्ष (Vertex) Y है।

2. भुजा ST और SR को चिह्नित करते हुए कोण बनाइए।

उत्तर:

3. व्याख्या कीजिए कि ∠APC को ∠P क्यों नहीं लिखा जा सकता?

उत्तर: ∠APC को ∠P इसलिए नहीं लिखा जा सकता है, क्योंकि इस आकृति में ऐसे दो कोण ∠APB और ∠BPC हैं, जिनका शीर्ष भी P ही है।

4. नीचे दी गई आकृति में अंकित कोणों के नाम लिखिए।

उत्तर: ये कोण ∠PTR और ∠QTR हैं।

5. अपने कागज पर तीन बिंदु इस प्रकार अंकित कीजिए कि वे एक रेखा पर स्थित न हों। उन्हें A, B और C से चिह्नित कीजिए। सभी संभव रेखाएँ खींचिए, जो इन बिंदु-युग्मों से गुजरती हों। इस प्रकार आपको कितनी रेखाएँ प्राप्त होती हैं? उनके नाम भी बताइए। A, B और C का प्रयोग करते हुए आप कितने कोण बना सकते हैं? उन सभी के नाम लिखिए और आकृति 2.9 के अनुसार उनमें से प्रत्येक को एक चाप के साथ चिह्नित कीजिए|

उत्तर: हमें तीन रेखाएँ प्राप्त होती हैं।

ये हैं: रेखा AB, रेखा BC और रेखा CA

साथ ही, हमें तीन कोण प्राप्त होते हैं।

ये हैं: ∠ABC, ∠BCA और ∠CAB

6. अपने कागज पर चार बिंदु इस प्रकार अंकित कीजिए कि उनमें से कोई भी तीन बिंदु एक रेखा पर न हों। उन्हें A, B, C और D से चिह्नित कीजिए। सभी संभव रेखाएँ खींचिए, जो इन बिंदु-युग्मों से गुजरती हों। इस प्रकार आपको कितनी रेखाएँ प्राप्त होती हैं? उनके नाम भी बताइए। आप A, B, C और D से कितने कोणों का नामकरण कर सकते हैं? उन्हें लिखिए और उनमें से प्रत्येक को आकृति 2.9 के अनुसार चाप द्वारा अंकित कीजिए।

उत्तर:

हमें छः रेखाएँ प्राप्त होती हैं।

ये हैं: रेखा AB, रेखा BC, रेखा CD, रेखा DA, रेखा AC और रेखा BD

साथ ही, हमें बारह कोण प्राप्त होते हैं।

ये हैं: ∠BAC, ∠CAD, ∠BAD, ∠ABD, ∠DBC, ∠ABC, ∠BCA, ∠ACD, ∠BCD, ∠CDB, ∠CDA, और ∠BDA।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 23)

1. एक आयताकर कागज को मोड़िए। अब घुमाव के निशान पर एक रेखा खींचिए। घुमाव और कागज की भुजाओं के बीच बने कोणों को नाम दीजिए और उन कोणों की तुलना कीजिए। आयताकार कागज को घुमाकर विभिन्न कोण बनाइए एवं उनकी तुलना कीजिए। यह भी बताइए कि इनमें से कौन-सा कोण सबसे बड़ा है और कौन-सा कोण सबसे छोटा है?

उत्तर: मोड़ के निशान PQ और भुजाओं द्वारा बनाए गए कोण ∠APQ, ∠BPQ, ∠DQP और ∠CQP हैं। ∠APQ और ∠CQP बराबर हैं तथा ये दोनों कोण सबसे बड़े हैं। ∠BPQ और ∠DQP बराबर हैं तथा ये दोनों कोण सबसे छोटे हैं।

2. प्रत्येक स्थिति में बताइए कि कौन-सा कोण बड़ा है और क्यों?

a. ∠AOB या ∠XOY

b. ∠AOB या ∠XOB

c. ∠XOB या ∠XOC

अपने मित्रों से चर्चा कीजिए कि आपने यह निर्णय कैसे लिया कि कौन-सा कोण बड़ा है।

उत्तर: a. (∠AOB > ∠XOY), क्योंकि ∠XOY, ∠AOB के भीतर आता है। इसका अर्थ है कि ∠XOY, ∠AOB का एक भाग है।

b. (∠AOB > ∠XOB), क्योंकि ∠XOB, ∠AOB के भीतर आता है। इसका अर्थ है कि ∠XOB, ∠AOB का एक भाग है।

c. (∠XOB = ∠XOC), क्योंकि दोनों कोण एक ही किरणों द्वारा बनाए गए हैं।

3. कौन-सा कोण बड़ा है- ∠XOY या ∠AOB? कारण बताइए।

उत्तर: क्योंकि ∠AOB, ∠XOY के भीतर आता है।

∠AOB, O से शुरू होकर A और B के बीच बना है,

जबकि ∠XOY अधिक फैला हुआ है — X से Y तक का कोण है,

जो पूरे ∠AOB को समाहित करता है और उससे अधिक है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 29,30,31)

1. आपकी कक्षा की खिड़कियों में कितने समकोण हैं? क्या अपनी कक्षा में आप और समकोण देख सकते हैं?

उत्तर:

एक खिड़की में 4 समकोण (Right Angles) होते हैं।

ये हैं: ∠1, ∠2, ∠3 और ∠4 — अर्थात चारों कोनों पर।

हाँ, समकोण हमें और भी स्थानों पर देखने को मिलते हैं — जैसे:

  • दरवाज़े के कोनों पर
  • ब्लैकबोर्ड के कोनों पर
  • टेबल, किताब, टाइल्स आदि में भी।

2. बिंदु A को ग्रिड के दूसरे बिंदुओं से एक सरल रेखा में इस प्रकार जोड़ें कि एक सरल कोण प्राप्त हो। इसे करने के विभिन्न तरीके क्या हो सकते हैं?

उत्तर:

3. अब बिंदु A को ग्रिड के दूसरे बिंदुओं से एक सरल रेखा में इस प्रकार जोड़ें कि एक समकोण प्राप्त हो। इसे करने के विभिन्न तरीके क्या हो सकते हैं?

उत्तर:

4. कागज को घुमाकर तिरछा निशान बनाइए। अब एक अन्य निशान बनाइए जो पिछले तिरछे निशान पर लंब हो।
a. अब आपके पास कितने समकोण हैं? तर्क संगत उत्तर दीजिए कि ये कोण पूर्णतया समकोण क्यों हैं?
b. वर्णन कीजिए कि आपने इसे कैसे मोड़ा ताकि जो व्यक्ति इस प्रक्रिया को करना नहीं जानता वह आपकी प्रक्रिया का अनुसरण करके समकोण बना सके।

उत्तर:

(a) हम चार समकोण ROP, POS, QOS और QOR प्राप्त करते हैं। ये सभी कोण बराबर हैं।
(b) हम कागज को इस प्रकार मोड़ते हैं कि तिरछे मोड़ के निशान का बिंदु P बिंदु Q पर पड़े (गिरे)।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 31,32)

1. पिछली आकृतियों में न्यून कोण, समकोण, अधिक कोण और सरल कोण को पहचानिए।

उत्तर:

2. कुछ न्यून कोण और अधिक कोण भिन्न दशाओं में बनाइए।

उत्तर:

3. क्या आप जानते हैं कि न्यून और अधिक शब्दों का क्या अर्थ है? न्यून का अर्थ नुकीला और अधिक का अर्थ कुंद होता है। आपको क्या लगता है कि इन शब्दों का चयन क्यों किया गया होगा?

उत्तर: “न्यून” का अर्थ है नुकीला, क्योंकि न्यून कोण तेज और छोटा होता है।

“अधिक” का अर्थ है कुंद, क्योंकि अधिक कोण फैला हुआ और चौड़ा होता है।

इन शब्दों का चयन इसलिए किया गया क्योंकि वे उनके आकार और धार को दर्शाते हैं।

4. ज्ञात कीजिए कि नीचे दी गई आकृतियों में कितने न्यून कोण हैं-

अगली आकृति क्या होगी और उसमें कितने न्यून कोण होंगे? क्या आप संख्याओं में कोई पैटर्न देखते हैं?

उत्तर: a. 3 न्यून कोण

b. 12 न्यून कोण

c. 21 न्यून कोण

(Page 33)

प्रश्न. एक सरल कोण का डिग्री माप क्या होगा? एक सरल कोण, पूर्ण घुमाव का आधा होता है। क्योंकि पूर्ण घुमाव 360° है तथा पूर्ण घुमाव का आधा 180° होता है। एक समकोण का डिग्री माप क्या होगा? दो समकोण मिलकर एक सरल कोण बनाते हैं। चूँकि एक सरल कोण का माप 180° होता है, तो एक समकोण का माप 90° होगा।

उत्तर: सरल कोण का माप डिग्री में 180° होता है और समकोण का माप डिग्री में 90° होता है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 35)

1. निम्नलिखित कोणों के माप लिखिए
a. ∠KAL
ध्यान दीजिए कि इस कोण का शीर्ष बिंदु कोणमापक के केंद्रबिंदु पर संपाती है। अतः KA एवं AL के बीच 1° कोणों की इकाइयों की
संख्या से कोण KAL की माप पता चलती है। गिनने पर, हम पाते हैं-
∠KAL = 30°
क्या मध्यम आकार के चिह्नों एवं बड़े आकार के चिह्नों का उपयोग करते हुए 5 या 10 में इकाईयों की संख्या गिनना संभव है?
b. ∠WAL
c. ∠TAK

उत्तर: (a) ∠KAL = 30°
(b) ∠WAL = 50°
(c) ∠TAK = 120°

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 40 से 43 तक)

1. चाँदे का प्रयोग करते हुए निम्न कोणों के डिग्री माप ज्ञात कीजिए?

उत्तर: (a) ∠IHJ = 47°
(b) ∠IHJ = 24°
(c) ∠IHJ =110°

2. चाँदे का प्रयोग करते हुए अपनी कक्षा में दिख रहे विभिन्न कोणों के डिग्री माप ज्ञात कीजिए।

उत्तर: ब्लैकबोर्ड के कोने का कोण = 90°
डेस्क (मेज) के कोने का कोण = 90°

3. नीचे दिए गए कोणों के अंश माप ज्ञात कीजिए। जाँच कीजिए की क्या यहाँ कागज के चाँद का प्रयोग कर सकते हैं।

उत्तर: (a) ∠IHJ = 42°
(b) ∠IHJ =116°

यहाँ पर कागज़ का प्रोट्रैक्टर (चाँद) उपयोग नहीं किया जा सकता है।

4. नीचे दिए गए कोण का अंश माप चाँद का प्रयोग करके किस प्रकार निकाला जा सकता है?

उत्तर: हम चाँदे (प्रोट्रैक्टर) की सहायता से पहले छोटे कोण का माप करेंगे।
इसके बाद, वांछित बड़े कोण की माप जानने के लिए उस छोटे कोण के माप को 360° में से घटा देंगे।
यदि छोटे कोण का माप 100° है, तो बड़े कोण का माप होगा:
360° – 100° = 260°

5. निम्न कोणों को मापिए और प्रत्येक का डिग्री माप लिखिए।

उत्तर: a. कोण = 78°
b. कोण = 120°
(c) कोण = 60°
(d) कोण = 130°
(e) कोण = 130°
(f) कोण = 60°

6. ∠BXE, ∠CXE, ∠AXB और ∠BXC के अंश माप ज्ञात कीजिए।

उत्तर: ∠BXE = 115; ∠CXE = 85°; ∠AXB = 65° और ∠BXC = 95° – 65° = 30° है।

7. ∠PQR, ∠PQS और ∠PQT के अंश माप ज्ञात कीजिए।

∠PQR = 45°; ∠PQS = 105° और ∠PQT = 152° है।

9. आकृति 2.21 (a) में बने त्रिभज के तीनों कोणों को मापिए और संबंधित कोण के नीचे उसका माप लिखिए। तीनों मापों को जोड़िए। क्या प्राप्त होता है? इस प्रकिया का आकृति 2.21 (b) और (c) के लिए भी प्रयोग कीजिए। अन्य त्रिभुजों पर भी इस प्रकिया का प्रयोग कीजिए। फिर सामान्य तौर पर क्या होता है इसका अनुमान लगाइए। हम आगे की कक्षाओं में जानेंगे कि ऐसा क्यों हुआ।

उत्तर: आकृति (a) में, ∠A = 45°; ∠B = 65° और ∠C = 70° है।
आकृति (b) में, ∠A = 50°; ∠B = 65° और ∠C = 65° है।
आकृति (c) में, ∠A = 30°; ∠B = 55° और ∠C = 95° है।
अनुमान इन त्रिभुजों में से प्रत्येक में तीनों कोणों का योग 180° है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 45, 46)

कोण कहाँ हैं?
1. घड़ी में कोण-
a. घड़ी की सूईयाँ अलग-अलग समय पर भिन्न कोण बनाती हैं। 1 बजे सूईयों के बीच 30° का कोण होता है। क्यों?
b. 2 बजे कोण कितना होगा? और 4 बजे? 6 बजे?
c. घड़ी की सूईयों द्वारा बने अन्य कोणों को ढूँढिए।

उत्तर: a. क्योंकि घड़ी का पूरा गोल चक्र 360° होता है
और उसमें 12 घंटे होते हैं।
इसलिए हर घंटे के बीच का कोण =
360° ÷ 12 = 30°

इसलिए 1 बजे, घंटे और मिनट की सुईयों के बीच का कोण = 30°

b. अन्य समयों पर कोण:
2 बजे = 2 × 30° = 60°
4 बजे = 4 × 30° = 120°
6 बजे = 6 × 30° = 180° (यह सरल कोण है)

c.

2. एक दरवाजे का कोण-
क्या ऐसा संभव है कि कोण का प्रयोग कर यह बताया जा सके कि दरवाजा कितना खुला है?
कोण का शीर्ष और कोण की भुजाएँ क्या होंगी?

उत्तर: हाँ, दरवाज़े के खुलने की स्थिति को कोण के माध्यम से बताया जा सकता है।
जब दरवाज़ा खुलता है, तो वह दीवार से एक कोण बनाता है। जितना ज़्यादा दरवाज़ा खुलेगा, उतना ही बड़ा कोण बनेगा।

3. विद्या झूले पर अपना समय आनंद से बिता रही है। उसने ध्यान दिया कि जब उसने झूलना शुरू किया तो जितना बड़ा कोण है, उतनी ही अधिक गति वह झूले पर अर्जित कर रही है। लेकिन यहाँ कोण है कहाँ? क्या आप यहाँ पर किसी कोण को देख सकते हैं?

उत्तर: जैसा कि आकृति में दर्शाया गया है, कोण पेड़ की शाखा तथा विद्या द्वारा थामी (पकड़ी) डोरी या रस्सी द्वारा बन रहा है।

4. यहाँ एक खिलौने के दोनों ओर तिरछे तख्ते (slanting slab) लगे हैं, जितना अधिक कोण या तख्ते का झुकाव होगा उतनी ही तेजी से गेंद लुढ़कती है। क्या कोणों का प्रयोग तख्तों के झुकाव के वर्णन में किया जा सकता है? प्रत्येक कोण की भुजाएँ क्या होंगी? कौन-सी भुजा दिखाई देगी और कौन-सी नहीं?

उत्तर: हाँ। इन कोणों में से प्रत्येक में एक भुजा खिलौने का ऊर्ध्वाधर किनारा होगा तथा दूसरी भुजा तिरछा तख्ता होगा। तिरछा तख्ता दिखाई देगा, जबकि खिलौने का ऊर्ध्वाधर किनारा दिखाई नहीं देगा।

5. नीचे दिए गए चित्रों का अवलोकन कीजिए जिनमें एक कीट एवं उसकी घुमायी गई स्थितयाँ दी गई हैं। क्या घूर्णन (घुमाव ) की मात्रा बताने के लिए कोणों का उपयोग किया जा सकता है? यदि हाँ, तो कैसे? कोण का शीर्ष-बिंदु एवं उसकी भुजाएँ कौन-सी होंगी? [संकेत-कीट को छूकर जाती हुई क्षैतिज रेखा को देखिए।]

उत्तर: हाँ, दी हुई प्रत्येक आकृति में एक-चौथाई घूर्णन एक समकोण के बराबर घूर्णन को बताता है। दोनों आकृतियों में क्षैतिज और ऊर्ध्वाधर रेखाएँ कोण की भुजाएँ हैं। साथ ही, प्रत्येक कीट का आधार इस कोण का शीर्ष-बिंदु है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 49, 50)

1. आकृति 2.23 में दर्शाए सभी संभव कोणों की सूची बनाइए। क्या आप उन सभी को ढूँढ़ पाए? अब सभी कोणों के माप का अनुमान लगाइए। इसके पश्चात् चाँदे की सहायता से कोणों का माप देखिए। अपनी सभी संख्याओं (डिग्री माप) को एक सारणी में अंकित कीजिए। देखिए आपके अनुमानित उत्तर सही माप के कितने समीप हैं।

उत्तर: कोणों की सूची (List of Angles):

∠PAC
∠APD
∠DPS
∠LPR
∠PLS
∠ARP
∠PRS
∠RSL
∠ALC

डिग्री में अनुमानित माप:

∠PAC: 120°
∠APD: 90°
∠DPS: 120°
∠LPR: 60°
∠PLS: 90°
∠ARP: 30°
∠PRS: 150°
∠RSL: 90°
∠ALC: 120°

2. चाँदे की सहायता से निम्न डिग्री माप के कोण बनाइए-

(a)110°, (b) 40°, (c) 75°, (d)112°, (e) 134°

उत्तर:

3. एक कोण बनाइए जिसका डिग्री माप नीचे दिए गए कोण के समान हो।

इस कोण को बनाने में प्रयुक्त सभी चरणों को भी लिखिए।

उत्तर: चरण 1: दिए गए कोण को मापिए (∠IHJ = 120°)
चरण 2: प्रोटेक्टर का उपयोग करके ∠ABC = 120° कोण बनाइए।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 51, 52)

1. नीचे दिए गए प्रत्येक ग्रिड में, बिंदु A को ग्रिड के दूसरे बिंदुओं से एक सरल रेखा से इस प्रकार मिलान कीजिए कि हमें:

(a) एक न्यून कोण प्राप्त हो।

उत्तर:

(b) एक अधिक कोण प्राप्त हो।

उत्तर:

(c) एक प्रतिवर्ती कोण प्राप्त हो।

उत्तर:

2. चाँदे की सहायता से प्रत्येक कोण का माप निकालिए। प्रत्येक कोण को न्यून कोण, अधिक कोण, समकोण या प्रतिवर्ती कोण में वर्गीकृत कीजिए।

(a) ∠PTR, (b) ∠PTQ, (c) ∠PTW, (d) ∠WTP

उत्तर: (a) ∠PTR = 30°; न्यून कोण है।
(b) ∠PTQ = 60°; न्यून कोण है।
(c) ∠PTW = 100°; अधिक कोण है।
(d) ∠WTP = 260°; प्रतिवर्ती कोण है।

आइए, पता लगाएँ (Page 53, 54)

1. निम्न अंश माप वाले कोणों को बनाइए-

(a) 140°, (b) 82°, (c) 195°, (d) 70°, (e) 35°

उत्तर:

2. प्रत्येक कोण के माप का अनुमान लगाइए और फिर चाँदे से मापिए-

इन कोणों को न्यून कोण, अधिक कोण, समकोण और प्रतिवर्ती कोणों में वर्गीकृत कीजिए।

उत्तर: (a) 45°; न्यून कोण है।
(b) 170°; अधिक कोण है।
(c) 120°; अधिक कोण है।
(d) 30°; न्यून कोण है।
(e) 100° अधिक कोण है।
(f) 350°; प्रतिवर्ती कोण है।

3. एक आकृति बनाइए जिसमें तीन न्यून कोण, एक समकोण और दो अधिक कोण हों।

उत्तर:

कोण 1, 2 और 3 तीव्र कोण हैं, कोण 4 समकोण है, और कोण 5 तथा 6 स्थूल कोण हैं।

4. अक्षर M को इस प्रकार बनाइए कि दोनों ओर के कोण 40° के हों और मध्य में कोण 60° का हो।

उत्तर:

∠1 = 30°, ∠2 = 30°, ∠3 = 60°

5. अक्षर Y को इस प्रकार बनाइए कि 150, 60° और 150° के तीन कोण बनें।

उत्तर:

6. अशोक चक्र में 24 तीलियाँ होती हैं। दो संलग्न तीलियों के बीच कितने अंश माप का कोण होगा? दो तीलियों के बीच सबसे बड़ा न्यून कोण क्या होगा?

उत्तर:

दो लगातार तीलियों के बीच का कोण = 360 ÷ 24 = 15°
सबसे बड़ा तीव्र कोण = 5 × 15° = 75°

1.Natural Resources and Their Use – Long Question answer

Q1: What is a resource? What are the criteria for any substance to become a resource?
Ans: All those substances which have some utility or usability are resources for us.

The different criteria required for anything to be resource for us are:

  • Utility or usability
  • Economic value or any other value
  • Time and technology inherent, which can make the substance important for present or future requirements  of the people. For example, Discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking, Invention of wheel ultimately resulted in the development of newer modes of transport etc.

Q2: Describe the different types of Natural resources.

Ans: Natural resources are categorised in two types – 

  • Renewable Resources– Resources which do not depend on human consumption are called renewable resources. These resources get renewed with the use of humans. But there are some kinds of renewable resources that are affected by human consumption such as water, soil and forest.
  • Non-renewable Resources- Resources whose stock are limited are called as non-renewable resources. These resources decrease with human consumption. These resources take thousands of years to renew. Examples of such kinds of resources are coal and Petroleum.

Q3: As human beings, how can we ensure sustainable development?

Ans: We can ensure sustainable development by ensuring that:

  • The usage of renewable resources is sustainable,
  • The diversity of life on earth is maintained,
  • The damage caused to nature by our activities is as low as possible.

Q4: Explain the concept of natural resources, including the conditions required for an element of nature to become a resource. Provide examples from the chapter and discuss how human actions can affect their availability.

Answer

  • Natural resources are materials and substances from nature that are valuable to humans, such as water, air, soil, coal, and timber. 
  • For an element to become a resource, it must be technologically accessible (e.g., extracting petroleum from under the ocean), economically feasible (cost-effective to extract), and culturally acceptable (not violating sacred sites like groves). 
  • Examples include trees becoming timber for furniture or flowing water generating hydroelectricity. 
  • Human actions like overexploitation (e.g., deforestation faster than regeneration) or pollution from industries can disrupt natural cycles, leading to depletion, as seen in melting glaciers due to industrialization and deforestation affecting water security.

Q5: Explain the terms resource conservation and sustainable development.

Ans: Resource conservation is the concept of using resources carefully so that they do not end up quickly. The future generations also need the resources, but if we keep using them at a fast pace, they may end up, thus posing problems for the future. We should use resources in such a balanced way that we satisfy our needs as well as conserve them for future. This concept is called sustainable development.

Q6: What is sustainable development? Mention some of its principles.

Ans: Sustainable development is a utilising resource in such a way that we not only think of meeting our own requirements of the present but also we are aware of their conservation for our future generations.

Some principles of sustainable development:

  • Respect and care for all forms of life.
  • Improve the quality of human life.
  • Conserve the earth’s vitality and diversity.
  • Minimise the depletion of natural resources.
  • Change personal attitude and practices towards the environment.
  • Enable communities to care for their own environment.

Q7: Mention our duty to maintain and preserve the life support system that nature provides us.

Ans: The future of our planet and its people is linked with our ability to maintain and preserve the life support system that nature provides. Therefore, it is our duty to ensure that.

  • all uses of renewable resources are sustainable
  • the diversity of life on the earth is conserved
  • the damage to natural environmental system is minimised.

Q8: What is the significance of time and technology in making a substance a resource?

Ans: Time and technology are two important factors that can change substances into resources. Each discovery or invention leads to many others. The discovery of fire led to the practice of cooking and other processes while the invention of the wheel ultimately resulted in development of newer modes of transport. The technology to create hydroelectricity has turned energy in fast flowing water into an important resource.

Q9. Discuss the uneven distribution of natural resources and its implications on human settlements, trade, conflicts, and the ‘natural resource curse’. Use examples from India and suggest ways to overcome these challenges.

Ans

  • Natural resources are unevenly distributed, shaping settlements (e.g., industries near coal in Jharia create jobs and towns), trade (e.g., Wootz steel from Indian resources fueled empires), and conflicts (e.g., Kaveri River water sharing among Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Kerala, Puducherry). 
  • Internationally, wars occur over resources like the Brahmaputra. The ‘natural resource curse’ occurs when resource-rich areas experience slow growth due to reliance on raw exports without value-added industries. 
  • In India, this is avoided by developing processing industries. To overcome, invest in technology, skills, and governance for sustainable extraction, fair sharing agreements, and diversification beyond raw resources.

Q10. Elaborate on the responsible stewardship of natural resources, including strategies for restoration of renewables and judicious use of non-renewables. Include case studies from the chapter like Punjab, Sikkim, and the International Solar Alliance.

Answer

  • Stewardship involves using resources wisely for regeneration of renewables (e.g., replenishing groundwater through rainwater harvesting, traditional practices like mulching for soil health) and stretching non-renewables (e.g., transitioning to solar from coal). 
  • In Punjab, overexploitation during the Green Revolution led to depleted aquifers and chemical pollution; solutions include crop diversification and recharge initiatives. 
  • Sikkim’s 2016 shift to 100% organic farming restored biodiversity, boosted incomes, and used natural pest repellents. The International Solar Alliance (launched 2015 by India and France) promotes solar in sunny countries, exemplified by Bhadla Solar Park in Rajasthan, reflecting India’s sustainable energy leadership.

Q11. Analyze the role of traditional knowledge and cultural practices in sustainable resource use, with references to Vṛkṣāyurveda, ecosystem services, and concepts from Indian texts like the Bhagavad Gita.

Answer

  • Traditional knowledge views nature as sacred (e.g., Tulasi puja for wellbeing, arghyam to the sun), promoting mindful use. Vṛkṣāyurveda, an ancient science, recommends soil-specific planting, natural pest management, crop rotation, and moisture-retaining ploughing for sustainable agriculture. 
  • Ecosystem services, like trees producing 275 liters of oxygen daily or forests filtering water, benefit humans. The Bhagavad Gita’s lokasangraha urges acting for collective wellbeing, transcending greed. 
  • These practices counter modern issues like cement pollution (addressed by eco-materials) and overfishing (traditional spawning bans), ensuring restoration, regeneration, and equitable access to resources like clean air and water.

1️⃣ Natural Resources and Their Use – Short Answer Questions

Q1: What is a Resource? Give two examples.
Ans: Everything available in our environment that can be used to satisfy our needs, provided it is technologically accessible, economically feasible, and culturally acceptable, can be termed a resource. Examples include coal, water, air, minerals, etc.

Q2: What are renewable resources? Give two examples.
Ans: Renewable resources are those that can be renewed or replenished naturally through physical, chemical, or mechanical processes. Examples include solar energy, wind energy, water, forests, and wildlife. Renewable resources may be further classified as continuous or flow resources.

Q3: Explain the relationship between nature, technology and institutions.
Ans: 
Nature provides resources that are transformed into usable forms with the help of technology. Humans interact with nature using technology and create institutions to organise this interaction and accelerate economic development.

Q4: What are ecosystem services? Give two examples mentioned in the chapter.
Ans:
 Ecosystem services are natural processes that benefit humans by supporting life and economic activities. For example, forests filter water, ensuring clean drinking water, and trees produce around 275 litres of oxygen daily, essential for human survival. Other services include pollination and soil retention, which sustain agriculture and ecosystems. Forests also prevent soil erosion, thereby protecting farmland.

Q5: Name one cultural practice in India that promotes mindful use of natural resources and explain its significance.
Ans:
 Tulasi puja, a practice honouring the sacred tulsi plant, promotes mindful use of natural resources by fostering reverence for nature. This ritual encourages communities to value plants and avoid wasteful exploitation. It reflects traditional wisdom that views nature as a nurturer and supports sustainable practices, helping maintain ecological balance and conserve resources.

Q6: What is the ‘natural resource curse,’ and how has India attempted to avoid it?
Ans:
 The natural resource curse is when resource-rich regions experience slow economic growth due to excessive dependence on raw material exports. India has countered this by investing in industries that process resources, such as steel production from iron ore, adding value and creating jobs. This approach reduces reliance on raw exports and promotes development. Strategic planning and good governance further support this effort.

Q7: ‘India has enormous diversity in the availability of resources.’ Explain.
Or
“India is rich in certain types of resources but deficient in some other resources.” Support your answer with examples.
Ans: 
(i) The states of Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, and Madhya Pradesh are rich in mineral resources but lack industrialisation.
(ii) Arunachal Pradesh has abundant water resources but lacks infrastructural development. Rajasthan is well endowed with solar and wind energy, but suffers from water scarcity. The cold desert area of Ladakh is relatively isolated due to poor means of transportation and communication.
(iii) Most North-Eastern states have rich natural vegetation but lack fertile soil.

Q8: ‘The availability of resources is the only condition for the development of any region’. What is your opinion on the statement?
Or
Mention any three necessary conditions for the development of resources.
Ans: 
(i) Resources contribute to development only when supported by appropriate technological advancement and institutional changes.
(ii) Skilled human resources are needed to convert natural resources into more usable forms.
(iii) Capital investment is required to develop technology and infrastructure for resource utilisation.

Q9: How does the overexploitation of groundwater in Punjab affect sustainability?
Ans:
 Overexploitation of groundwater in Punjab, mainly due to irrigation for high-yielding crops since the 1960s, has led to a decline of groundwater levels to depths of around 30 metres, threatening water security. This unsustainable practice is worsened by free electricity for farmers, causing increased water usage. It has led to health issues from chemical runoff and endangers long-term agricultural sustainability. Restoration methods like rainwater harvesting are now critical for sustainability.

Q10: What is one recommendation fromVr̥kṣāyurvedafor sustainable agriculture?
Ans:
 Vṛkṣāyurveda recommends crop rotation to maintain soil health by preventing nutrient depletion and supporting soil organisms like earthworms. This practice ensures long-term soil fertility and reduces dependence on chemical fertilisers. It promotes sustainable agriculture by mimicking natural cycles, aligning well with modern organic farming methods.

7️⃣ Factors of Production – HOTS

Q1. Which of the following best explains why land is considered a factor of production?
(a) It only refers to soil used in farming
(b) It includes all natural resources that support production
(c) It is important only for agricultural activities
(d) It represents only geographical space

Ans: (b) It includes all natural resources that support production
The land is not just soil but all natural resources like forests, water, and minerals used in production, making it a key factor across industries.

Q2. A farmer buys a tractor to increase output. In terms of factors of production, this tractor is an example of:
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Labour
(d) Entrepreneurship

Ans: (b) Capital
The capital is a durable asset, like machinery and tools, such as a tractor, that is used to enhance production.

Q3. Which of the following situations highlights the role of human capital?
(a) A fertile piece of land lying unused
(b) A machine kept in a warehouse without operators
(c) A skilled worker using knowledge to improve productivity
(d) A bank providing money for investment

Ans: (c) A skilled worker using knowledge to improve productivity
Human capital is skills and knowledge that enhance labour’s effectiveness, exemplified by a skilled worker improving productivity.

Q4. An entrepreneur sets up a new solar energy company. Which factor of production is he most directly contributing to?
(a) Land
(b) Capital
(c) Organisation and risk-taking
(d) Labour

Ans: (c) Organisation and risk-taking
Entrepreneurship is organising resources and taking risks to start a business, as seen in setting up a solar energy company.

Q5. Which of these reflects a business ignoring its responsibility towards factors of production?
(a) Ensuring fair wages for workers
(b) Polluting rivers to cut costs
(c) Training employees for new technology
(d) Using renewable energy in factories

Ans: (b) Polluting rivers to cut costs
The businesses’ responsibility to protect natural resources, noting that polluting rivers, like leather factories in Tamil Nadu, harms the environment.

Q6. Why do economists say that factors of production are interdependent? Use an example to justify your answer.
Ans: Factors of production work together, each relying on the others to create goods effectively. A mobile phone factory in India (2025’s second-largest globally) requires minerals from land for components, skilled labour for assembly, capital for advanced machinery, and entrepreneurship to innovate and manage operations. If any factor, like labour or capital, is missing, production halts, showing their interdependence, as disruptions during COVID-19 highlighted when supply chain issues stopped manufacturing.

Q7. Compare the role of physical labour and human capital in today’s knowledge-based economy. Which do you think is more important, and why?
Ans: Human capital drives innovation, surpassing physical labour in a knowledge-based economy.  

  • Physical Labour: Essential for labour-intensive tasks like construction or farming, but less impactful in tech-driven industries requiring specialised skills, as seen in India’s young workforce.  
  • Human Capital: Involves skills and knowledge, like engineers designing mobile phones or using SWAYAM courses, fueling innovation and efficiency in modern economies like India’s tech sector.  
  • More Important: Human capital is more critical, as skills drive technological advancements, economic growth, and global competitiveness, leveraging India’s 65% youth population for a demographic dividend.

Q8. If technology replaces certain kinds of labour, does that mean workers are no longer important in production? Discuss with reasons.
Ans: Technology reduces some labour needs, but workers remain vital for production.  

  • Replacement: Technologies like drones for farming or robots in surgery reduce manual labour, increasing efficiency in repetitive tasks.  
  • Worker Importance: Workers provide human capital, like engineers managing robots or scientists innovating, essential for creativity, supervision, and adapting technologies to new challenges.  
  • Reason: Human effort is crucial at every stage, from designing to improving products, ensuring workers remain indispensable despite automation, as seen in India’s mobile phone industry.

Q9. Analyse how entrepreneurship acts as the driving force among all factors of production. Give a real-life example to support your answer.
Ans: Entrepreneurship orchestrates resources to innovate and solve problems effectively.  

  • Role: Entrepreneurs combine land, labour, and capital, take risks, and make strategic decisions, as seen in J.R.D. Tata founded Tata Airlines (now Air India) in 1932, securing resources and creating jobs.  
  • Driving Force: They identify market needs, innovate products, and ensure efficient resource use, benefiting society through economic growth and job creation, as Tata did for India’s industries.  
  • Example: Tata’s vision expanded steel, cars, and power, improving worker conditions and serving society, embodying entrepreneurship’s role in coordinating production factors.

Q10. Suppose a business only focuses on profit and ignores fair treatment of workers. What long-term consequences might arise?
Ans: Prioritising profits over worker welfare leads to significant long-term challenges.  

  • Low Productivity: Unfair wages and poor conditions demotivate workers, reducing output and quality, and fair pay’s role in productivity.  
  • High Turnover: Workers may leave, increasing hiring and training costs, disrupting production continuity, and affecting business efficiency over time.  
  • Reputation Damage: Ignoring CSR harms the brand, reducing customer trust and market share, as society values businesses that respect workers and communities.

Q11. Evaluate how India’s tradition of valuing “work as worship” can shape modern attitudes towards labour and productivity.
Ans: India’s “work as worship” tradition fosters a culture of dedication and excellence.  

  • Positive Attitudes: Viewing work as sacred, as in the Shilpa Shastras, encourages commitment and quality, boosting productivity in modern industries like mobile phone manufacturing.  
  • Skill Development: It promotes continuous learning, like ancient artisans mastering techniques, aligning with modern needs for training via platforms like SWAYAM for India’s youth.  
  • Social Impact: It fosters respect for all labour, enhancing workplace harmony and supporting India’s 65% young workforce to drive economic growth with a strong work ethic.

Q12. How does the use of natural resources in production create both opportunities and responsibilities for businesses?
Ans: Natural resources fuel production but require responsible management to avoid harm.  

  • Opportunities: Resources like minerals enable industries, such as India’s mobile phone sector, to drive economic growth and job creation through efficient resource use.  
  • Responsibilities: Overuse, like river pollution by Tamil Nadu’s leather factories, harms ecosystems, requiring businesses to adopt sustainable practices like wastewater recycling to protect nature and communities.  
  • Balance: CSR ensures resources meet current needs without compromising future generations, promoting sustainable growth while maintaining societal and environmental well-being.

Q13. Imagine you are asked to design a factory where all four factors of production are used efficiently. What would be your plan?
Ans: An efficient factory optimises all production factors for sustainability and productivity.  

  • Land: Use sustainable resources like solar energy to power operations, minimising environmental impact, as seen in modern eco-friendly production models.  
  • Labour: Train workers via programs like SWAYAM to master advanced skills, ensuring high productivity and adaptability to new technologies in the factory.  
  • Capital: Invest in cutting-edge machinery, like robots for precision manufacturing, to boost efficiency and reduce waste.  
  • Entrepreneurship: Innovate products and streamline processes, inspired by J.R.D. Tata’s vision, to stay competitive and meet market demands effectively.

Q14. Many people argue that innovation and knowledge will be more valuable than land or machinery in the future. Do you agree? Why or why not?
Ans: Innovation and knowledge are increasingly critical, but complement land and machinery.  

  • Agree: Human capital, through platforms like SWAYAM, drives technological advancements, like India’s mobile phone industry, outpacing static resources in a knowledge-based economy.  
  • Reason: Knowledge fuels innovation, enabling efficient resource use and global competitiveness, while land and machinery rely on skilled application to remain relevant.  
  • Counterpoint: Land and machinery are vital for physical production, like mineral extraction or factory operations, but their value depends on innovative use by skilled workers.

Q15. If you had to choose one factor of production to invest in for India’s future growth, which would you pick and why?
Ans: Human capital is the most critical investment for India’s future economic growth.  

  • Choice: Human capital leverages India’s young population (65% under 35), driving innovation and productivity through education and training, as seen in the mobile phone industry.  
  • Why: Skilled workers, via platforms like NCS and SWAYAM, ensure competitiveness, create jobs, and support a demographic dividend, boosting industries and living standards.  
  • Impact: Investing in skills addresses literacy gaps (85% male, 70% female) and prepares India for a tech-driven future, maximising economic potential across sectors.

6️⃣ The Parliamentary System: Legislature and Executive – HOTS

Q1. The Rajya Sabha was created to represent the states in Parliament. Which of the following best explains why this is important in India’s federal system?
(a) It allows the President to control state governments
(b) It ensures that states’ interests are considered in national lawmaking
(c) It reduces the power of the Lok Sabha
(d) It avoids conflicts between the Prime Minister and Chief Ministers

Ans: (b) It ensures that states’ interests are considered in national lawmaking
The Rajya Sabha represents states in India’s federal system, ensuring state interests are balanced with national priorities in lawmaking, supporting federalism.

Q2. Suppose the Parliament wants to pass a law on public health. Which list in the Constitution gives it the power?
(a) Union List
(b) State List
(c) Concurrent List
(d) Presidential List

Ans: (c) Concurrent List
Public health is on the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and state legislatures to make laws, with Union law prevailing in case of conflict.

Q3. Why are Money Bills allowed to be introduced only in the Lok Sabha?
(a) Because the Lok Sabha represents the people directly
(b) Because the Rajya Sabha has fewer members
(c) Because the Prime Minister sits only in the Lok Sabha
(d) Because the President does not approve Rajya Sabha bills

Ans: (a) Because the Lok Sabha represents the people directly
Money Bills, dealing with taxation and spending, are introduced only in the Lok Sabha, reflecting its direct representation of the people.

Q4. The Right to Education Act (2009) went through several stages before becoming law. What does this process show about Parliament?
(a) Laws are passed quickly in India
(b) Laws must balance discussion, consensus, and accountability
(c) The Rajya Sabha is more powerful than the Lok Sabha
(d) The President alone can create laws

Ans: (b) Laws must balance discussion, consensus, and accountability
The RTE Act’s legislative process, involving discussions, committee reviews, and votes, shows Parliament’s commitment to thorough, accountable lawmaking.

Q5. A state government wants to make its law on forests, but Parliament has already passed a law on the same subject. What will happen?
(a) The state law will always prevail
(b) The central law will always prevail
(c) Both laws will be applied equally
(d) The President will decide which law applies

Ans: (b) The central law will always prevail
For Concurrent List subjects like forests, if a conflict arises, the Union law prevails over the state law.

Q6. Why do you think the makers of the Constitution chose a bicameral system for India instead of a single house?
Ans: A bicameral system was chosen to balance India’s diverse national and state interests effectively.  

  • Federal Representation: The Rajya Sabha ensures states’ voices in national lawmaking, supporting federalism by representing state-specific concerns in Parliament.  
  • Balanced Lawmaking: Two houses allow thorough review of bills, preventing hasty decisions, as seen in the RTE Act’s process, drawing from global models like Britain.  
  • Diversity Management: India’s vast linguistic, cultural, and regional diversity required dual representation to address varied needs, unlike a single house that might overlook state concerns.

Q7. Parliament is often called the “heart of democracy.” Analyse this statement with reference to its legislative, executive, and financial functions.
Ans: Parliament’s multifaceted roles make it central to India’s democratic system.  

  • Legislative Function: It creates laws like the RTE Act through rigorous debate and consensus, ensuring rules reflect public needs across India’s diverse population.  
  • Executive Accountability: Through Question Hour and committees, it holds the Council of Ministers accountable, ensuring transparent governance and responsiveness to public issues.  
  • Financial Oversight: By approving budgets and scrutinizing spending, it ensures responsible use of public funds, reinforcing democratic fairness and equitable resource allocation.

Q8. If translation services were not provided in the Indian Parliament, how might it affect the working of democracy in a diverse country like India?
Ans: Lack of translation services would hinder inclusive participation in India’s diverse democracy.  

  • Language Barriers: MPs from non-Hindi/English regions (e.g., Tamil, Assamese) would struggle to participate, reducing representation of diverse linguistic groups in national lawmaking.  
  • Weakened Debates: Limited communication would stifle effective lawmaking discussions, undermining the quality of laws like the RTE Act, which required a broad consensus.  
  • Exclusion Risk: Marginalized linguistic communities would feel excluded, weakening democratic inclusivity and federalism, critical for India’s diverse governance structure.

Q9. Compare and evaluate the roles of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha in ensuring fairness during debates.
Ans: Both leaders maintain order, but their roles differ in scope and context.  

  • Speaker (Lok Sabha): Manages a larger, directly elected house, ensuring fair debates, discipline, and rule adherence, with authority to suspend disruptive MPs for orderly proceedings.  
  • Chairperson (Rajya Sabha): The Vice President oversees a smaller, state-representing house, maintaining fairness in debates on state issues, with less intense public pressure.  
  • Evaluation: The Speaker faces greater challenges due to the Lok Sabha’s size and direct accountability, but both ensure democratic fairness through impartial moderation.

Q10. Explain how the Question Hour helps strengthen executive accountability. Do you think disruptions in Question Hour weaken democracy? Why?
Ans: Question Hour ensures the executive answers the people’s representatives effectively.  

  • Accountability Mechanism: MPs question ministers on policies, ensuring transparency and responsiveness, as exemplified by Lal Bahadur Shastri’s accountability for railway issues in 1956.  
  • Disruptions’ Impact: Interruptions prevent scrutiny, delaying accountability and eroding public trust in governance, weakening democratic processes and effective policy oversight.  
  • Reason: Disruptions limit Parliament’s ability to address public concerns, reducing its role as the “heart of democracy” in holding the executive accountable.

Q11. The President usually acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Imagine a situation where the President refuses to follow this advice. What problems could arise?
Ans: Presidential refusal to follow ministerial advice could disrupt India’s democratic balance.  

  • Constitutional Crisis: Defying the Council could stall lawmaking (e.g., bill assent) or governance, creating political instability and confusion across government functions.  
  • Power Imbalance: It might undermine the elected government’s authority, weakening the Lok Sabha’s accountability to the people, central to parliamentary democracy principles.  
  • Public Trust: Such actions could erode confidence in institutions, escalating tensions, especially in hung Parliament scenarios where the President’s discretion is critical.

Q12. Using the Right to Education Act as an example, explain why the legislative process requires multiple discussions and reviews before passing a law.
Ans: Multiple reviews ensure laws are well-considered and effective, as seen with the RTE Act.  

  • Thorough Scrutiny: The RTE Act’s decade-long process involved debates and committee reviews to address funding and implementation, ensuring feasibility for millions of children.  
  • Consensus Building: Discussions reconciled diverse views, like state vs. Union roles, ensuring broad support for Article 21A’s mandate for free education.  
  • Accountability: Multiple stages, including Presidential assent, ensured the law was robust, benefiting millions with schools, books, and uniforms nationwide.

Q13. “Checks and balances stop any one part of government from becoming too powerful.” Apply this idea to the relationship between Parliament, the Executive, and the Judiciary.
Ans: Checks and balances maintain democratic equilibrium across India’s government branches.  

  • Parliament: Makes laws (e.g., RTE Act) but is checked by the Judiciary, which ensures constitutionality, maintaining legal integrity and fairness in lawmaking.  
  • Executive: Implements laws but is accountable to Parliament via Question Hour, ensuring transparency, while the President’s assent is required for bills.  
  • Judiciary: Reviews laws and executive actions, protecting Fundamental Rights, ensuring no branch oversteps, and maintaining fairness in India’s diverse democracy.

Q14. Some sessions of Parliament are criticised for heated arguments, walkouts, or a lack of serious debate. How does this affect the effectiveness of the legislature? Suggest ways to improve it.
Ans: Disruptions reduce Parliament’s effectiveness, hindering its democratic role.  

  • Impact: Walkouts and arguments delay lawmaking, disrupt Question Hour, and erode public trust, stalling critical policies like budgets and national development plans.  
  • Solutions: Enforce stricter rules for conduct, promote constructive dialogue via MP training, and use technology for virtual sessions to maintain productivity despite disruptions.  
  • Benefit: These measures would enhance lawmaking efficiency, ensure robust debates, and boost public confidence in Parliament’s role as a democratic institution.

Q15. Media and citizens play an important role in making Parliament effective. Imagine you are a young citizen. What three creative ways would you suggest to make people more engaged with Parliament’s work?
Ans: Engaging citizens creatively can strengthen Parliament’s democratic impact.  

  • Interactive Apps: Develop apps streaming live Parliament sessions with simplified explanations, encouraging youth participation and awareness of legislative processes.  
  • School Campaigns: Introduce Parliament-focused debates in schools, fostering understanding of lawmaking, like the RTE Act, among future voters to build civic responsibility.  
  • Social Media Challenges: Launch campaigns like “Know Your MP” to share MPs’ work, boosting public interest and accountability through accessible, engaging platforms.

5️⃣ Universal Franchise and India’s Electoral System – HOTS

Q1. Which of the following best explains why a universal adult franchise is important in a democracy?
(a) It allows only educated citizens to vote
(b) It ensures every citizen has an equal voice in governance
(c) It reduces the number of political parties
(d) It prevents elections from being expensive

Ans: (b) It ensures every citizen has an equal voice in governance
The universal adult franchise, as stipulated in Article 326, grants every citizen aged 18 and above one vote of equal value, regardless of caste, creed, or educational background, thereby promoting equality and strengthening democracy.

Q2. A 22-year-old citizen wants to contest the Lok Sabha elections. What will happen?
(a) He can contest, as he is above 18
(b) He cannot contest, as the minimum age is 25
(c) He can contest only from his home constituency
(d) He must be a graduate to contest

Ans: (b) He cannot contest, as the minimum age is 25
The constitutional rules require candidates for the Lok Sabha to be at least 25 years old, preventing a 22-year-old from contesting.

Q3. The “First-Past-the-Post” system in India often results in:
(a) Candidates winning without a majority of votes
(b) Every candidate needs 51% of the votes
(c) Parties are always forming coalition governments
(d) Voting is being conducted in multiple rounds

Ans: (a) Candidates winning without a majority of votes
The First-Past-the-Post system, the candidate with the most votes in a constituency wins, even if they don’t secure 50% of the votes, unlike systems requiring a majority.

Q4. The Election Commission enforces the Model Code of Conduct during elections to:
(a) Restrict the number of candidates contesting
(b) Ensure fair play and prevent misuse of power
(c) Select political parties for government formation
(d) Decide election results in case of disputes

Ans: (b) Ensure fair play and prevent misuse of power
The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) sets rules to prevent misuse of government resources and ensure fair elections, as seen in guidelines against announcing new schemes during elections.

Q5. Which of the following elections in India uses an indirect method of voting?
(a) Lok Sabha elections
(b) Rajya Sabha elections
(c) State Legislative Assembly elections
(d) Gram Panchayat elections

Ans: (b) Rajya Sabha elections
The Rajya Sabha members are elected indirectly by elected MLAs using the single transferable vote system, unlike the direct voting in Lok Sabha, state assemblies, and local elections.

Q6. Imagine you are a citizen of India in 1951, when the first general elections were held. What challenges do you think the Election Commission faced in conducting elections at that time?
Ans: The ECI faced significant logistical and social hurdles in 1951 due to India’s vast and diverse population.  

  • Vast Population and Illiteracy: Managing millions of voters, many illiterate, required creating voter lists and educating them on voting processes.  
  • Geographic Barriers: Reaching remote areas with limited infrastructure, like roads, was difficult in India’s diverse geography.  
  • Logistical Issues: Setting up polling stations across 543 constituencies with minimal technology posed a massive challenge for the newly formed ECI in 1951–52.

Q7. Analyse how the universal adult franchise strengthened India’s democracy, especially compared to societies where voting rights were restricted.
Ans: Universal adult franchise has been a cornerstone of India’s inclusive democracy.  

  • Equal Voice: Article 326 grants every citizen aged 18 and above an equal vote, promoting equality across caste, gender, and religion, unlike societies (e.g., pre-1971 Switzerland) where women or minorities were excluded.  
  • Inclusivity: It empowered marginalized groups, like the Scheduled Castes and Tribes, with reserved seats, ensuring their representation, unlike restrictive systems that favored elites.  
  • Strengthened Democracy: By allowing 980 million voters in 2024 to choose leaders, it fosters accountability, contrasting with restricted systems where power concentrates among a few.

Q8. Do you think the “First-Past-the-Post” system is always the best way to represent people’s choice? Suggest an alternative and justify your view.
Ans: The First-Past-the-Post system has limitations in reflecting diverse voter preferences.  

  • Critique: Candidates can win with less than 50% votes, potentially sidelining diverse preferences in India’s varied electorate.  
  • Alternative: Proportional representation allocates seats based on vote share, ensuring fairer representation of smaller parties and diverse groups.  
  • Justification: This aligns with India’s diversity, ensuring broader representation, emphasizing inclusivity through reserved seats.

Q9. Evaluate the role of the Election Commission in ensuring free and fair elections. Why is its independence crucial for democracy?
Ans: The ECI plays a pivotal role in maintaining democratic integrity through robust oversight.  

  • Role: The ECI enforces the Model Code of Conduct, implements accessibility measures like braille voter cards, and ensures fairness for 980 million voters.  
  • Independence: As an autonomous body since 1950, the ECI prevents government interference, as seen in T.N. Seshan’s reforms, like voter IDs, ensuring impartiality.  
  • Importance: Independence upholds public trust and ensures elections reflect the people’s will without bias.

Q10. Imagine India decided to restrict voting rights only to taxpayers. What impact would this have on democracy and equality?
Ans: Restricting voting to taxpayers would undermine India’s democratic principles and equality.  

  • Impact on Democracy: Excluding non-taxpayers, especially low-income groups, would weaken the universal franchise, limiting representation for 980 million voters.  
  • Impact on Equality: It would favor wealthier citizens, contradicting Article 326’s equal voting rights, creating inequality akin to pre-independence elite systems.  
  • Consequences: Voter apathy could rise, and marginalized groups, like the Scheduled Castes, would lose influence, threatening democratic fairness.

Q11. Compare elections for the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha. How do these differences reflect the balance between people’s representation and state representation?
Ans: Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha elections differ in their methods and purposes, balancing direct and state representation.  

  • Lok Sabha Elections: Direct elections by citizens in 543 constituencies using First-Past-the-Post reflect people’s direct choice of MPs.  
  • Rajya Sabha Elections: Indirect elections by elected MLAs using the single transferable vote ensure state representation based on population.  
  • Balance: Lok Sabha represents the people’s will, while Rajya Sabha, as the Permanent House, balances state interests, ensuring smaller states have a voice.

Q12. The Model Code of Conduct prevents parties from offering gifts or bribes to voters. Do you think stricter punishments are required to make it effective? Give reasons.
Ans: Stricter punishments are needed to enhance the MCC’s effectiveness in curbing electoral malpractices.  

  • Need for Stricter Punishments: The MCC bans bribes, but violations persist due to money power, requiring penalties like candidate disqualification.  
  • Reasons: Strong punishments ensure fairness, protect voter choice, and maintain trust in the ECI, as seen in T.N. Seshan’s crackdowns.

Q13. In a country as diverse as India, what challenges does the Election Commission face in making elections accessible to all? Suggest practical solutions.
Ans: India’s diversity poses significant accessibility challenges for the ECI, requiring innovative solutions.  

  • Challenges: Geographic diversity, a 980 million voter base, and disabilities hinder access, alongside illiteracy and voter apathy.  
  • Solutions: Expand home voting for the elderly and disabled, increase mobile polling stations in remote areas, and use multilingual voter education campaigns.

Q14. Suppose India introduced compulsory voting. How would this change elections, political campaigns, and voter behaviour?
Ans: Compulsory voting would transform India’s electoral landscape by boosting participation.  

  • Elections: Increased turnout would reduce urban voter apathy, ensuring broader representation across 543 constituencies.  
  • Political Campaigns: Parties would target all voters, leading to inclusive campaigns, unlike the current focus on select groups.  
  • Voter Behaviour: Citizens would engage more, seeking information, but forced voting might lead to uninformed choices.

Q15. Imagine you are designing an “ideal” election system for India in the future. What changes would you propose in terms of voting technology, representation, or transparency?
Ans: An ideal election system would modernize and enhance fairness in India’s elections.  

  • Voting Technology: Introduce secure online voting with biometric verification to increase accessibility, building on ECI’s assistive technologies.  
  • Representation: Adopt proportional representation alongside First-Past-the-Post to reflect diverse voter preferences, ensuring smaller parties gain seats.  
  • Transparency: Mandate real-time campaign funding disclosure and stricter MCC enforcement with live monitoring to enhance trust.

4️⃣ The Colonial Era in India – HOTS

Q1. Which of the following best explains why European powers were motivated to establish colonies?
(a) To protect local traditions and cultures
(b) To gain access to resources, markets, and trade routes
(c) To create opportunities for mutual cultural exchange
(d) To avoid conflicts with other European countries  

Ans: (b) To gain access to resources, markets, and trade routes
The European powers competed for global influence to control land, resources, markets, and trade routes, often through plundering local wealth. This economic motive was primary, alongside secondary goals like spreading Christianity, unlike the other options.

Q2. Rani Abbakka of Ullal became a symbol of resistance against the Portuguese because she:
(a) Accepted Portuguese authority peacefully
(b) Converted to Christianity to secure her throne
(c) Successfully resisted multiple invasions through alliances
(d) Fled Ullal and sought asylum in Travancore  

Ans: (c) Successfully resisted multiple invasions through alliances
Rani Abbakka I of Ullal resisted multiple Portuguese attempts to control her region by forming alliances with neighboring kingdoms, cementing her legacy as a resistance symbol, unlike the other options.

Q3. The Dutch defeat at the Battle of Colachel (1741) was significant because it:
(a) Marked the first victory of the British over a European power in India
(b) Proved that Asian powers could decisively defeat Europeans
(c) Led to the expansion of French influence in Malabar
(d) Forced the Portuguese to abandon Goa permanently  

Ans: (b) Proved that Asian powers could decisively defeat Europeans
The Dutch defeat at Colachel in 1741 by Travancore’s forces under Marthanda Varma as a rare victory of an Asian power over a European one, weakening Dutch control in India, making this the correct choice.

Q4. The Bengal Famine of 1770 was worsened by:
(a) Repeated invasions by the French
(b) Portuguese naval blockades
(c) High land taxes imposed despite crop failure
(d) Absence of rivers for irrigation  

Ans: (c) High land taxes imposed despite crop failure
The Bengal Famine of 1770–1772 was exacerbated by the British East India Company’s harsh tax demands on farmers, requiring cash payments despite crop failures, leading to about 10 million deaths, unlike the other options.

Q5. Which of the following was a direct result of Macaulay’s education policy in India?
(a) Promotion of village schools across Bengal
(b) Growth of Sanskrit and Arabic scholarship
(c) Creation of a class of English-educated Indians
(d) Revival of traditional pathashalas and madrasas  

Ans: (c) Creation of a class of English-educated Indians
Macaulay’s 1835 education policy aimed to create Indians “English in taste, opinions, morals, and intellect,” leading to a class of English-educated Indians to serve as colonial clerks, not promoting traditional education systems.

Q6. The Portuguese enforced a cartaz (pass) system to control the Indian Ocean trade. Imagine you are a local Indian trader at that time. What strategies might you adopt to survive and continue trading under such restrictions?  
Ans: As a local Indian trader under the Portuguese cartaz system, I would adopt the following strategies to survive and continue trading:  

  • Obtain Cartaz: To avoid seizure, I would purchase Portuguese passes; ships without permits were confiscated, ensuring safe passage for my goods, like spices or textiles.  
  • Form Alliances: Inspired by Rani Abbakka’s resistance, I would ally with local rulers or anti-Portuguese powers like the Marathas, who challenged European naval control, to secure trade routes or protection.  
  • Diversify Routes: I would explore alternative trade routes, such as overland networks or less-controlled eastern ports like Masulipatnam, to bypass Portuguese-dominated Arabian Sea routes, as noted in India’s pre-colonial trade networks.  
  • Engage in Smuggling: To evade high cartaz costs, I might resort to clandestine trade, using smaller vessels or nighttime operations to avoid Portuguese patrols, a risky but viable tactic given their focus on major ports like Goa.  
  • Leverage Local Knowledge: Using my understanding of coastal geography, I would navigate less-patrolled routes, similar to how Maratha naval tactics exploited terrain, to maintain trade with ports like Mocha or Malacca.

Q7. Analyse how the policy of “divide and rule” helped the British expand political power in India. Can you think of examples from present-day politics where similar strategies of division are used?  
Ans: British “Divide and Rule” in India: The British used “divide and rule” to expand power by exploiting rivalries between Indian rulers and fostering religious or familial tensions. At the Battle of Plassey (1757), Robert Clive conspired with Mir Jafar to betray Nawab Siraj-ud-daulah, securing Bengal with a smaller force. The subsidiary alliance system placed British Residents in Indian courts, controlling foreign relations and weakening rulers, as seen with Hyderabad in 1798. The Doctrine of Lapse annexed states without natural heirs, ignoring Hindu traditions, fueling unrest that led to the 1857 Rebellion. These tactics fragmented Indian unity, enabling British control without direct rule.  

Present-Day Examples:  

  • Political Polarization: In modern democracies, parties often exploit ethnic or religious divisions to gain votes, similar to the British encouragement of communal tensions. For instance, polarizing rhetoric during elections in some countries pits communities against each other to consolidate voter bases.  
  • Regional Rivalries: Governments may favor certain regions or groups to weaken unified opposition, akin to British manipulation of princely states. In some nations, resource allocation favors allied regions, creating divisions that maintain central control.

Q8. The British justified their presence in India as a “civilising mission.” Evaluate this claim with examples from the chapter.  
Ans: The British claim of a “civilising mission” was largely a pretext for exploitation:  

  • Claim of Progress: The colonizers portrayed natives as “savage” or “primitive,” justifying their rule as bringing progress. The British introduced railways and telegraphs, claiming these modernized India.  
  • Reality of Exploitation: Railways primarily served British interests, moving raw materials for export and troops to suppress rebellions, funded by Indian taxes. The Bengal Famine (1770) saw the British raise taxes despite crop failures, causing 10 million deaths, contradicting any humanitarian mission.  
  • Cultural Disruption: Macaulay’s 1835 education policy dismissed Indian literature, aiming to create “Brown Englishmen” for colonial administration, undermining pathashalas and madrasas. The destruction of India’s textile industry, as noted with William Bentinck’s comment on weavers’ plight, prioritized British economic gain over Indian welfare.  
  • Selective Benefits: While the British documented Indian geography and restored some monuments, they stole countless artifacts, as noted, benefiting European collections rather than India.

Q9. Compare the resistance strategies of tribal uprisings (like the Santhal rebellion) and peasants’ movements (like the Indigo revolt). What do their differences reveal about the nature of colonial exploitation?  
Ans: Tribal Uprisings (Santhal Rebellion, 1855–1856):  

  • Strategies: The Santhals, led by Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, declared their own government and fought moneylenders and landlords backed by the British. They used traditional weapons and collective action to briefly control areas, aiming to reclaim land and forest rights.  
  • Nature of Exploitation: British policies restricted tribal forest access, imposed cash taxes, and labeled tribes as “criminal,” disrupting their self-sufficient lifestyles.

Peasant Uprisings (Indigo Revolt, 1859–1862):  

  • Strategies: The peasants targeted European indigo planters, who forced them to grow indigo instead of food crops. Supported by educated Bengalis and the press, they used protests and refusals to plant, forcing reforms to curb abuses.  
  • Nature of Exploitation: Peasants faced economic coercion through debt traps and torture for refusing indigo, reflecting British prioritization of export crops over local food security.

Differences and Insights:  

  • Scope: Tribal uprisings aimed for autonomy and land reclamation, reflecting their isolation in forests, while peasant revolts focused on economic relief within the colonial system, indicating integration into market economies.  
  • Allies: Peasants gained urban and press support, unlike tribals, who relied on community strength, showing urban-rural divides in colonial impact.  
  • Exploitation Nature: Tribal exploitation targeted land and cultural identity, while peasant exploitation centered on economic oppression through forced crops, revealing diverse colonial strategies to maximize resource extraction.

Q10. The Bengal Famine (1770) and the Great Famine (1876–78) both occurred under British rule. If you were a colonial administrator, what different policies could have been taken to reduce the suffering of people?  
Ans: As a colonial administrator, I would implement the following policies to reduce famine suffering:

  • Lower Taxes During Crises: Unlike the British, who raised taxes during the 1770 famine, I would suspend or reduce land taxes during crop failures to prevent farmers from selling cattle, tools, or seed grain, as noted by W.W. Hunter.  
  • Regulate Food Prices: Countering the 1876–1878 famine’s “free market” policy under Lord Lytton, I would control food prices and prevent hoarding by Indian traders to ensure affordability, avoiding starvation from eating leaves or grass.  
  • Increase Relief Efforts: Instead of inadequate relief camps, I would establish well-supplied camps with food, water, and medical aid, ensuring accessibility to prevent cities from being overwhelmed by starving people.  
  • Halt Grain Exports: The British rice exports during the 1876–1878 famine. I would prioritize local food distribution over exports to Britain, preserving stocks for famine-hit regions.  
  • Invest in Irrigation: To address drought-related crop failures, I would fund irrigation projects like canals, building on India’s pre-colonial systems, to stabilize agriculture long-term.

Q11. “The drain of wealth from India fuelled the Industrial Revolution in Britain.” Critically analyse this statement concerning the chapter.  
Ans: The statement can be supported by:  

  • Supporting Evidence: U.S. historian Brooks Adams linking the “Bengal plunder” post-Plassey (1757) to Britain’s Industrial Revolution from 1760, describing it as highly profitable. Will Durant calls it “stolen wealth,” extracted through taxes, railway costs, and British war expenses. Utsa Patnaik estimates 45 trillion U.S. dollars (today’s value) drained from 1765 to 1938, fueling British industries. The collapse of India’s textile industry, as noted, supplied raw materials for British factories while flooding India with British goods.  
  • Critical Analysis: The drain was systematic, with Indian tax revenue funding colonial infrastructure like railways, which served British interests, not local development. However, India’s pre-colonial wealth (one-fourth of global GDP) indicates some economic resilience, and cultural exchanges (e.g., translations) show indirect benefits. Yet, the scale of extraction, leaving India’s GDP at 5% by Independence, confirms the drain’s devastating impact.  
  • Counterpoint: Some British investments, like railways, aided connectivity, but these primarily served imperial needs, not Indian welfare, reinforcing the drain’s role in British industrialization.

Q12. The Great Rebellion of 1857 failed due to a lack of unity and coordination. Propose an alternative strategy the rebels could have used to increase their chances of success.  
Ans: To increase the chances of success in the 1857 Rebellion, the rebels could have adopted the following strategy:  

  • Unified Command Structure: The lack of a unified command structure. Establishing a central leadership council, including figures like Bahadur Shah Zafar, Nana Saheb, and Rani Lakshmibai, could coordinate military efforts across regions like Delhi, Kanpur, and Lucknow.  
  • Alliance Building: Instead of relying solely on sepoys, rebels could form alliances with princely states and tribal groups, leveraging their resources and local support, similar to Nana Phadnavis’ later anti-British coalition.  
  • Strategic Communication: Using existing trade networks, as noted in pre-colonial India, rebels could establish secret communication channels to synchronize attacks and share intelligence, avoiding isolated uprisings like Meerut.  
  • Target British Infrastructure: Rebels could disrupt railways and telegraphs, built for British troop movement, to delay reinforcements, unlike the uncoordinated city captures described.  
  • Propaganda Campaign: Inspired by the Vande Mataram song’s later impact, rebels could use pamphlets or oral traditions to rally broader civilian support, countering British divide-and-rule tactics.

Q13. Rani Lakshmibai and Begum Hazrat Mahal are remembered as heroines of the 1857 Rebellion. In your view, what qualities made their leadership remarkable in the context of colonial resistance?
Ans: Rani Lakshmibai and Begum Hazrat Mahal’s leadership was remarkable due to:

  • Courage and Defiance: Rani Lakshmibai’s valiant defense of Jhansi, escaping a British siege and capturing Gwalior, dying in battle in 1858. Begum Hazrat Mahal led Lucknow’s defense, refusing British surrender offers and fleeing to Nepal, showcasing resolute defiance.
  • Strategic Acumen: Lakshmibai collaborated with Tatia Tope to seize Gwalior’s arsenal, while Hazrat Mahal organized military resistance in Awadh, demonstrating tactical skill against a superior British force.
  • Inspirational Leadership: Lakshmibai’s bravery earned British praise as the “best and bravest” rebel, inspiring troops. Hazrat Mahal’s counter-proclamation to Queen Victoria’s 1858 reforms rallied Indian skepticism, galvanizing resistance.
  • Cultural Symbolism: Both women embodied resistance to British annexation (Jhansi via Doctrine of Lapse, Awadh via direct takeover), symbolizing Indian sovereignty and inspiring future struggles.

Q14. Imagine you are a historian writing about colonial India. How would you balance the narrative between stories of exploitation and stories of resistance?
Ans: As a historian, I would balance the narrative of colonial India by:

  • Exploitation Narrative: Highlight British economic drain, as noted by Utsa Patnaik’s 45-trillion-dollar estimate, and the Bengal Famine (1770), where harsh taxes killed 10 million. The destruction of India’s textile industry and Macaulay’s education policy, which eroded traditional systems, would underscore systemic subjugation.
  • Resistance Narrative: Emphasize early resistance like Rani Abbakka’s alliances against the Portuguese, the Santhal Rebellion’s fight for land rights, and the 1857 Rebellion led by figures like Rani Lakshmibai and Begum Hazrat Mahal. Vande Mataram’s inspiration would show cultural resistance fueling later freedom struggles.
  • Balancing Approach: Weave these narratives chronologically, showing exploitation (e.g., Plassey’s plunder) sparking resistance (e.g., 1857 Rebellion). Use personal stories, like famine victims eating grass or Lakshmibai’s battlefield valor, to humanize both aspects. Acknowledge cultural exchanges, like Sanskrit translations, to show complexity without diluting exploitation’s severity.
  • Perspective: Present Indian voices, like Dadabhai Naoroji’s critiques, alongside British accounts, like W.W. Hunter’s famine observations, to ensure a multi-perspective narrative.

Q15. Cultural exchange during colonial times was not one-sided; Indian ideas also influenced Europe. Analyse one way in which Indian thought, art, or literature shaped European culture, and explain why such exchanges remain important today.
Ans: Indian Influence on Europe: 
British, French, and German translations of Sanskrit texts, like the Upanishads, were described by Georg Hegel as the “discovery of a new continent.” These translations influenced 19th-century European philosophers, poets, and writers, such as Arthur Schopenhauer, whose philosophy of pessimism drew heavily on Upanishadic concepts of detachment and the illusory nature of the world. His work, in turn, shaped European literature and thought, inspiring figures like Nietzsche and Wagner.
Why Exchanges Matter Today: Such exchanges foster mutual understanding, breaking down cultural stereotypes and promoting global cooperation. In a world facing challenges like climate change and cultural conflicts, historical examples of Indian ideas enriching European thought underscore the value of cross-cultural dialogue, encouraging collaborative solutions and respect for diverse perspectives.

3️⃣ The Rise of the Marathas – HOTS

Q1. Shivaji’s decision to build a strong navy was unique in his time. Which of the following had the broader impact on the Maratha power?
(a) It allowed them to dominate inland trade routes
(b) It helped them resist European naval dominance on the west coast
(c) It strengthened their ties with the Delhi Sultanate
(d) It enabled them to abandon guerrilla warfare  

Ans: (b) It helped them resist European naval dominance on the west coast
Shivaji built a navy to secure the west coast, where the Mughals and Bijapur had weak or no navies. Under Kanhoji Angre, the Maratha navy challenged European trade control by demanding passes (cartaz), frustrating powers like the Portuguese and English, thus resisting their naval dominance.

Q2. Which of the following best reflects how the Bhakti movement contributed to the rise of Maratha power?
(a) It provided military strategies against the Mughals
(b) It promoted cultural unity through accessible devotional literature
(c) It encouraged the Marathas to build forts for defense
(d) It helped Shivaji establish trade relations with Europe  

Ans: (b) It promoted cultural unity through accessible devotional literature
The Bhakti movement, through saints like Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram, translated holy texts into Marathi, fostering cultural unity. This provided a strong cultural foundation, enabling the Marathas to unite politically under Shivaji’s leadership.

Q3. Why was Shivaji’s coronation at Raigad Fort in 1674 symbolically important?
(a) It marked the end of Mughal power in the Deccan
(b) It legitimised Maratha rule with traditional Hindu rituals
(c) It established a democratic council for administration
(d) It created an alliance between the Marathas and the Dutch  

Ans: (b) It legitimised Maratha rule with traditional Hindu rituals
Shivaji’s 1674 coronation at Raigad Fort with Vedic rites, starting the Rajyabhisheka Shaka era. This event symbolized the establishment of a sovereign Maratha state rooted in Hindu traditions, legitimizing his rule as Chhatrapati.

Q4. If you were a Maratha chief during Tarabai’s leadership, which strategy would best reflect her vision?
(a) Staying defensive within forts
(b) Expanding aggressively into northern Mughal territories
(c) Negotiating peace and reducing warfare
(d) Seeking European alliances over Indian ones 

Ans: (b) Expanding aggressively into northern Mughal territories
Tarabai’s bold leadership after Rajaram’s death, as she launched campaigns into Mughal territories, exploiting Aurangzeb’s focus on the Deccan. Her vision involved aggressive expansion to maintain and grow Maratha power.

Q5. Shivaji’s raid on Surat spared religious places and kind individuals like Mohandas Parekh. What does this suggest about his leadership?
(a) He valued wealth over religion
(b) He sought to gain legitimacy and moral authority
(c) He was dependent on the Mughals for cultural guidance
(d) He discouraged trade with wealthy ports 

Ans: (b) He sought to gain legitimacy and moral authority
Shivaji looted Surat but spared religious places and kind individuals like Mohandas Parekh, earning fame in newspapers like the London Gazette. This selective approach suggests he aimed to project moral authority and gain legitimacy as a just ruler, not just a plunderer.

Q6. How did the cultural contributions of saints like Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram indirectly prepare the ground for Maratha political unity under Shivaji?  
Ans: The cultural contributions of Bhakti saints like Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram fostered Maratha unity by creating a shared cultural identity. The saints translated sacred texts like the Upanishads and Bhagavad Gita into Marathi, making them accessible to common people. Their devotional poetry and songs in Marathi, spread from the 7th to 17th centuries, emphasized devotion and social awareness, uniting diverse communities. This cultural cohesion, as noted, provided a strong foundation for Shivaji’s vision of Swarajya, enabling him to rally Marathas politically against Mughal and Sultanate rule by leveraging a shared sense of identity and purpose.

Q7. “Forts are the foundation of a strong state.” — Evaluate this statement in the context of Maratha administration and military strategy.  
Ans: The statement, attributed to Shivaji’s minister Ramachandrapant Amatya in the Adnyapatra, is highly applicable to Maratha success. Forts were central to Maratha military strategy, as noted, controlling key routes and serving as bases for guerrilla warfare. Shivaji captured forts like Pratapgad to defeat enemies like Afzal Khan, and forts enabled the Marathas to withstand Mughal assaults under Aurangzeb, unlike Bijapur and Golconda. Administratively, forts were governance hubs, supporting local administration and tax collection (e.g., chauth). However, reliance on forts limited mobility in open battles, as seen in the defeat at Panipat (1761). Overall, forts were foundational to Maratha resilience, enabling defense and strategic control, though not sufficient alone for empire-wide dominance.

Q8. Compare Shivaji’s guerrilla warfare tactics to modern-day military strategies like “surgical strikes.” What similarities and differences can you identify?  
Ans: Similarities:  

  • Precision and Speed: Shivaji’s guerrilla tactics are described like the night raid on Shaista Khan’s camp, as quick, targeted attacks with small groups, similar to modern surgical strikes that aim for precise, high-impact operations with minimal collateral damage.  
  • Surprise Element: Both rely on surprise, as seen in Shivaji’s Pratapgad ambush of Afzal Khan, akin to surgical strikes using stealth to catch enemies off-guard.  
  • Limited Resources: Shivaji used small, mobile units to defeat larger armies, much like surgical strikes leverage specialized teams for efficiency.

Differences:  

  • Technology: Shivaji’s tactics used swords, lances, and wāgh nakh, while surgical strikes employ advanced technology like drones and precision-guided munitions.  
  • Scale and Scope: Guerrilla warfare was a sustained campaign across terrains, like forests and forts, while surgical strikes are typically one-off operations targeting specific sites.  
  • Objective: Shivaji aimed for territorial control and Swarajya, whereas surgical strikes often focus on deterrence or retaliation without territorial goals.

Q9. Imagine you are a Mughal official at Aurangzeb’s court. How would you evaluate Shivaji’s daring escape from Agra? Would you view it as a failure of Mughal power or the brilliance of Maratha planning? Justify.  
Ans: As a Mughal official, I would view Shivaji’s escape from Agra as a brilliance of Maratha planning, though it exposes a lapse in Mughal vigilance. Shivaji, humiliated at Aurangzeb’s court, escaped by hiding in gift baskets, showcasing his cunning and strategic foresight. This daring act required meticulous planning, exploiting Mughal trust in routine gift exchanges. While it highlights a failure in our security—failing to monitor a known rebel closely—it primarily underscores Shivaji’s resourcefulness, as his escape strengthened Maratha morale and resistance. His ability to outwit our forces, despite our superior resources, demands respect and calls for tighter surveillance in future dealings with such a crafty foe.

Q10. Discuss how Tarabai and Ahilyabai Holkar redefined the role of women in leadership and governance during the Maratha period.  

Ans: Tarabai and Ahilyabai Holkar reshaped women’s roles in Maratha leadership:  

  • Tarabai: She is a bold warrior queen who, after Rajaram’s death, led Maratha campaigns against Mughals, exploiting Aurangzeb’s Deccan focus to conquer northern territories. Her strategic leadership in warfare and expansion challenged traditional gender roles, proving women could lead militarily and politically during crises, sustaining Maratha power.  
  • Ahilyabai Holkar: Governing the Holkar dynasty for three decades, Ahilyabai ruled with wisdom and compassion, as noted. She rebuilt temples like Kashi Vishwanath, supported public welfare, and revived Maheshwar’s handloom tradition. Her administrative skill and cultural patronage showed women could excel in governance and cultural leadership, leaving a lasting legacy.
    Conclusion: Both women defied norms, with Tarabai leading militarily and Ahilyabai excelling in administration and culture, expanding the scope of women’s leadership in the Maratha Empire.

Q11. The Marathas challenged European trade control by demanding passes (cartaz) from them. In what way did this policy reverse traditional power dynamics?  
Ans: The Maratha policy of demanding cartaz from Europeans, led by Kanhoji Angre, reversed traditional power dynamics by shifting control from European naval powers to an Indian state. Europeans typically forced Indian ships to buy trade passes, asserting dominance over maritime routes. By demanding passes from Europeans, the Marathas challenged this hierarchy, compelling powers like the Portuguese and English to negotiate with an Indian navy. This frustrated Europeans, earning Angre the “pirate” label, and asserted Maratha sovereignty over the west coast, reversing the dynamic where Indian powers were subordinate to European trade control.

Q12. Create a comparative chart of Shivaji’s administration and that of the Mughals. In what ways did Shivaji innovate while still borrowing elements from older systems?  
Ans:  

Innovations by Shivaji:  

  • Navy Creation: Unlike the Mughals, Shivaji built a navy to secure the west coast, challenging European dominance, a unique innovation.  
  • Non-Hereditary Posts: Removing hereditary positions and paying salaries prevented power consolidation, unlike Mughal reliance on hereditary mansabdars.  
  • Cultural Revival: His use of Sanskrit seals and Marathi texts broke from Mughal Persian dominance, fostering local identity.
    Borrowed Elements:  
  • Taxation Model: Chauth and Sardeshmukhi mirrored Mughal revenue systems but were adapted to encourage alliances.  
  • Council Structure: The Ashta Pradhana Mandala was inspired by Mughal ministerial councils but tailored for centralized control.
    Conclusion: Shivaji innovated with a navy, non-hereditary governance, and cultural revival, while adapting Mughal taxation and council structures to suit his vision of Swarajya.

Q13. The Marathas are often credited with planting the early seeds of Indian nationalism. Critically evaluate this statement with examples from their cultural and political legacy.  
Ans: The Marathas contributed to early Indian nationalism, but the claim requires nuance:  

  • Supporting Nationalism:
    • Swarajya Vision: Shivaji’s concept of self-rule inspired resistance against Mughal domination, fostering a sense of Indian sovereignty. His coronation and Sanskrit seal emphasized local governance over foreign rule.  
    • Cultural Revival: By promoting Marathi, Sanskrit, and Hindu traditions, Shivaji and successors like the Bhonsles (e.g., reviving Jagannath worship in Puri) strengthened regional identities, a precursor to national unity.  
    • Anti-Foreign Resistance: Nana Phadnavis’ pan-Indian alliance with Hyder Ali and the Nizam against the British, showing early coalition-building against foreign rule, a hallmark of nationalism.
  • Limitations:
    • Regional Focus: Maratha power was rooted in Maharashtra, with campaigns (e.g., in Bengal) sometimes causing harm, as noted, limiting broader Indian unity.  
    • Decentralized Rule: The Peshwas and regional chiefs gained power, leading to internal disunity, which weakened a unified national vision.  
    • Religious Emphasis: While Shivaji respected all religions, the Hindu-centric revival might not have fully embraced India’s diverse faiths, a key aspect of later nationalism.
      Conclusion: The Marathas planted seeds of nationalism through Swarajya, cultural revival, and anti-British alliances, but their regional focus and internal disunity limited a fully cohesive national identity.

Q14. Imagine Shivaji had lived 20 more years. Predict how this might have changed Maratha-British or Maratha-Mughal relations in the late 17th century.  
Ans: If Shivaji lived until 1700:  
Maratha-Mughal Relations: 

  • Shivaji’s guerrilla tactics and fort-based strategy would likely intensify resistance against Aurangzeb, preventing Mughal control of the Deccan. His conquests in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka suggest he could expand further, weakening the Mughal hold on southern India.  
  • His diplomatic skills, seen in sparing Mohandas Parekh, might lead to strategic alliances with weaker Mughal factions, delaying Aurangzeb’s conquests of Bijapur and Golconda.

Maratha-British Relations: 

  •  Shivaji’s navy challenged European trade control. A longer reign could strengthen his fleet, disrupting British East India Company trade routes, as his ships reached Muscat.  
  • His ban on Dutch slave trading suggests he would resist British exploitation, potentially delaying their early foothold in Bombay and Surat through naval and diplomatic pressure.

Overall Impact: Shivaji’s leadership would likely consolidate Maratha power, delaying Mughal decline and British expansion. His vision of Swarajya could inspire broader resistance, altering the trajectory of colonial influence in India.

Q15. Evaluate the successes and failures of the Peshwa leadership after Shivaji’s death. How did their strategies both expand and weaken the Maratha Empire?  
Ans: Successes of Peshwa Leadership:  

  • Expansion: Bajirao I and Nanasaheb Peshwa expanded Maratha control to Lahore, Attock, and Peshawar, creating a vast confederacy. Their campaigns, building on Tarabai’s northern invasions, made the Marathas the largest Indian empire before British rule.  
  • Military Modernization: Mahadji Shinde’s adoption of European-style troops and artillery, including metal tube rockets, strengthened Maratha forces, enabling Delhi’s recapture in 1771.  
  • Anti-British Alliances: Nana Phadnavis’ pan-Indian alliance with Hyder Ali and the Nizam, as noted, challenged British expansion, showing diplomatic foresight.

Failures of Peshwa Leadership:  

  • Internal Disunity: The regional chiefs gaining power, diluting centralized control, and deviating from Shivaji’s values, as seen in the harmful Bengal campaigns. This weakened cohesion.  
  • Panipat Defeat (1761): The loss to Afghans, due to overambitious expansion, drained resources and morale, exposing strategic overreach.  
  • British Defeat: Internal disunity and British technological advantages led to Maratha losses in the Anglo-Maratha wars (1775–1818), ending their dominance.

Impact of Strategies:  

  • Expansion Success: Aggressive campaigns expanded Maratha influence, leveraging forts and cavalry, but overstretched resources.  
  • Weakening Factors: Decentralization and reliance on regional chiefs fostered disunity, making the empire vulnerable to British organization.

2️⃣ Reshaping India’s Political Map – HOTS

Q1. India attracted many foreign invaders during the medieval period. Which of the following was the most important reason?
(a) Lack of strong rulers
(b) Rich natural resources and wealth
(c) Geographical isolation
(d) Small population  

Ans: (b) Rich natural resources and wealth
India’s wealth, including gold, silver, and thriving trade (e.g., textiles), made it a prime target for invaders like the Turks, Afghans, and Mughals. While weak rulers and political instability contributed, the primary lure was India’s immense economic prosperity.

Q2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq shifted his capital from Delhi to Daulatabad. Which skill of governance was most tested by this decision?
(a) Military strength
(b) Administrative planning
(c) Trade control
(d) Religious tolerance 

Ans: (b) Administrative planning
The shift to Daulatabad required extensive logistical planning to relocate people and resources over 1,000 km. This was a poorly executed reform, causing hardship, testing Tughlaq’s administrative capabilities, not military strength, trade, or religious policy.

Q3. The Battle of Talikota (1565) was a turning point in South Indian history. If Vijayanagara had won, which of the following might have happened?
(a) The Deccan Sultanates would have united
(b) Vijayanagara’s cultural patronage might have continued longer
(c) The Mughal Empire would not expand in North India
(d) British trade would have ended 

Ans: (b) Vijayanagara’s cultural patronage might have continued longer
Krishnadevaraya’s reign saw a cultural renaissance with the patronage of arts, literature, and temples. A victory at Talikota could have sustained Vijayanagara’s dominance and cultural contributions. The other options are less plausible: the Deccan Sultanates united against Vijayanagara, Mughal expansion was unrelated to Talikota, and British trade was not yet significant.

Q4. Which of these best explains why Akbar’s rule is often called a “golden age” of the Mughal Empire?
(a) Constant military conquests
(b) Harsh tax collection system
(c) Policies of tolerance and inclusion
(d) Aurangzeb’s religious reforms 

Ans: (c) Policies of tolerance and inclusion
Akbar’s policies, like abolishing the jizya tax, promoting sulh-i-kul (peace with all), and integrating Rajputs through marriage alliances and appointments, fostered stability and cultural growth, marking his reign as a golden age, unlike the other options.

Q5. Which of these groups used their geographical advantage most effectively to resist powerful empires?
(a) Rajputs of Mewar
(b) Portuguese in Goa
(c) Mughals in Delhi
(d) British in Bengal 

Ans: (a) Rajputs of Mewar
The Rajputs, particularly under Maharana Pratap, used the Aravalli hills for guerrilla warfare to resist Mughal control. The rugged terrain and support from the Bhil tribes made Mewar a stronghold. The Portuguese relied on naval power, the Mughals were invaders, and the British used political strategies, not geography, in Bengal.

Q6. Ala-ud-din Khilji introduced price control measures. Do you think these policies would work in today’s world? Why or why not?  
Ans: Ala-ud-din Khilji’s price control measures aimed to regulate markets by setting fixed prices for goods to support his military and ensure affordability. In today’s complex, globalized economy, such policies would likely face challenges:  

  • Modern economies are driven by supply and demand, with global trade and inflation affecting prices. Fixed prices could lead to shortages, black markets, or reduced production.  
  • Today’s interconnected markets, with millions of goods and services, make centralized price controls impractical and prone to inefficiencies.  
  • Modern economies involve private corporations and international trade agreements, limiting the government’s ability to enforce such policies without resistance.

Potential for Limited Success: In specific contexts, like wartime or crisis, price controls can stabilize markets temporarily, but sustained controls often distort markets.

Q7. “Muhammad bin Tughlaq was ahead of his time, yet unsuccessful.” Do you agree with this statement? Give reasons.  
Ans: I partially agree. Muhammad bin Tughlaq’s reforms were visionary but poorly executed:  
Ahead of His Time:  

  • His token currency (copper coins equal to silver or gold) resembled modern fiat currency, an innovative idea.  
  • Moving the capital to Daulatabad aimed to centralize control, a forward-thinking administrative idea.  
  • Uniting most of the subcontinent was ambitious and rare for his era.

Reasons for Unsuccess:  

  • The capital shift caused hardship due to poor planning, forcing people to travel 1,000 km, only to be reversed.  
  • The token currency led to counterfeiting, collapsing trade, and the economy.  
  • His grand ideas outpaced the administrative and technological capabilities of the time, alienating subjects.

Q8. Compare the resistance strategies of the Ahoms in Assam and the Rajputs in Rajasthan. What made them successful in protecting their independence?  
Ans: Both the Ahoms and Rajputs resisted powerful empires (Mughals and Delhi Sultanate) effectively, leveraging geography, military tactics, and cultural unity, but their strategies differed:  
Ahom Resistance Strategies:  

  • Used Assam’s dense forests, hills, and Brahmaputra River to hinder Mughal advances (e.g., Battle of Saraighat, 1671).  
  • Employed guerrilla tactics and river-based warfare under Lachit Borphukan.  
  • The paik system ensured a flexible, large force without a standing army.  
  • Integrated local cultures, strengthening community support.

Rajput Resistance Strategies:  

  • Used forts like Kumbhalgarh and Chittorgarh in the Aravalli hills for defense.  
  • Maharana Pratap employed guerrilla tactics with Bhil tribal support post-Haldighati (1576).  
  • Leaders like Rana Sanga unified Rajput clans for collective resistance.  
  • Warrior traditions and jauhar fueled their resolve.

What Made Them Successful:  

  • Terrain knowledge (Assam’s rivers, Rajasthan’s hills) offset numerical disadvantages.  
  • Community support (Ahom’s paik system, Rajput clan unity) strengthened resolve.  
  • Adaptive guerrilla tactics suited smaller forces against empires.  
  • Strong leadership (Lachit Borphukan, Maharana Pratap) inspired innovation.

Q9. If you were an artisan in the Vijayanagara Empire, how would wars and invasions have affected your life and work?  
Ans: As an artisan in Vijayanagara, wars and invasions would profoundly impact my life:  

  • Economic Disruption: Frequent wars with the Deccan Sultanates and Gajapatis disrupted trade routes and markets, reducing demand for goods (e.g., jewelry, temple carvings). The sack of Vijayanagara post-Talikota (1565) would destroy workshops and markets.  
  • Personal Safety and Displacement: The sacking of Hampi destroyed homes and shops, forcing me to flee, face enslavement, or die. Constant conflicts would create fear, disrupting craftsmanship.  
  • Patronage Loss: Krishnadevaraya’s patronage supported artisans through temple endowments. Wars and the empire’s decline would reduce funding, limiting projects like temple sculptures.  
  • Cultural Impact: I might adapt by incorporating new styles from invaders or traders, but temple destruction would limit religious art, forcing a shift to secular crafts.

Q10. Akbar and Aurangzeb followed very different religious policies. Analyse how these differences affected the stability of the Mughal Empire.  
Ans: Akbar and Aurangzeb’s contrasting religious policies impacted Mughal stability:  
Akbar’s Policies (Tolerance and Inclusion):  

  • Abolished jizya, promoted sulh-i-kul, and integrated Rajputs through marriages and appointments.  
  • Fostered unity, reduced rebellions, and ensured a peaceful middle period (1556–1605), strengthening the empire.

Aurangzeb’s Policies (Orthodox and Intolerant):  

  • Reimposed jizya, banned music, and destroyed Hindu, Jain, and Sikh temples (e.g., Banaras, Mathura).  
  • Sparked rebellions (Rajputs, Sikhs, Jats) and drained resources through Deccan campaigns, leading to decline post-1707.

Comparative Impact: Akbar’s tolerance built alliances and stability; Aurangzeb’s intolerance alienated groups and overextended the empire, weakening governance.

Q11. Imagine you are a court historian in Vijayanagara. How would you record the destruction of Hampi after the Battle of Talikota?  
Ans: Chronicle of Vijayanagara, Year 1565
In the year of our Lord Vitthala, tragedy befell our radiant capital, Hampi. Under Ramaraya, our forces met the Deccan Sultanates at Talikota. Despite courage, treachery, and numbers overwhelmed us. The Sultanate armies ravaged Hampi for months, reducing palaces and temples to rubble. The Vitthala temple’s sanctuaries were defiled, markets plundered, and thousands perished. Hampi lies in ruins, but Vijayanagara’s spirit endures in its scattered Nayakas, who vow to rebuild. I weep for Hampi but record its legacy of art, faith, and valor.

Q12. Many rulers destroyed the temples of their rivals during the medieval period. Do you think these actions were more political or religious? Support your view.  
Ans: Temple destruction was primarily political:  

  • Political Motives: Rulers like Ala-ud-din Khilji and Timur plundered temples for wealth to fund campaigns and assert dominance. Destroying temples undermined rivals’ cultural legitimacy.  
  • Religious Motives: Some, like Aurangzeb, destroyed temples due to iconoclasm, pressuring conversions via jizya.  
  • Why Political Dominates: Looting for wealth and targeting temples to weaken rivals were primary, with religious motives as justification.

Q13. “Trade and commerce continued to flourish even during political instability.” Explain this statement concerning the hundi system.  
Ans: India’s economy thrived despite instability due to agriculture, crafts, and trade. The hundi system, a written order to pay money, enabled merchants to transfer funds safely across kingdoms, operating independently of rulers. Coastal towns like Calicut exported textiles, and temples facilitated trade. The hundi’s flexibility ensured commerce persisted, supporting merchants like Marwaris across regimes.  

Q14. Evaluate the contributions of regional kingdoms like the Hoysalas, Eastern Gangas, and Mewar to India’s cultural and political history.  
Ans: The Hoysalas, Eastern Gangas, and Mewar enriched India:  

  • Hoysalas: Built intricate temples (Belur, Halebid), resisted the Delhi Sultanate, preserving southern autonomy.  
  • Eastern Gangas: Constructed Konark’s Sūrya temple, repelled Sultanate invasions, and enriched Odisha’s heritage.  
  • Mewar: Built Kumbhalgarh Fort, resisted Mughals under Rana Kumbha and Maharana Pratap, maintaining Rajput independence.

Q15. Imagine that the Delhi Sultanate had successfully unified all of India. How might India’s cultural and political landscape look different today?  
Ans: If the Delhi Sultanate unified India:  

  • Cultural Landscape: Stronger Islamic influence with more Indo-Islamic architecture, but reduced regional diversity (e.g., fewer Hoysala or Konark temples). Syncretism might increase, but Hindu/Jain texts could diminish.  
  • Political Landscape: Centralized governance might reduce regional autonomy, delaying Sikh or Maratha powers. A stronger military could have resisted British colonization, altering modern boundaries.  
  • Modern Implications: A less pluralistic India with fewer linguistic states, though rebellions might still fragment the state.